PCAR 1-7

When did RA 9497 took effect?. May 23 2008. June 11 2008. March 23 2008. May 10 2008.

refers to the title of a regulation and can be subdivision of a subpart or section. subpart. subsection. section. part.

the amendment cycle shall be twice every year which are every. january & december. march & october. february & august. january & july.

What is Republic Act 9497. Philippine Aeronautical Engineering Decree. Civil Authority Act. Civil Aeronautics Act. Civil Aviation Act.

How many days can a holder of a license exercise the privileges of his license if he had a change of address?. 30 days. 60 days. 15 days. 10 days.

If a license was lost or destroyed, the Authority will provide a fascimile that the airman can carry in lieu of the lost/destroyed document for up to?. 30 days. 60 days. 20 days. 1 year.

What can be the consequence of a person made a false entry in any logbook?. charged for civil penalty. nothing. cannot exercise the privileges of his license for up to 60 days. license or rating will be suspended.

Who must display their certificate in a place or school that is normally accessible to the public that should not be obscured?. AMO holder. ATO holder. Aerial Work holder. Air Operator holder.

What license must be inside the aircraft and must be available for inspection?. Med Certificate. AAC. AWC. ACR.

What certificate must be in the cabin or at the entrance of the aircraft?. AAC. AOC. ACR. ATO.

The authority can inspect aircraft engine, propeller, air operator, school, AMO. at any time. false. they cannot unless with notice. true.

How long can a person reapply his license after it was revoked?. 60 days. 90 days. 3 years. 1 year.

Can a person voluntarily suspend his license?. no, the authority can only suspend his license. yes. no. maybe.

How long can a person exercise his privileges after he denied to be tested for alcohol or drug and selling of drugs?. up to 2 years. up to 6 months. up to 1 year. up to 9 months.

Any interested person may apply to _____ for an exemption. authority. executive director. CAAP. director general.

Applications for an exemption should be submitted at least. 7 days. 30 days. 60 days. 90 days.

If an applicant for exemption is not a citizen or legal resident of the PH, he. cannot apply for exemption. must apply for citizenship first. can apply directly to the director general. can apply with a PH agent service.

If the applicant seeks emergency processing, the director general. should always approved it. may deny an application if facts and reason are not justified. should approve it if its timely filed. should not approve it.

Where would you find the SMS implementation plan for AOC, ATO, AMO or Gen Av operators. Part 1. Part 2. Part 3. Part 6.

What will be the consequence of student pilot carrying passengers?. 90 to 120 day suspension. 60 to 90 day suspension. 60 to 180 day suspension. revocation.

Length of the take off run available plus length of stopway. TORA. TODA. ASDA. LDA.

Elevation of the highest point of the landing area. Airport Elevation. Airport Altitude. Touchdown zone elevation. Slope elevation.

Code word used to designate alert phase. WARNING. INCERFA. ALERFA. ECHO.

Which of the ff. approaches does not provides vertical guidance. ILS. MLS. LP. GLS.

What is an aircraft. any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the air against the earth's surface. airplane, helicopter or other machine capable of flight. vehicle for traveling through the air. means an aircraft making an international voyage.

Article __ of the Chicago Convention requires the PH to issue certificates or licences. 18. 21. 44. 32.

What class of medical certificate should CPL, ATPL, Flight Engineer, and Flight Nav have?. Class 1. Class 2. Class 3. Validation Certificate.

What class of med cert for PPL, Glider, Free Balloon Pilot?. Class 1. Class 2. Class 3. Validation Certificate.

What class of med cert for ATC license?. Class 1. Class 2. Class 3. Validation Certificate.

How long is the validation certificate?. 3 years. 1 year. 24 months. 6 month.

Foreign PPL license, what med cert should he have?. Class 1. Class 2. Class 3. none.

Military Pilots can apply for. ATPL. CPL. PPL. MPL.

A military mechanic is eligible to apply for an aircraft mechanic if he or was a member of the military within ____ from the date of application. 12 months. 6 months. 2 years. 90 days.

Can the authority provide reduction in the experience requirements on issuing licenses and rating?. Yes. No. Yes if he is trained within an ATO. i guess.

Which of the ff. is not considered to be an evidentiary document for armed force applicant wanting to apply for a license. certificated of training. official armed force logbook showing pilot status. official order that he graduated from a pilot school. none of the above.

those demonstrating language proficiency at level 3 should. no longer be evaluated. exempted from the evaluation. shall be evaluated. none of the above.

When can the authority suspend a license?. lack of qualification. during the investigation of an aircraft disaster. misconduct. all of the above.

How many days should a person surrender his license to the authority after being notified?. within 5 days. within 3 days. within 8 days. within 7 days.

A medical certificate can be revoked due to. recklessness. lost of skills. all of the above. providing incorrect data.

Any license that has expired for more than 24 months shall complete what?. initial ground training. flight training program. instrument rating. all of the above.

Within 24 months of expiration, an AMT/AMS holder shall?. pass the CAR test given by authority. undergo training from an AMO. pass all theoretical, knowledge test and skill test. renew his license.

After 20 months of an expired AMT/AMS license, he shall. pass the CAR test. undergo training from AMO. renew his license. undergo a refresher course.

After 60 months from expiration, AMT/AMS license holder shall. undergo training from AMO. comply with the requirements for application. undergo refresher course. pass knowledge test on airlaws.

A license that has been suspended or revoked may be reissued or reinstated subject to the ____. Authority's approval. Executive Officer's approval. Director General's approval. None of the above.

A person who holds an expired Philippine license, ratings authorization or certificate for LESS THAN thirty six (36) months must. pass the air law, all theoretical or knowledge skill and oral test requirements. undergo refresher course. renew license. pass CAR test.

A person who holds an expired Philippine license, ratings authorization or certificate for MORE THAN thirty six (36) months must. pass air law, all theoretical or knowledge, skill and oral test requirements. undergo refresher course. renew license. pass CAR test.

Which of the ff. is not credited in full flight time for a student pilot?. solo fight. dual instruction flight. PIC flight time. none of the above.

The holder of a pilot license, when acting co-pilot at a pilot station of an aircraft certificated for operation by a single pilot required by a Contracting State to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credited in. full. not more than 50% of the co pilot flight time. not more than 25% of the co pilot flight time. not be credited.

No pilot can serve as PIC or copilot on a PH registered civil aircraft engaged in int'l commercial air transport in a single pilot operation if that person reached. 60 year of age. 65 year of age. 67 year of age. 68 year of age.

No pilot can serve as PIC or copilot on a PH registered civil aircraft engaged in domestic commercial air transport in a single pilot operation if that person reached. 60 year of age. 65 year of age. 67 year of age. 68 year of age.

No person shall be granted any flexibility in meeting the medical qualifications under any circumstances or medical conditions if that person has reached. 60. 63. 65. 67.

When can a 67 year old pilot license holder and a valid medical certificate be allowed to fly a commercial air transport operations?. if the aircraft requires a multi crew operation. if the aircraft requires a multi crew operation and other pilots are less than 60 years of age. he is not allowed to fly a commercial air transport operations. if the aircraft requires a multi crew operation and other pilots are less than 50 years of age.

When can a 60 year old pilot license holder and has a valid medical certificate be allowed to fly an int'l commercial air transport operations?. multi crew operation unless other pilot is younger than 60 year of age. he is not allowed to be commanded as PIC or co pilot. single pilot operation. all of the above.

Any person beyond 67 years should have a mandatory CAAP medical examination every ____ months. 3. 6. 9. 12.

Which of the ff. operations is considered as commercial air transport operations?. training or demo flights in ATO. corporate flights for transporting company's executives, employees or clients. cargo operations owned by the aircraft owner or operator. transportation of passengers.

A pilot shall not operate an aircraft carrying passengers as pilot-in-command or copilot to operate at the flight controls of a type or a variant of a type of aircraft during take-off and landing unless that pilot has operated the flight controls. at least 3 takeoffs and landings within the preceding 60 days. at least 3 takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days. at least 3 takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days in a flight simulator only. at least 2 takeoffs and 3 landings within the preceding 60 days.

The holder of a license that does not include an instrument rating shall not act as PIC of an aircraft carrying passengers at night unless. he or she has carried out at least three take-offs and three landings at night during the previous 60 days. he or she has carried out at least three take-offs and three landings at night during the previous 90 days. has carried out flying skill refresher training including normal, abnormal, and emergency. he or she has carried out at least three take-offs and three landings during the previous 90 days.

A pilot shall not act in the capacity of a cruise relief pilot in a type or variant of a type of aircraft unless, within the preceding 90 days that pilot has either: operated as PIC, CP or relief pilot on different types of aircraft. has carried out a flying skill refresher training including normal, abnormal and emergency procedures. carried out atleast three take offs and three landings in the previous 90 days. none of the above.

The category of aircraft shall be endorsed on the license as a/an. certification. rating. permit. authorization.

Validity of a multi engine class rating. 2 calendar years. 3 calendar years. 5 calendar years. 1 calendar year.

Validity of a single engine class rating. 2 calendar years. 3 calendar years. 5 calendar years. 1 calendar year.

