An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighbouring state. Which
freedom of the Air will be exercised? 1st freedom 3rd freedom 4th freedom 2nd freedom.
The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) establishes: aeronautical standards adopted by all states. standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states. proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes. standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the
Chicago convention.
The objectives of ICAO were ratified by the: Warsaw convention 1929 Geneva convention 1948 Chicago convention 1944 Geneva convention 1936.
The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) was established by the international
convention of: The Hague Chicago Warsaw Montreal.
One of the main objectives of ICAO is to: approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies approve new international airlines with jet aircraft develop principles and technique for international aviation approve new international airlines.
Which body of ICAO finalizes the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for
submission for adoption? the Air Navigation Commission the Assembly the Council the Regional Air Navigation meeting.
The ’Standards’ contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered: advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states binding for all member states binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference binding for all airline companies with international traffic.
The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with: limitation of the operator’s responsibility vis-á-vis passenger and goods transported the regulation of transportation of dangerous goods operator’s license for international scheduled aviation the security system at airports.
Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO? ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses.
Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written notification to the
depositary governments. The denunciation shall take effect: 6 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments 3 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments 2 months following the date ICAO is informed 4 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments.
The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has
committed or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense against penal law: may request such person to disembark may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person may not require or authorize the assistance of other crew members may deliver such person to the competent authorities.
Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by notification addressed: International Civile Aviation Organization the other Contracting States United Nations to all States Members of United Nations.
The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is: the convention of Paris the convention of Rome the convention of Tokyo the convention of Chicago.
"Cabotage" refers to: a national air carrier a flight above territorial water crop spraying domestic air services.
The second freedom of the air is the: right to overfly without landing right to land for a technical stop Right to "cabotage" traffic, (trans-border traffic). right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states.
The first freedom of the air is: The right to overfly without landing. The right to land for a technical stop. The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states. The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to another state.
The convention which deals with offences against penal law, is: the convention of Rome the convention of Warsaw the convention of Tokyo the convention of Madrid.
The convention of Tokyo applies to damage: caused in the territory of a contracting state or in a ship or aircraft registered there in, by an aircraft
registered in the territory of another contraction state only caused in the territory of a contracting state by an aircraft registered in the territory of another
contracting state caused in the territory of a contracting state by any aircraft regardless the registration the above convention does not deal with this item.
The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air
carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the: Tokyo Convention. Hague Convention. Warsaw Convention. Montreal Convention.
The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with: Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surface offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft.
The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to endure adequate compensation
for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is: the Warsaw Convention the Paris Convention the Rome Convention the Tokyo Convention.
Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused
by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation
as provided by: the Rome Convention the Chicago Convention the Warsaw Convention the Montreal Convention.
When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be
confused with the: four letter combinations beginning with Q three letter combinations used in the international code of signals five letter combinations used in the international code of signals letters used for ICAO identification documents.
The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a continuing structural integrity program to
ensure the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific information concerning
corrosion prevention and control, in respect of aeroplane: over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass.
The loading limitations shall include: all limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loadings all limiting mass and centres of gravity all limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity all limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor loadings.
According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain valid
subject to the: Laws of the State in which is operated Laws of the State of registry Laws of the State of registry and operation Requirements laid down by ICAO.
The continuing airworthiness of an aircraft, according to ICAO Annex 8, shall be determined
by: The operator's State ICAO The State of registry A specific body.
The assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by: the state of registry and accepted by the International Telecommunication Union the International Civil Aviation Organization the International Telecommunication Union the state of registry.
The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in the radio call signs
allocated: to the International Civil Aviation Organization by the International Telecommunication Union to the state of registry by the International Civil Aviation Organization to the State of registry by the International Telecommunication Union to state of the operator.
The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and
shall be that assigned by: the International Telecommunication Union the state of registry only the International Civil Aviation Organization the state of registry or common mark registering authority.
When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be
confused with urgent signals for example: TTT FFF RCC LLL.
When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be
confused with urgent signals for example: RCC PAN LLL DDD.
When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be
confused with urgent or distress signals for example: RCC DDD XXX LLL.
The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be: at least 50 centimetres at least between 40 centimetres and 50 centimetres at least 60 centimetres at least 75 centimetres.
The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail
surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be: at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres at least 40 centimetres at least 20 centimetres at least 30 centimetres.
The proficiency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the previous
proficiency check was the 30th of June. The period of the new proficiency check can be and
can’t exceed: 30th of October the same year 15th of October the same year 31th of December the same year 30th of April the following year.
The prescribed re-examination of a license holder operating in an area distant from designated
medical examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion of the license authority,
provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed: A single period of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in noncommercial
operations. Two consecutive periods each of three months in the case a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged
in non-commercial operations. A single period of three month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial
operations. Two consecutive periods each of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged
in non-commercial operations.
When a contracting state renders valid a license issued by another contracting state, the
validity of the authorization: Shall not extend beyond one year for ATPL and PCL. Depends on the regulations of the contracting sate which renders valid the license. Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the license. Is only considered for PPL.