For renewal of a single engine class rating the pilot shall. within the preceding 12 calendar months, completed a proficiency check areas of operation. have completed 12 hours flight time within 12 months preceding the expiry date. have completed 24 hours flight time within 12 months preceding the expiry date. completed 10 route sectors within 3 months preceding the expiry date.

For renewal of a multi engine class rating the pilot shall. within the preceding 12 calendar months, completed a proficiency check areas of operation. have completed 12 hours flight time within 12 months preceding the expiry date. have completed 24 hours flight time within 12 months preceding the expiry date. completed 10 route sectors within 3 months preceding the expiry date.

If an applicant wants to apply for a type rating he shall have. at least 100 hours as PIC applicable to the category of aircraft. have completed on-airplane upset recovery training. have an instrument rating applicable to the category. all of the above.

Validity of a type rating. the same as license. 2 years. 3 years. 1 year.

What is the correct order of category I,II,III,IV in aircraft category?. free balloon, glider, helicopter, airplane. airplane, helicopter, glider, free balloon. airplane, helicopter, free balloon, glider. airframe, powerplant, propeller, airframe and powerplant.

The applicant for a CAT II or III pilot authorization shall have at least. 50 hours of night flight time as PIC. 50 hours of instrument time. 200 hours of cross county as PIC. all of the above.

Validity of CAT II and III authorization is. 12 months. 3 years. 1 year. 6 months.

Student pilot minimum age. 15. 16. 17. 18.

Med cert of student pilot. Class 1. Class 2. Class 3. all of the above.

Min age of PPL. 16. 17. 18. 21.

PPL med cert and validity?. Class 2, 5 years validity. Class 5, 2 years validity. 5 years validity, class 2. Class 1, 5 years validity.

What should be the experience of applicant for PPL. not less than 60H of flight time, 5 hours can be from flight simulator. not less than 40H of flight time, 5 hours can be from flight simulator. not less than 60H of flight time, 10 hours can be from flight simulator. not less than 30H of flight time, 5 hours can be from flight simulator.

The holder of pilot licenses in other categories may be credited with --- hours of the total flight time as pilot-in-command towards a PPL(A). 5 hours. 8 hours. 12 hours. 10 hours.

Applicant of PPL shall have completed not less than --- hours of solo flight and --- hours of solo cross country flight time not less than --- km. 20, 10, 150. 10, 5, 270. 15, 5, 100. none of the above.

Min age of a CPL. 17. 18. 20. 21.

Applicant of CPL shall have completed not less than --- hours of flight time as PIC and --- hours of solo cross country flight time not less than --- km. 100, 25, 300. 50, 20, 360. 100, 20, 540. 200, 30, 540.

CPL med cert and validity?. Class 2, 5 years validity. Class 5, 2 years validity. 5 years validity, class 2. Class 1, 5 years validity.

Required take off and landing as an applicant for CPL (A). 5. 3. not indicated in PCAR. 7.

The applicant for an ATPL (A) shall have completed not less than ----- hours of flight time as a pilot of airplanes of which a maximum of ---- hours may have been completed in a flight simulator. 1500, 200. 1000, 100. 1500, 100. 500, 100.

Min age ATPL. 18. 20. 21. 22.

Holders of MPL (A) shall have completed not less than. 1,500 hours of flight time as a pilot of airplanes of which a maximum of 100 hours may have been completed in a flight simulator. 3,000 hours of flight time as a pilot of airplanes of which a maximum of 100 hours may have been completed in a flight simulator. 1,000 hours of flight time as a pilot of airplanes of which a maximum of 100 hours may have been completed in a flight simulator. 1,500 hours of flight time as a pilot of airplanes of which a maximum of 200 hours may have been completed in a flight simulator.

Med cert of a ATPL (A). 1. 2. 3. 4.

min age of MPL. 16. 17. 18. 21.

Med cert of a mpl (A). 1. 2. 3. 4.

Person applying for an Instrument rating shall hold atleast a. cpl. atpl. ppl. not indicated in PCAR.

Applicant of IR shall have completed not less than --- hours of solo cross country flight time as PIC. 100. 50. 20. 200.

What type of license or rating will require a hearing acuity requirements. ATPL. IR. ATC. Flight Engineer.

min age of ppl (h). 16. 17. 18. 20.

Applicant of PPL (H) shall have completed not less than --- hours of flight time as PIC, and a cross country flight time not less than --- hours. 40, 10. 50, 20. 40, 5. 100, 10.

Med cert of a PPL (H). 1. 2. 3. 4.

min age of CPL (H). 16. 17. 18. 21.

ATPL (h) min age. 18. 20. 21. 22.

Applicant for IR (H) shall hold a. PPL (H), a CPL (H) or an ATPL (H). PPL (H) or a CPL (H). CPL (H). CPL (H) or an ATPL (H).

min age for instructor rating (a&h). 17. 16. 18. 21.

For the renewal of instructor rating the applicant shall have conducted at least. 15 hours flight instruction within 6 months. 50 hours flight instruction within 12 months. 15 hours flight instruction within 6 months. 30 hours flight instruction within 12 months.

min age glider pilot license. 16. 17. 18. 21.

The applicant shall have completed not less than 6 hours of flight time as a pilot of gliders including 2 hours' solo flight time during which not less than ---- launches and landings have been performed. 10. 15. 20. 25.

min age free balloon license. 16. 17. 18. 21.

The applicant for free balloon shall have completed not less than 16 hours of flight time as a pilot of free balloons including at least ---- launches and ascents of which one must be solo. 10. 8. 5. 3.

Do free balloon license holder need a training for radiotelephony?. Yes. No. Not indicated in PCAR. Maybe.

Med cert of free balloon pilot license. 1. 2. 3. 4.

What are the experiences required for a type rating flight engineer. at least 100 hours of flight time. at least 50 hours of cross country flight time. 30 hours of flight time. all of the above.

Med cert of a flight engineer license. 1. 2. 3. 4.

min age for flight engineer license. 17. 16. 18. 21.

The applicant for a flight engineer license shall have completed not less than ---- hours of flight time in the performance of the duties of a flight engineer, of which --- hours may have been completed in a flight simulator. 100, 150. 150, 50. 100, 50. 50, 10.

min age of flight navigator license. 16. 17. 18. 20.

The validity period of the license is five (5) years. The license shall become invalid when the flight navigator has ceased to exercise the privileges of the license for a period of - months. 3. 6. 9. not indicated in pcar.

min age of amt license. 16. 17. 18. 20.

What license can amt apply for. AMT & AMP. AMT only. AMT & AMS. A&P AND AMS.

Which is true regarding the experience requirement for AMT license. (1) Airframe rating - 15 months (2) Powerplant rating - 15 months (3) Airframe and Powerplant ratings 30 months. (1) Airframe rating - 30 months (2) Powerplant rating - 30 months (3) Airframe and Powerplant ratings 80 months. (1) Airframe rating - 20 months (2) Powerplant rating - 20months (3) Airframe and Powerplant ratings 60 months. (1) Airframe rating - 30 months (2) Powerplant rating - 30 months (3) Airframe and Powerplant ratings 60 months.

If an AMT has trained under an ATO, airframe and powerplant rating will be decreased by. 4 months. 5 months. 6 months. 10 months.

An amt with an airframe or powerplant rating may. all except for none of the above. Perform or supervise under the direct supervision and control of an AMO, any repair or alteration of instruments. Sign a Maintenance Release for any aircraft, airframe, engine, propeller, appliance, component, or part thereof after completion of a major alteration or major repair. none of the above.

An applicant for an ams license must have an experience of avionics rating for. 30 months. 24 months. 36 months. 60 months.

min age for ams license. 16. 17. 18. 19.

how many ams ratings are there?. 1 only. 2. 3. 4.

A licensed AMS with Avionics rating may. inspect avionics system. repair avionics system. sign a maintenance release for avionics system. all of the above.

Renewal of AMS license should be within. 30 days prior to expiry. 60 days prior to expiry. 20 days prior to expiry. 7 days prior to expiry.

Min age ATC license. 18. 19. 20. 21.

Med cert for atc license. 1. 2. 3. 4.

A atc license shall become invalid when he ceased to exercise the privileges for more than. 3 months. 6 months. 12 months. only when it expires.

min age flight officer license. 17. 18. 21. 22.

Min age for Aeronautical station operator license. 17. 18. 20. 21.

ASOL license will be invalid if not exercised for. 3 months. 6 months. 12 months. 24 months.

Authorization of an Aviation Medical Examiners (AME) is valid for. 2 years. 1 year. 3 years. 6 months.

Class 1 med cert is issued by who?. AME. Authority. Any medical personnel. all of the above.

Class 2 and 3 med cert is issued by who?. AME. Authority. Any medical personnel. all of the above.

Class 1 med cert for atpl is valid for. 12 months. 3 months. 6 months. 24 months.

Class 1 med cert for CPL, MPL, FEL, and FNL is valid for. 12 months. 3 months. 6 months. 24 months.

Class 2 med cert for PPL, SPL, GPL, FBL is valid for. 12 months. 3 months. 6 months. 24 months.

Class 3 med cert for ATCL is valid for. 12 months. 3 months. 6 months. 24 months.

When the holders have passed their 40th birthday. (A) the 12-month interval specified for CPL, MPL, flight engineer license and flight navigator license will be reduced to --- months;. 3. 4. 5. 6.

When the holders have passed their 40th birthday. The 24-month interval specified for the PPL, SPL, glider pilot license, free balloon pilot license and air traffic controller license will be reduced to ---- months. 12. 10. 6. 4.

Renewal of class 1, 2, 3 med cert will be done by. authority. AME. none of the above. any medical personnel.

Reissue of class 1 med cert will be done by. authority. AME. none of the above. any medical personnel.

Reissue of class 2, 3 med cert will be done by. authority. AME. none of the above. any medical personnel.

Applicants may use contact lenses to meet the requirement of (b) provided that: lenses are focal and non tinted. lenses are well tolerated. pair of spectacles may not be required. all of the above.

Distant visual acuity with or without correction shall be -- or better in each eye separately, and binocular visual acuity shall be 6/6 or better. 20/20. 6/6. 6/9. not indicated.

min. age for glider instructor license. 18. 19. 20. 21.

RPA certificate should have atleast --- hours experience in operating rpa outside controlled airspace. 3. 10. 5. 7.

min. age for air traffic safety electronic personnel license and ratings (atsep). 18. 19. 20. 21.

The rating shall become invalid when an ATSEP has ceased to exercise any of the privileges of the rating for at least?. 1 year. 2 years. 12 mos. 6 mos.

An applicant for an ATO certificate and training specs shall apply at least ---- before beginning of any proposed duty. 60 calendar days. 30 calendar days. 90 calendar days. 120 calendar days.

Validity of ATO Certificate. 6 months. 1 year. 3 years. 5 years.

Inspection by authority for ATO holders will be conducted at least. monthly. quarterly. annually. biannually.

ATO may apply for renewal of its certificate within. 30 days preceding the month it expires. 20 days preceding the month it expires. 60 days preceding the month it expires. 90 days preceding the month it expires.

Which of the ff is true: Each ATO shall notify the authority within 30 days of any of the ff. changes. Accountable Manager, Quality Manager, Instructional staff. Accountable Manager & Quality Manager. Accountable Manager, Quality Manager, Instructional staff, housing facilities and equipments. Accountable Manager only.

Who are the required personnel in an ATO?. Accountable Manager, Quality Manager, Head of Training. Accountable Manager, Quality Manager, Head of Training, Chief Flight Instructor, Chief Ground Instructor, Ground and Flight Instructors. Accountable Manager, Quality Manager, Director, Head of Training, Chief Flight Instructor, Chief Ground Instructor, Chief of Executive. Accountable Manager, Quality Manager, Head of Training, Ground and Flight Instructor.

Which of the ff. is true?. All ground and flight instructor should hold an instructor rating and they are not required to undergo continuous training. Any personnel from the ATO may act as a Ground and Flight instructor. All ground and flight instructor should hold an instructor rating and they are required to undergo continuous training. An adequate number of ground and flight instructors are accepted as long as they are irrelevant to the courses provided.

Which of the ff. is not an important document an ATO shall maintain and retain one year after the completion of training. flight training records of students. progress reports from instructors. personal trainee information. none of the above.

Under ATO, which of the ff. is true?. A certificate holder may not make a substantial change in facilities unless that change is approved by the Authority in advance. A certificate holder may not make a substantial change in facilities, equipment or material unless that change is approved by the Authority in advance. A certificate holder may make a substantial change in facilities, equipment or material as long as the authority is notified after the change. A certificate holder may make a substantial change any time since he's certificated.

A manual containing the training goals, objectives, standards, syllabi, curriculum or each phase of the approved training course. Procedures manual. ATO manual. Training specifications. Training manual.

A manual containing procedures, instructions and guidance for use by personnel of the Aviation Training Organization in the execution of their duties in meeting the requirements of the certificate. Training Manual. Procedures Manual. Procedure chart. ATO manual.

A flight comprising take off, departure, cruise of not less than 15 minutes, arrival, approach and landing phase. Overflight. International Flight. Series of flight. Route sector.

Can training manual and procedures manual be combined?. No, should always be separate. Yes. Only if permitted by authority. Not indicated in PCAR.

How many aircraft/s are required when applying for an ATO certificate with approved AM course?. At least 1 aircraft of a type acceptable to the authority. At least 2 aircraft of a type acceptable to the authority. At least 3 aircraft of a type acceptable to the authority. At least 5 aircraft of a type acceptable to the authority.

In what PCAR can you find the general curriculum requirements for the course of AMT training?. Part 2. Part 3. Part 5. Part 6.

The instruction unit hour for AMT curriculum shall be not less than --- in length. 1 hour. 30 minutes. 45 minutes. 50 minutes.

AMT AIRFRAME curriculum shall have. 1,150 hours. 1,000 hours. 1, 900 hours. 500 hours.

AMT POWERPLANT curriculum shall have. 1,150 hours. 1,000 hours. 1, 900 hours. 500 hours.

AMT COMBINED AIRFRAME AND POWERPLANT curriculum shall have. 1,150 hours. 1,000 hours. 1, 900 hours. 500 hours.

AMT AVIONICS curriculum shall have. 1,150 hours. 1,000 hours. 1, 900 hours. 500 hours.

Will have overall responsibility for the Quality System including frequency, format and structure of the internal management evaluation activities. Accountable Manager. Quality Manager. Director General. Manager.

Responsible for ensuring that the Quality Assurance Program is properly implemented, maintained and continuously reviewed and improved. Accountable Manager. Quality Manager. Director General. Manager.

He should have direct access to the head of training of an ATO. Accountable Manager. Quality Manager. Auditor. None of the above.

Have access to all parts of the ATO's organization. Accountable Manager. Quality Manager. Auditor. Head of training.

means to examine by sight and touch. inspect. check. service. repair.

means to verify proper operation. inspect. check. service. repair.

means to analyze and identify malfunctions. troubleshoot. check. service. repair.

means to perform functions that assure continued operation. troubleshoot. check. service. repair.

means to correct a defective condition. inspect. check. service. repair.

means to disassemble, inspect, repair as necessary, and check. inspect. check. overhaul. repair.

What PCAR is aircraft markings and registration. 7. 3. 4. 6.

PCAR part 4 is derived from?. ICAO annex 3. 14 CRF 25. ICAO annex 7. 14 CFR 23.

Two types of aircraft according to PCAR part 4. Lighter than air & Heavier than Air. Aeroplane and Rotorcraft. Power Driven & Non power driven. Land plane & Sea Plane.

An aircraft that is intended to be operated with no pilot on board shall be classified as. UAV. Drone. UAS. unmanned.

PCAR PART 4: The certificate of aircraft registration shall be in. English only. English, Chinese, French, & Russian. English, Chinese & Russian. English & Chinese.

An aircraft is eligible for registration if it is?. Owned by or leased to a citizen or citizens of the Philippines or corporations or associations organized under the laws of the Philippines at least 60% or a government entity of the Republic of the Philippines;. Not registered under the laws of any foreign country. A foreign-owned or registered aircraft if utilized by members of aero clubs organized for recreation, sport or the development of flying skills as a prerequisite to any aeronautical activities of such clubs within the Philippine airspace, and if so authorized by the Authority. All of the above.

Who will issue the certificate of aircraft registration?. FSIS. DFSIS. Authority. Director General.

Can a person operate an aircraft without registration marks?. Yes. No. Partially true. Partially false.

Aircraft marks shall not be confused with. International five letter code of signals or distress codes. government marks. all of the above. Not indicated.

Which is the correct sample of a registration mark for an aircraft registered in the philippines. RP:AA01. RP-AA01. RPAA01. RP AA01.

RP-C will classify. any aircraft for the purpose of carrying persons or property, for or without hire. PH registered commercial aircraft. aircraft except gliders. aircraft for industrial purposes only.

Aircraft markings are a combination of. Roman and Arabic characters. English and Roman characters. Arabic and English characters. English characters.

Do the Philippine Army uses the registration marking "RP". Yes since they are PH registered. No. Not indicated in PCAR. ---.

RP-G are for. government aircraft. gliders. industrial purposes. experimental.

RP-R are for. research aircraft. non type certificated aircraft. industrial purposes. experimental.

RP-X are for. research aircraft. non type certificated aircraft. industrial purposes. experimental.

RP-S are for. research aircraft. non type certificated aircraft. industrial purposes. experimental.

Which of the ff. is true? Heavier-than-air aircraft, shall be at least: (1) 50 centimeters high if on the wings; and (2) 30 centimeters high if on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and vertical tail surfaces. 1 is true but 2 is false. 2 is true but 1 is false. Both are true. Both are false.

For heavier than air aircraft, the height of the character marks on the wings must be. 30 cm. 50 cm. 1/3 as high as they are wide. 2/3 as high as they are wide.

For heavier than air aircraft, the height of the character marks on the fuselage and vertical surfaces must be. 30 cm. 50 cm. 1/3 as high as they are wide. 2/3 as high as they are wide.

For the width of heavier than air aircraft, characters must be. 2/3 as wide as they are high. 1/6 as wide as it is high. 1/3 as wide as they are high. 1/4 as wide as they are high.

For the width of letters "M" and "W", they can be. 1/3 of their height. 2 times of the height. same with the height. 1 1/2 of the height.

The number "1" must be. 2/3 as wide as they are high. 1/6 as wide as it is high. as wide as they are high. equal.

The thickness of heavier than air aircraft shall be formed by. 2/3 as thick as they are high. 1/6 as wide as it is high. as wide as they are high. 1/6 as thick as it is high.

The spacing of heavier than air aircraft may. be less than 2/3 of the width. be less than 1/6 of the width. not be less than 1/4 of the width. not be less than 1/2 of the width.

The uniformity of heavier than air aircraft must have. same height, width, thickness but not spacing on both sides of the aircraft. same height, width, thickness, spacing, on both sides of the aircraft. different height, width, thickness and spacing, on both sides of the aircraft. all of the above.

The height of a lighter than air aircraft other than unmanned free balloons, shall be at least. 30 cm high. same as the width. 50 cm high. 40 cm high.

Each operator of an aircraft penetrating an ADIZ or DEWIZ shall display on that aircraft temporary or permanent nationality and registration marks at least. 50 cm high. 50 m high. 30 cm high. 30 inches high.

If a heavier-than-air aircraft parts are too small to accommodate the marks, what should the operator do?. place the marks where it can satisfy the needed requirements. he can be exempted from placing registration marks on the aircraft. notify the authority. none of the above.

If a lighter-than-air aircraft parts are too small to accommodate the marks, what should the operator do?. place the mark still since the marking sizes can be manipulated. he can be exempted from placing registration marks on the aircraft since it is only lighter than air. notify the authority. none of the above.

For a fixed wing aircraft, the required markings shall be displayed on (I) vertical tail surfaces (ll) sides of the fuselage (lll) horizontal tail surfaces. l, ll, lll. ll only. l, lll only. l, ll only.

The marks of a fixed wing aircraft of a MULTI-VERTICAL TAIL shall be displayed on the?. inner surface of the tail. outer surface of the tail. lower part of the tail. inner portion of the tail.

The fuselage marks of a fixed wing aircraft shall be displayed in between the?. trailing edge of the wing and leading edge of the horizontal stabilizer. leading edge of the wing and trailing edge of the horizontal stabilizer. trailing edge of the wing and leading edge of the vertical stabilizer. anywhere along the fuselage.

If the fuselage is blocked with engine pods or other appurtenances where the markings must be located, the operator may place the marks where?. can be placed on wings. horizontal stabilizer. engine pods or those appurtenances. notify the authority where to place it.

When a fixed wing aircraft has wings that extends across the whole of the lower surface of the wing structure, so far as possible, marks shall be located. equidistant from the LE & TE. closer to the LE. closer to the TE. must maximize the whole wings.

Wings: The marks shall appear once on the lower surface of the wing structure as follow: 1- The tops of the letter and numbers shall be toward the LE of the wing. true. false. partially true. partially false.

Which of the ff. is true: For the location of marks on rotorcraft, it can be displayed horizontally on both surfaces of the (l) cabin (ll) fuselage (lll) roof (lV) boom/tail. l, ll, lll. ll, lV. l, ll, lll, lV. l, ll, lV.

For airships, markings must be placed on. hull. horizontal and vertical stab. both except none of the above. none of the above.

Fo markings of airship hull, it must be located --- on each side of the hull and on its --- surface on the line of symmetry. lengthwise, upper. lengthwise, lower. transversal, upper. transversal, lower.

Fo markings of AIRSHIP horizontal and vert stab, (1) For the horiz stab, located on the RIGHT HALF of the UPPER SURFACE and on the LEFT HALF of the LOWER SURFACE, with the tops of the letters and numbers toward the LE. true. must be toward the TE. false. must be equdistant.

Fo markings of AIRSHIP horizontal and vert stab, (1) For the vertical stab, located on each side of the ---- half stabilizer with the letters and numbers placed ----. upper half, horizontally. bottom half, horizontally. upper half, vertically. bottom half, vertically.

For spherical balloons, operator shall apply marks to appear in TWO places DIAMETRICALLY OPPOSITE each other and located near the. center of the balloon. minimum horizontal circumference of the balloon. maximum horizontal area of the balloon. maximum horizontal circumference of the balloon.

For non-spherical balloons, operator shall apply marks to appear on each side, located near the --- of the balloon, immediately above either the rigging band or the points of attachment of the basket suspension cables. center. minimum cross section. maximum cross section. maximum horizontal circumference of the balloon.

Which is true: For lighter than air aircraft, operator shall apply marks to be visible from (l) one side (ll) both side (lll) the ground. (l). (ll), (lll). all. (ll) only.

For unmanned free balloons, the operator shall apply marks to appear on the. wings, fuselage and horiz stab. wings only. identification plate. certification.

When an aircraft that is registered in Republic of the Philippines is sold to foreign operator, the holder of the C of R shall?. deliver it immediately to the buyer. not remove any marking. remove all nationality and registration marks. repaint the whole aircraft.

Should the identification plate be FIREPROOF & STAINLESS STEEL?. must be fire resistant. true. must be aluminim. fire resistant and aluminim.

Where should the identification place be placed?. secured in front of the aircraft. under the fuselage. near the main entrance. above the wings.

What should be the minimum size of the identification plate of an aircraft?. 1 in x 2 in. 1 cm x 2 cm. 1 m x 2 m. 20 in x 30 in.

What should be the maximum size of the identification plate of an aircraft?. 6 in x 3 in. 6 cm x 3 cm. 3 m x 6 m. 3 in x 6 in.

Marking of an identification plate must be. painted. crocheted. machine etched. printed.

RP-U markings are for. Commercial. Military. RPA. Research.

Required registration of RPA must be located on the visible side of the. ECM. ACM. Radio. Avionics.

PCAR part 5 is derived from?. ICAO annex 6. ICAO annex 8. ICAO annex 7. Both 6 and 8.

An FAA published specification containing minimum performance standard for specified materials, parts, and appliances used on civil aircraft. AFM. CFR. TSO. MEL.

Any component or product installed or to be installed in a philippine registered aircraft shall have an airworthiness approval tag. false, major components only. false, minor components only. true. false, not indicated in PCAR.

Any person who alters a product by introducing a major change in type design, not great enough to require a new application for a type certificate, shall apply for a. TSO. STC. Part Manufacturer Approval. all of the above.

An owner shall transfer a CofA to the lessee or buyer when: (a) the aircraft is lease within or outside the PH (b) the buyer is within PH. both true. both false. only a is true. only b is true.

An owner SHALL SURRENDER the Certificate of Airworthiness for the aircraft to the issuing Authority upon sale of that aircraft OUTSIDE of the Republic of the Philippines. true. false. not indicated in PCAR.

Unless surrendered, Standard Certificate of Airworthiness, special Certificate of Airworthiness, and Certificate of Airworthiness issued for restricted or limited category aircraft are effective for. 1 year as long as maintenance are performed. 6 months as long as maintenance are performed. 3 year as long as maintenance are performed. 5 year as long as maintenance are performed.

Special Flight permit is effective for the period of time. of 1 year. of 3 years. specified in the permit. of 6 months.

An experimental certificate for research and development, showing compliance with regulations, crew training, or market surveys is effective for 1 YEAR after the date of issue or renewal unless. expired. the Authority prescribes a shorter period. specified in the permit. any of the 3.

Class l Aeronautical Products such as aircraft, engine, propeller are first to be placed under Philippine registry must. be type certificated. undergo a type certificate and be applicable Airworthiness Directives of the State of Manufacture. undergo type certificate validation to become eligible for importation. conform to the type design, and is in condition for safe operation.

Can the authority develop or prescribe an inspection in the form of an AD?. no, only the manufacturer. no, only the by the state of design. yes. none of the mentioned.

What does a restricted category aircraft mean. should not be operated unless airworthy. government officials aircraft. no passenger or cargo. not for commercial use.

Which of the ff is not true? When can a special flight permit not be issued. aircraft is at a weight excess of its MTOW when carrying fuel, fuel carrying facilities, and nav equipments necessary for the flight. aircraft is flying for the purpose of maintenance or alterations but still capable of safe flight. the operator has an authorization. aircraft is at a weight excess of its MTOW when carrying additional passengers in a flight less that 30 minutes.

Which of the ff is true for Class 1, 2, 3 products?. Class 1 - complete aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller Class 2 - wings, fuselages, empennage assemblies, landing gears, power transmissions, control surfaces Class 3 - standard parts. Class 1 - complete aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller Class 2 - wings, fuselages, empennage assemblies, landing gears Class 3 - power transmissions, control surfaces. Class 1 - aircraft engine, or propeller Class 2 - wings, fuselages, empennage assemblies, landing gears Class 3 - power transmissions, control surfaces. Class 1 - aircraft engine, or propeller Class 2 - wings, fuselages, empennage assemblies, landing gears Class 3 - standard parts.

Aircraft and other Class I products located in the Republic of the Philippines, except that an Airworthiness Approval for Export may be issued for any of the following without assembly or flight-test: small airplane type certificated, glider. glider, normal category rotorcraft. small airplane type. small airplane type certificated, glider, normal category rotorcraft.

An application for Airworthiness Approval for Export for each engine and propeller if they are of the same type and will be exported to the same purchaser, the application must be?. must be separate. can be the same. must be separate corresponding to their approval tag. not mentioned.

A written statement when exporting a product is required when. A product that does not meet the special requirement of the importing country. a product meets the requirement for PCAR part 5. a written statement is always required when exporting. when needed by the authority.

For the W&B report, transport aircraft and commuter category must be. based on an final weighing of the aircraft within the preceding 24 months. based on a final weighing of the aircraft within the preceding 12 months. based on an actual weighing of the aircraft within the preceding 12 months. based on an actual weighing of the aircraft within the preceding 3 months.

W&B must be witnessed by. Authority. engineer. authorized aeronautical engineer only. Authority or an authorized Aeronautical engineer.

Changes in equipment not classed as a major change must be. weighed again. can be accounted as a "computed" basis and must be revised. witnessed by authority or an aeronautical engineer. none.

Manufacturers of new non-transport category airplanes, normal category rotorcraft, and gliders. not mentioned. should have computed w&b data and an actual weighing report for checking. may have computed weight and balance data, in place of an actual weighing of the aircraft, if weight fleet is authority approved. should always be weighed by actual weighing since it is required by the authority.

A ---- for each new product is required by the applicable airworthiness rules. procedures manual. IPC. maintenance manual. ops specs.

Used engines and propellers which are not being exported as part of a certificated aircraft must. be discarded. operate to its highest operating standard. have been newly overhauled. have been repaired.

Each inspection and overhaul required for export airworthiness approval of Class I and Class Il products must be performed, BUT NOT approved by one of the following: manufacturer of the product. AMO. AMS. Approved AMO.

All philippine commercial registered aircraft or aerial work operations shall be re-weighed at every. 5 years. 3 years. 2 years. 4 years.

All General Aviation aircrafts shall be re-weighed at every. 5 years. 3 years. 2 years. 4 years.

In what section can you find "Weighing of Aircraft". 4.5.5. 5.4.2. 7.4.8. 5.4.4.

For other any aircrafts not mentioned in part 5.4.4, when should they be re-weighed?. every year. such times as the Director General may direct. such times as the Accountable General may direct. every 5 years.

For airplanes, when the empty weight has changed by more than --- of --- of the max. T.O.W. or --- kg, whichever is the greater, or the_empty weight center of gravity position has changed by more than --- of the maximum permissible center of gravity range or ----, whichever is the greater;. 1/2, 10%, 10, 3%, 3mm. 1/2, 5%, 50, 5%, 5mm. 1/2, 50%, 100, 2%, 5mm. 1/2, 1%, 10, 2%, 5mm.

For rotorcraft, when the empty weight has changed by more than --- percent of the max. T.O.W. or --- kg, whichever is the greater, or the empty weight center of gravity position has changed by more than --- mm or --- percent of the maximum permissible center of gravity range whichever is the less. 2% 10, 5mm, 10%. 1%, 10, 10mm, 10%. 1%, 100, 10mm, 20%. 1%, 10, 10mm, 1%.

Who can only make appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records?. any maintenance personnel. any personnel. accountable manager. authorized maintenance personnel.

Owners or operators of airplane over 5,700 kg and helicopters over 3, 175 maximum take-off weight shall report to the authority and to the organization when any design failure or malfunction for atleast. within 3 days. after 3 days. not be reported. within 5 days.

Any person may produce a modification or replacement part for sale for installation on a type certificated product unless it is produced pursuant to a Parts Manufacturer Approval. true. false. partially true. partially false.

Do aircraft bolts and nuts need a Parts Manufacturer Approval when they are being replaced?. No. Yes. When authority requires it. Only if the operator wants.

If the parts are produced under an existing type certificate or production certificate or the AMO makes parts themselves specifically to maintain their own aircraft or a particular aircraft, do they need PMA?. yes. no. When the authority requires it. When the AMO wants to.

Each holder of a Parts Manufacturer Approval shall establish and maintain a ------- that ensures that each completed part conforms to its design data. PMA inspection system. fabrication inspection system. quality inspection system. renewal inspection system.

A Parts Manufacturer Approval. is not transferable unless surrendered or terminated by the Authority. is transferable and is effective as long as it meets the required specifications. has an expiry and must be renewed to the Authority. should always be transferred to the new owner when sold.

Whenever a material, part, process, or appliance is required to be approved, it may be approved under a. PMA and TSO by the FAA. PMA, TSO by the FAA, type certification, any means approved by authority, ICAO. PMA and type certification. PMA, TSO by the FAA, type certification, any means approved by authority.

Who can judge an aircraft's airworthiness when the aircraft has sustained damaged that requires major repair or replacement of affected component?. CAAP or the Board. director general. Accountable manager. CAAP.

If an aircraft is in a Contracting State and it gets damaged or damage is found, the authorities of that country?. should repair it since its in a Contracting State. must allow it to resume its flight for maintenance. must prevent the aircraft to resume its flight. must notify the CAAP and then resume its flight.

Can a damaged aircraft in a contracting state resume its flight?. it must be fixed first in that country. no because it is damaged. yes, if contracting state considers that it is still airworthy. yes, if CAAP considers that it is still airworthy.

Who are the persons authorized to perform maintenance? (1) Appropriately rated AMT (2) AMS (3) Person under the supervision of appropriately rated AMT (4) Any AMO personnel. all. 1, 2, 3. 1 only. 1, 3. 1, 2, 4.

What are the extent and type of work of AMTs? 1 - Maintenance 2 - Inspection 3 - Preventive Maintenance 4 - Check flight 5 - Modification 6 - Weight and Balance 7 - RTS approval 8 - Major equipment repair. All except 8. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7. 1, 2, 3, 5. 1, 2, 3, 5, 7.

AOC holder may perform aircraft maintenance. Yes. No. Unless approved by authority. Yes, minor aircraft maintenance.

Can a licensed pilot approve their own aircraft for return to service when they have performed authorized preventive maintenance?. No, only an AMT. No, the pilot must have an AMT rating. Yes. This is not mentioned in PCAR.

What is the needed reference book when performing maintenance or modification on an aeronautical product?. maintenance planning document. manufacturer's maintenance manual. illustrated parts catalog. structural repair manual.

Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall use a. manual. record book. checklist. to do list.

Each person approving reciprocating-engine-powered aircraft for return to service after an annual or 100-hour inspection shall. approve it immediately. approve it as long as the 100 hour inspection is completed. before approval, must run the engine. before approval, must do a check flight.

Based on manufacturer's recommendation, what must be checked before approving for RTS of a reciprocating engine after an annual inspection? 1 - Magnetos 2 - Cylinders 3 - Control Linkages 4 - Oil Pressure and temperature 5 - Fuel Pressure 6 - Valve guides 7 - Power output. All. 1,2,3,4,5,7. 1,2,4,5,7. 4,5,7.

Can a person working under supervision of an AMT can perform any inspection performed after a major repair?. No. Yes.

No person may approve for RTS unless 1- maintenance record entry has been made 2- repair or modification form furnished by authority has been executed 3- operating limitations or flight data are revised. 1&3. 1&2. 2&3. All.

How does an AMT make an entry in the maintenance record?. Make a brief description of the inspection and write the date of inspection and the aircraft total time in service. Make a detailed description of the inspection, write the date of inspection and the aircraft total time in service, sign the entry and include license number and kind of license. Make a brief description of the inspection, write the date of inspection and the aircraft total time in service, sign the entry and include license number and kind of license. Make a brief description of the inspection, write the date of inspection and the aircraft total time in service then sign the entry.

If an aircraft is not approved for RTS, should the AMT still create an entry?. no, it must be approved for rts first. yes it is required. either yes or no. only if the AMO requires it.

Is a form of maintenance that is not subject to a maintenance release. Minor repair. Minimal modification. Elementary work. Light maintenance.

What is not required before performing an annual inspection?. cleaning of the aircraft and the engine. removal of necessary inspection plates. removal of fairings and cowlings. removal of stored fuel.

What is PCAR part 6. AMO. ATO. Airworthiness. Operations.

For part 6, the approval shall apply to the whole organization and shall be headed by the?. accountable manager. director general. quality manager. chief of executive.

If an AMO wants to be exempted or excused from specified sections of Part 6 what should he request for?. special permit. excused letter. letter of deviation authority. request for deviation.

If an AMO wants to request for deviation authority, how many days should it be submitted?. at least 30 days. at least 60 days. at least 15 days. at least 90 days.

A certificate or rating issued to an approved maintenance organization is valid for. 5 y. 4 y. 3 y. 24 mos.

The Authority may not access the Approved Maintenance Organization any time for the purpose of determining continued compliance with the PCAR. True. False. Partially true. partially false.

A certificated approved maintenance organization that applies for a renewal must submit its request for renewal with supporting documents no later than. 30 days. 90 days. 6 months. 60 days.

A late submission for renewal of certification of AMO will result in. revocation. no operations for 30 days. new application for an AMO. minimum penalty.

The authority must be notified in any of the ff. changes. Name of org, location, housing, equipments, ratings held by the AMO. Name of org, location, housing, equipments, ratings held by the AMO, additional locations, accountable manager. Name of org, location, housing, equipments, ratings held by the AMO, additional locations, accountable manager, list of management personnel. Name of org, location, housing, equipments, ratings held by the AMO, additional locations, accountable manager, quality manager, list of management personnel.

If the AMO is transferred to a new owner, the certificate number should not change. true. false.

If major changes are made by the AMO without notification to the Authority, the certificate may be. suspended. revoked. confiscated. amended.

For airframe ratings, what is class 1?. Aircraft primarily composed of composite material having a 5,700 kg MTOW or less. Aircraft not primarily composed of composite material having over 34,200 kg MTOW. Aircraft not primarily composed of composite material having over 5,700 kg MTOW and up to, including 3,200kg MTOW. Aircraft not primarily composed of composite material having a 5,700 kg MTOW or less.

For airframe ratings, what is class 2?. Aircraft primarily composed of composite material having a 5,700 kg MTOW or less. Aircraft not primarily composed of composite material having over 34,200 kg MTOW. Aircraft not primarily composed of composite material having over 5,700 kg MTOW and up to, including 3,200kg MTOW. Aircraft not primarily composed of composite material having a 5,700 kg MTOW or less.

For airframe ratings, what is class 3?. Aircraft primarily composed of composite material having a 5,700 kg MTOW or less. Aircraft not primarily composed of composite material having over 34,200 kg MTOW. Aircraft not primarily composed of composite material having over 5,700 kg MTOW and up to, including 3,200kg MTOW. Aircraft not primarily composed of composite material having a 5,700 kg MTOW or less.

For airframe ratings, what is class 4?. Aircraft primarily composed of composite material having a 5,700 kg MTOW or less. Rotorcraft not primarily composed of composite material having a 2,736 kg MTOW or less. Rotorcraft not primarily composed of composite material having over 2,736 kg MTOW. Aircraft not primarily composed of composite material having a 5,700 kg MTOW or less.

For airframe ratings, what is class 5?. Aircraft primarily composed of composite material having a 5,700 kg MTOW or less. Rotorcraft not primarily composed of composite material having a 2,736 kg MTOW or less. Rotorcraft not primarily composed of composite material having over 2,736 kg MTOW. Rotorcraft not primarily composed of composite material having over 2,936 kg MTOW.

For airframe ratings, what is class 6?. Aircraft primarily composed of composite material having a 5,700 kg MTOW or less. Aircraft not primarily composed of composite material having over 34,200 kg MTOW. Aircraft not primarily composed of composite material having over 5,700 kg MTOW and up to, including 3,200kg MTOW. Aircraft primarily composed of composite material having over 5,700 kg MTOW.

For airframe ratings, what is class 7?. Aircraft primarily composed of composite material having a 5,700 kg MTOW or less. Aircraft not primarily composed of composite material having over 34,200 kg MTOW. Aircraft not primarily composed of composite material having over 5,700 kg MTOW and up to, including 3,200kg MTOW. Aircraft primarily composed of composite material having over 5,700 kg MTOW.

For powerplant ratings, what is class 1?. Turboprop and turboshaft engines. Reciprocating engines. Turbojet and turbofan engines. Fixed pitch and ground adjustable prop.

For powerplant ratings, what is class 2?. Turboprop and turboshaft engines. Reciprocating engines. Turbojet and turbofan engines. Fixed pitch and ground adjustable prop.

For powerplant ratings, what is class 3?. Turboprop and turboshaft engines. Reciprocating engines. Turbojet and turbofan engines. Fixed pitch and ground adjustable prop.

For propeller ratings, what is class 1?. variable pitch prop. Reciprocating engines. Turbojet and turbofan engines. Fixed pitch and ground adjustable prop.

For propeller ratings, what is class 2?. variable pitch prop. Reciprocating engines. Turbojet and turbofan engines. Fixed pitch and ground adjustable prop.

For avionics ratings, what is class 1?. communication equipment. pulsed equipment. navigational equipment. electronic equipment.

For avionics ratings, what is class 2?. communication equipment. pulsed equipment. navigational equipment. electronic equipment.

For avionics ratings, what is class 3?. communication equipment. pulsed equipment. navigational equipment. electronic equipment.

For computer systems ratings, what is class 1?. avionics computer systems. aircraft computer systems. powerplant computer systems. electronic computer systems.

For computer systems ratings, what is class 2?. avionics computer systems. aircraft computer systems. powerplant computer systems. electronic computer systems.

For computer systems ratings, what is class 3?. avionics computer systems. aircraft computer systems. powerplant computer systems. electronic computer systems.

For instrument ratings, what is class 1?. electronic. gyroscopic. electrical. mechanical.

For instrument ratings, what is class 2?. electronic. gyroscopic. electrical. mechanical.

For instrument ratings, what is class 3?. electronic. gyroscopic. electrical. mechanical.

For instrument ratings, what is class 4?. electronic. gyroscopic. electrical. mechanical.

For accessory ratings, what is class 1?. electronic. APU. electrical. mechanical.

For accessory ratings, what is class 2?. electronic. APU. electrical. mechanical.

For accessory ratings, what is class 3?. electronic. APU. electrical. mechanical.

For accessory ratings, what is class 4?. electronic. APU. electrical. mechanical.

Should the AMO keep all records of calibration. No, its not relevant. Yes.

In the AMO administration, this person is nominated to represent maintenance management structure of the AMO and responsible for all functions said in PART 6. director. manager. quality manager. safety manager.

In the AMO administration, the nominated managers shall be directly responsible to a ---. accountable manager. manager. quality manager. safety manager.

In situations involving no unscheduled aircraft unserviceability, how many minimum rest periods should maintenance personnel have?. 9. 10. 12. 8.

In situations involving non unscheduled aircraft unserviceability, no person shall exceed more than ---- consecutive hours of duty. 10. 12. 16. 8.

In situations involving unscheduled aircraft unserviceability, persons performing maintenance functions for aircraft may be continued on duty for. up to 18 consecutive hours or 20 hours in 24 consecutive hours. up to 16 consecutive hours or 22 hours in 24 consecutive hours. up to 20 consecutive hours or 16 hours in 24 consecutive hours. up to 16 consecutive hours or 20 hours in 24 consecutive hours.

After an unscheduled duty periods, the person has a mandatory rest period of. 8 hours. 12 hours. 10 hours. 24 hours.

A person performing maintenance after an unscheduled unserviceability of aircraft, he shall receive a --- hours during any 7 consecutive day period. 12. 24. 10. 26.

The purpose of this manual is to set forth the procedures, the means and methods of the AMO. Procedures manual. training manual. AMO training manual. AMO maintenance procedure manual.

The capability list and self evaluation must be retained for how many years?. 1 year. 2 years. 5 years. 6 months.

An AMO may contract out the maintenance to a non approved AMO. No. Yes.

The AMO shall retain a copy of all detailed maintenance records and any associated airworthiness data for. 3 years. 1 year. 6 mos. 2 years.

The AMO shall report to ----- and the aircraft design organization of the State of Design any identified condition that could present a serious hazard to the aircraft. CAAP. accountable manager. authority. dont report.

Reporting of unairworthy conditions shall be made asap but in any case within ---- working days of the AMO. 2. 3. 4. 5.

The AMO functions shall be subdivided under individual managers or combined in any number of ways, dependent upon the size of the AMO. The AMO shall have dependent upon the extent of approval the following: 1 - base maintenance manager 2 - line maintenance manager 3 - workshop manager 4 - quality manager. 1, 2, 4. 1, 2, 3. 1, 2, 3, 4. 1, 2.

A detailed record shall be kept of all work performed by the maintenance organization. It should be maintained in active file for --- years then transferred to dead storage for additional --- years. 3 years and 5. 5 years and 2. 2 years and 5. 5 years and 2.

Where can you find tagging and identification of parts?. Part 3. Part 5. Part 7. Part 6.

For tagging and identification, these are used for identification of unit and customer only. To be completed by shop supervisor or a designated employee. Green tag. White tag. Yellow tag. Red tag.

For tagging and identification, these are used for units or parts requiring repairs or test. green tag. white tag. yellow tag. red tag.

For tagging and identification, these are used for units which have received final inspection and are approved for RTS. green tag. white tag. yellow tag. red tag.

For tagging and identification, these are used for rejected parts, pending final disposition. green tag. white tag. yellow tag. red tag.

An operator shall ensure that a flight does not commence unless the required equipment meets the. maximum performance standards. minimum performance standards. required standards. not mentioned.

When a means is provided for transferring an instrument from its primary operating system to an alternative system, the means shall include a --- to indicate clearly which system is being used. indicator positioning control. positive positioning control. neutral positioning control. negative positioning control.

MINIMUM FLIGHT AND NAVIGATIONAL INSTRUMENTS (a) [AAC] No person may operate any aircraft unless it is equipped with the following flight and navigational instruments: airspeed indicator, pressure altimeter vertical speed indicator, turn and slip indicator, magnetic compass. airspeed indicator, pressure altimeter, attitude indicator, direction indicator, vertical speed indicator, turn and slip indicator, magnetic compass, timepiece. airspeed indicator, pressure altimeter vertical speed indicator, turn and slip indicator, magnetic compass, air temp. indicator, timepiece. airspeed indicator, pressure altimeter, attitude indicator, vertical speed indicator, turn and slip indicator, magnetic compass, air temp. indicator, timepiece.

Whenever an aircraft is operating at night or when two pilots are required, each pilot's station shall have these separate flight instruments 1- attitude indicator 2- vertical speed indicator 3- stabilized direction indicator 4- turn coordinator. All. 1 only. 1&3. 2&4.

Aircraft used solely for agricultural air operations, classified under restricted category must comply with all the indicated instruments and equipments in PART 7. true. false.

All aircraft when operated in IFR, or at NIGHT, or when the aircraft cannot be maintained in a desired attitude without reference to one or more flight instruments, shall be equipped with. airspeed indicating system, pressure altimeter. airspeed indicating system, pressure altimeter, gyroscopic instruments power indicator. pressure altimeter, gyroscopic instruments power indicator. airspeed indicating system, gyroscopic instruments power indicator.

Can a person conduct a single pilot IFR operations without autopilot?. no. yes.

No person may operate an airplane with a maximum certified take-off mass exceeding 5,700 kg, or a max seating configuration of more than 9 seats and all helicopters operating with IFR unless equipped with. attitude indicator. altitude indicator. autopilot. gyroscope.

What is Group 1 instruments and equipments?. must be inspected within 6 months. must be inspected within 12 months. must be inspected within 3 calendar months and have a bench inspection within 6 months. must be inspected within 3 calendar months and have a bench inspection within 12 months.

What is Group 1 instruments and equipments?. must be inspected within 6 months. must be inspected within 12 months. must be inspected within 3 calendar months and have a bench inspection within 6 months. must be inspected within 3 calendar months and have a bench inspection within 12 months.

The instruments and equipment listed in this subsection shall be installed, approved and maintained in accordance with international acceptable criteria. Cat l. Cat ll. Cat lll. Cat lllB.

All turbine-engined aeroplanes of a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 5700 kg shall be equipped with. SVS. EFB. ROAAS. MOPS.

What is 121.5 MHz. CTAF. general ATC frequency. emergency frequency. FSS.

No person may operate an aircraft in IFR, or in VFR over routes that cannot be navigated by reference to visual landmarks unless the aircraft is equipped with. 1 comms and 1 nav equipment. 2 comms and 2 nav equipment. 1 comms and 2 nav equipment. 2 comms and 1 nav equipment.

When more than one communications equipment unit is required, they must be. dependent of each other. independent of each other. not operated at the same time. operated at the same time.

All flight crew members required to be on flight deck duty should communicate through _____ microphones below the transition level/altitude. boom or neck. extended or throat. boom or throat. handheld.

A person may operate an aircraft in airspace that requires a pressure reporting transponder even if that equipment is inoperative. yes, as long as indicated in MEL. no, should always be operative. yes.

No person may operate an aircraft at altitudes above _______ unless it is equipped with a system that is automatically reporting pressure altitudes. FL 110. FL 360. FL 240. FL 290.

All aircraft operated at night shall be equipped with (1) landing light (2) anti-collision light system (3) Navigation/position lights (4) Lights to preventing collisions at sea if the aircraft is a seaplane or an amphibian aircraft. (5) Illumination for all necessary flight instruments and equipment (6) Lights in all passenger compartments (7) independent portable light for each crew member station (8) heated pitot tube. True. 6 should not be in the list. False. only 1,2,3,4,7,8.

No AOC holder may operate an aircraft at night unless it has. 2 landing lights. 3 landing light. 1 operative landing light. 1 landing light with 600 watts.

No person may operate any powered aircraft without the following engine instruments: fuel indicator, oil pressure indicator, oil temperature indicator. fuel indicator, oil pressure indicator, oil temperature indicator, manifold pressure indicator. fuel indicator, oil pressure indicator, oil temperature indicator, manifold pressure indicator, tachometer. fuel indicator, oil pressure indicator, oil temperature indicator, manifold pressure indicator, gas pressure indicator, tachometer.

All aircraft with speed limitations shall be equipped with Mach number indicator. yes. no.

All pressurized aircraft intended to be operated at altitudes at or above _____ shall be equipped with a device to provide positive warning to the flight crew of any dangerous loss of pressurization. 36000. 19500. 25000. 30000.

No person may operate a helicopter carrying passengers or a pressurized airplane in commercial air transport in an area where potentially hazardous weather conditions may be expected unless it is equipped with operative. weather radar. weather chart. weather equipment. weather diagram.

A turbine engine airplane with MTOW over 15000 kg and has more than 30 passengers shall be equipped with. ACAS ll. ACAS. ACAS l. MCAS.

What are considered to be systems of crash protected flight recorders?. FDR, CVR. FDR, CVR, AIR, DLR. FDR, CVR, AIR. FDR, CVR, DLR.

What are the systems of a lightweight flight recorders?. ADRS, AIRS. FDR, CVR, AIR, DLR. ADRS, AIRS, CARS, DLRS. ADRS, AIRS, CARS, DLRS, CVRS.

shall be constructed, located and installed so as to provide maximum practical protection for the recordings in order that the recorded information may be preserved, recovered and transcribed. CVR. CAR. FDR. DLR.

Non deployable flight recorder shall be painted. orange or yellow. orange but outside may be different color. red or yellow. orange.

A non deployable flight recorder shall operate for a minimum of. 50 days. 30 days. 60 days. 90 days.

Automatic deployable flight recorder shall be painted. orange or yellow. orange but outside may be different color. red or yellow. orange.

What flight recorder shall have an integrated automatically activated ELT?. non deployable. automatic deployable. special flight recorder. ELT FDR.

Flight recorders must be. airworthy. waterproof. flammable. crashworthy.

Flight recorder systems can be switched off during flight time. yes, if the PIC deems it necessary. no.

After an accident or incident, what must be done to preserve the record of the FDR?. bring it to the authority. keep it activated. deactivate it. turn it off then turn it on.

Should the operator conduct an operational checks on their flight recorder systems?. no, only the authority must do the operational check to maintain its effectiveness. yes.

For aircrafts with MTOW over 5700 kg, how many combination recorders are required?. 1. 2. 3. 4.

For multi engine turbine powered aircrafts with MTOW less than 5700 kg, how many combination recorders are required?. 1. 2. 3. 4.

This type of FDR are used on airplanes and shall record the parameters required to determine accurately the airplane flight path, speed, attitude, engine power, configuration and operation. Type l and lA FDR. Type ll and llA FDR. Type lll FDR. Type lV FDR.

This type of FDR are used on airplanes and shall record the parameters required to determine accurately the airplane flight path, speed, attitude, engine power, configuration of lift and drag devices. Type l and lA FDR. Type ll and llA FDR. Type lll FDR. Type lV FDR.

This type of FDR are used on helicopters and shall record the parameters required to determine accurately the helicopter flight path, speed, attitude, engine power and operation. Type V. Type ll and llA FDR. Type lVA FDR. Type lV FDR.

This type of FDR are used on helicopters and shall record the parameters required to determine accurately the helicopter flight path, speed, attitude, engine power and operations and configurations. Type V. Type ll and llA FDR. Type lVA FDR. Type lV FDR.

This type of FDR are used on helicopters and shall record the parameters required to determine accurately the helicopter flight path, speed, attitude and engine power. Type V. Type ll and llA FDR. Type lVA FDR. Type lV FDR.

All airplanes of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 27 000 kg shall be equipped with. Type l FDR. Type ll and llA FDR. Type lA FDR. Type lV FDR.

All airplanes of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 5700 kg up to and including 27000 kg shall be equipped with. Type l FDR. Type ll FDR. Type lA FDR. Type llA FDR.

All multi-engined turbine-engined airplanes of a maximum certificated take-off mass of 5 700 kg or less shall be equipped with. Type l FDR. Type ll FDR. Type lA FDR. Type llA FDR.

All turbine-engined airplanes of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 27000 kg shall be equipped with. Type l FDR. Type ll FDR. Type lA FDR. Type llA FDR.

All helicopters with a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 3 180 kg shall be equipped with. Type l FDR. Type V FDR. Type lVA FDR. Type lV FDR.

All helicopters with a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 7000 kg with passenger seating of more than 19 shall be equipped with. Type l FDR. Type V FDR. Type lVA FDR. Type lV FDR.

All helicopters with a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 3 180 kg up to and including 7000 kg shall be equipped with. Type l FDR. Type V FDR. Type lVA FDR. Type lV FDR.

All turbine engined helicopters with a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 3 180 kg or less shall be equipped with. Type l FDR. Type V FDR. Type lVA FDR. Type lV FDR.

Flight data recorder media not acceptable for use in aircraft registered in the Philippines, or operated in commercial air transport operations in the Philippines, are- (1) Engraving metal foil (2) Photographic film (3) Analogue data using frequency modulation (FM) (4) Magnetic tape (5) Printed Document. All. None. 1,2,3. 1,2,3,4.

Type l and ll FDR shall be capable of retaining information recorded during the last. 25 hr of operation. 30 mins of operation. 10 hr of operation. 1 hr operation.

Type llA FDR shall be capable of retaining information recorded during the last. 25 hr of operation. 30 mins of operation. 10 hr of operation. 1 hr operation.

Type lV, IVA, V FDR shall be capable of retaining information recorded during the last. 25 hr of operation. 30 mins of operation. 10 hr of operation. 1 hr operation.

shall start to record prior to the aircraft moving under its own power and record continuously until the termination of the flight when the aircraft is no longer capable of moving under its own power. CVR, CARS. CARS, FDR. FDR, CVR. DLR, CVR.

CVR shall record on 3 different channels. true. false.

CVR shall record on 3 different channels or more. true. false.

CARS shall record on 2 different channels or more. true. false.

Channel 1 for the recorder will be the. time reference plus the third and fourth crewmembers. co-pilot headphones and live boom microphone. pilot headphones and live boom microphone;. area microphone.

Channel 2 for the recorder will be the. time reference plus the third and fourth crewmembers. co-pilot headphones and live boom microphone. pilot headphones and live boom microphone;. area microphone.

Channel 3 for the recorder will be the. time reference plus the third and fourth crewmembers. co-pilot headphones and live boom microphone. pilot headphones and live boom microphone;. area microphone.

Channel 4 for the recorder will be the. time reference plus the third and fourth crewmembers. co-pilot headphones and live boom microphone. pilot headphones and live boom microphone;. area microphone.

All turbine-engined airplanes required to be operated by more than one pilot shall be equipped with EITHER a CVR or a CARS. true. false.

All airplanes of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 27 000 kg shall be equipped with. CVR. CAR. both.

A person may operate a helicopter if it is not equipped with a cockpit voice recorder. true. false.

Cockpit voice recorder media not acceptable for use in aircraft registered in the Philippines, or operated in commercial air transport operations in the Philippines, are- (1) Engraving metal foil (2) Photographic film (3) Analogue data using frequency modulation (FM) (4) Magnetic tape and wire (5) Printed Document. All. 4 only. 1,2,3. 1,2,3,4.

CVR shall be capable of retaining the information recorded during at least the last 2 hours of its operations. true. false.

Airplanes with MTOW over 27000 shall be equipped with a CVR capable of retaining the information recorded during at least the last ____ hours of its operations. 24. 16. 2. 25.

CVR alternate power must automatically engage and provides ___ minutes of operation. 30. 10. 20. 8.

In what PCAR can you find the minimum number of fire extinguisher according to passenger seating capacity. Part 5. Part 3. Part 6. Part 7.

Each passenger emergency exit shall have a __-inch colored band outlining the opening on the outer edge of the door or on the side of the fuselage. 3. 2. 1.5. 1.

is the ratio of the luminous flux reflected by a body to the luminous flux it receives. reflectance. luminosity. opacity. visibility.

Exits that are not in the side of the fuselage shall have external means of opening and applicable instructions marked conspicuously in ____ or, in _____ if inconspicuous. red, orange. yellow, red. blue, red. red, yellow.

No person may operate an aircraft over water or across land areas which have been designated as areas in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, unless equipped with. signaling devices. visual signals. pyrotechnic signaling device. all.

All aircraft on all flights shall be equipped with a ___ ELT. 121.5 Mhz. 300 Mhz. 400 Mhz. 406 Mhz.

At least one fire extinguisher shall be located in. pilot's compartment. pilot's compartment, cabin. pilot's compartment, passenger compartment. pilot's compartment, passenger compartment, cabin.

Airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 61 through 200 how many fire extinguisher?. 2. 4. 3. 1.

Airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 700 how many fire extinguisher?. 7. 6. 8. 9.

Airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 401-500 how many fire extinguisher?. 3. 6. 8. 4.

What type of halon should not be contained in a fire ex?. halon 1211. halon halon 1211. halon 2402. all of the above.

Should a lavatory have a fire ex for a passenger carrying transport plane?. yes mandatory. no.

An AOC can operate a large airplane if its equipped with a crash axe. yes. no.

If areas of the fuselage suitable for break-in by rescue crews in an emergency are marked on an aircraft, such areas shall be marked as shown below, and the color of the markings shall be. white or yellow outlined in red. red or white outlined in yellow. red or yellow outlined in white. red or orange outlined in white.

Markings of break in points is mandatory. yes. no.

No person shall operate an aircraft that requires a cabin crew member unless it is equipped with at least ___ universal precaution kit. 1. 2. 3. 4.

All AOC holders and Airplanes with MTOW _____ kg must be equipped with an accessible and approved first aid kit. below 5700. over 5700. below 2400. over 2900.

Number of first aid kit with 301-400 passenger seats. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Number of first aid kit with 500 passenger seats. 6. 7. 4. 5.

First aid kits be located near the station of cabin crew members. false. true.

When should the aircraft carry additional universal precaution kit? (a) additional 2 kits for more than 250 passenger (b) when there is an outbreak (c) additional kits for more than 150 passenger. a,b,c. b,c. a,b. b only.

NO PERSON may operate an aircraft at altitudes ABOVE 25,000 feet unless it is equipped with oxygen masks, located so as to be within the immediate reach of flight crew members while at their assigned duty station. true. false.

The total number of dispensing units and outlets of oxygen masks shall exceed the number of seats by at least. 50%. 20%. 5%. 10%.

The PBE of each flight crew member mjst last for not less than. 15 mins. 1 hour. 30 mins. 45 hours.

The PBE while in use may prevent communication for safety purposes. false. true.

How many megaphone are required for airplanes with a seating capacity of more than 60 and less than 100. 1. 2. 0. 3.

How many megaphone are required for airplanes with a seating capacity of more than 99. 1. 2. 0. 3.

Landplanes including helicopter shall have a floatation device when flying over water at a distance of more than. 50 NM. 10 NM. 100 NM. 60 NM.

Life rafts must be carried to all airplanes when operating in ETOPS over water. true. false.

An aircraft shall have lifesaving rafts with a sufficient capacity to carry ______ on board in the event of the loss of one raft of the largest capacity. 50% of persons. 75% of persons. all persons. 80% of persons.

Life rafts shall be equipped with the following life sustaining equipment— (1) A electric survivor locator light (2) A survival kit (3) A water supply (4) A pyrotechnical signaling device. 1,2,3,4. 1,2,3. 1,2,4. 2,4.

No aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 27,000 kg may engage in " Extended overwater operations" without a securely attached ___ operating at a frequency of 8.8kHz.This. ELT. ULB. CVR. FVR.

Min age for a person to have a seat with a safety belt. 1 yr old. 2 yr old. 3 yr old. 4 yr old.

The cabin crew member's seats shall be located near floor level and other emergency exits for emergency evacuation. true. false.

An AOC holder may operate a passenger carrying aircraft if it has no legible sign that reads " Fasten seatbelt while seated". true. false.

An AOC holder may operate a passenger carrying aircraft if it has no legible sign notifying seatbelts must be fastened and smoking is prohibited. true. false.

No person may operate an aircraft in which protective fuses are installed unless there are spare fuses available for use in flight equal to at least 10% of the number of fuses of each rating or three of each rating whichever is the greater. True. False.

What is the color of pitot heat indication system in the cockpit?. red. amber. white. green.

No AOC holder may operate an airplane unless it has ______ static pressure system. 3 independent. 2 dependent. 2 independent. 1.

Do some aircrafts need windshield wipers?. no. yes.

All seaplanes for all flights shall be equipped with equipment for making the sound signals prescribed in the ______. ICAO. IRPCS. IPC. SFM.

All seaplanes for all flights shall be equipped with 1 anchor and 1 sea anchor (drogue), when necessary to assist in maneuvering. false, must be 2. true. false, must be either of the two.

Who can perform a bench check?. AMT. IR rating. Avionics rating. either IR or Avio.

Location of each passenger emergency exit shall be recognizable from a distance equal to the height of the cabin. False. True.

Door may be installed in any partition between passenger compartments. true. false.

Each floor level door or exit in the side of the fuselage that is --- or more inches high and --- or more inches wide, but not wider than --- inches. 30, 20, 35. 40, 20, 45. 44, 20, 46. 52, 20, 56.

All airplanes authorized to carry more than 19 passengers shall be equipped with. at least 1 or 2 ELTs of any type. at least 2 ELTs of any type. at least 1 ELTs of any type.

All airplanes authorized to carry more than 19 passengers or less shall be equipped with. at least 1 or 2 ELTs of any type. at least 2 ELTs of any type. at least 1 ELTs of any type.

Helicopters operating in performance Class 1,2,3 shall be equipped with. at least 1 or 2 ELTs of any type. at least 2 ELTs of any type. at least 1 ELTs of any type.