You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL: With a theorical CPL examination plus flight instructor rating With an ATPL With a PPL plus flight instructor rating With a CPL.
The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is: 6 months 5 years 1 year 2 years.
The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is: 17 years 16 years 18 years 21 years.
To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is: 18 and 60 years 16 and 60 years 17 and 59 years 21 and 59 years.
Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications
for a crew license to have international validity? Annex 2 Annex 1 Annex 3 Annex 4.
The holder of a pilot’s license should inform the Authority of any illness which they are
suffering which involves incapacity to undertake those functions to which the license relates
throughout a period of a certain number of days or more. The number of days is: 60 30 21 90.
If a license holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that license due
to illness, the authority must be informed: After 21 days of consecutive illness" as soon as possible if the illness is expected to last more than 21days after one calendar month of consecutive illness if still not fit to fly when his/her current medical certificate expires.
The holder of a pilot license, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with
a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than: 100 hours of flying time required for a higher grade of a pilot license 40 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot license 50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot license 60 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot license.
The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot license shall not be less than: 16 years of age 21 years of age 17 years of age 18 years of age.
An applicant for a commercial pilot license shall hold: a current class I medical assessment a current class II medical assessment a current class III medical assessment a current class medical assessment as prescribed by the state issuing the license.
The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot license aeroplane shall be: to act as pilot-in command in any aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air
transportation to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane engaged in commercial air transportation to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane certificate for single pilot operation other than in
commercial air transportation none of the answers are correct.
An applicant for a commercial pilot license aeroplane shall have completed not less than ........
hours of cross-country flight time as pilot in command including a cross country flight totalling
not less than ........ km (-NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two different
aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance referred are: 15 hours and 540 km (300NM) 10 hours and 270 km (150 NM) 20 hours and 540 km (300NM) 20 hours and 270 km (150NM).
An applicant for a commercial pilot license aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not
less than: 20 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than
540 km (300NM) 10 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than
540 km (300NM) 25 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than
540 km (300NM) 15 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross-country flight not less than
540 km (300NM).
An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot License aeroplane shall have completed in
aeroplanes not less than ...... hours, either as pilot in command or made up by not less than ......
hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under the
supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and functions of a pilot in command provided
that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated
above hours are respectively: 200 hours and 100 hours 200 hours and 75 hours 250 hours and 100 hours 150 hours and 75 hours.
The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot License shall have completed in aeroplanes not
less than ...... hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less than ...... hours shall be as
pilot-in command or co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot in command, the
duties and functions of a pilot in command, provided that the method of supervision employed
is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated above hours are respectively: 200 hours and 100 hours 250 hours and 10 hours 150 hours and 75 hours 200 hours and 75 hours.
An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot License shall have completed in aeroplanes not less
than: 100 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours of instrument ground time 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time. 150 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 75 hours of instrument ground time. 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20 hours of instrument ground time.
An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot License shall have completed in aeroplanes not less
than: 75 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot 100 hours of night flight only as pilot in command 100 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot 75 hours of night-time only as pilot in command.
The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under instruction in a
synthetic flight trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part of the total flight time of
1500 hours. Credit for such experience shall be limited to a maximum of: 75 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or
basic instrument flight trainer 100 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a basic instrument flight trainer 100 hours of which not more than 15 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or
basic instrument flight trainer 100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or
basic instrument flight trainer.
An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot license aeroplane for the issue of an
instrument rating, shall have completed ..... hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-incommand
of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less
than ..... hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours, are respectively 40 hours and 15 hours 40 hours and 10 hours 50 hours and 10 hours 50 hours and 15 hours.
In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the
licensing authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall
not exceed: A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in noncommercial
operations. Two consecutive periods each of three months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft
engaged in non-commercial operations A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial
operations. in the case of a private pilot, a single period of 12 months.
The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date: the license is issued or renewed the license is issued or validated the medical assessment is issued the license is delivered to the pilot.
When a contracting state renders valid a license issued by another contracting state the validity
of the authorization: shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the license shall not extend more than 15 days from the date of the license the Contracting state rendering a license valid may extend the date of the validity at its own discretion shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the license other than for use in private flights.
When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licenses aeroplane and helicopter have passed their
40th birthday the medical examination shall be reduced from: 24 months to 12 months 12 months to 3 months 12 months to 6 months none of the answers are correct.
Type ratings shall be established: only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots and each type of
helicopter only aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots for any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority all the answers are correct.
The holder of a pilot license when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the
pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit: in full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot license in full with his flight time but not more than 300 hours towards the total time required for a higher grade
of pilot license the flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot license in accordance with the
requirements of the licensing authority 50% of his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot license.
For commercial pilot license aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not
less than if the privileges of the license are to be exercised at night: 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings either as pilot in command or as copilot 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command.
An applicant for a commercial pilot license aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not
less than: 150 hours of flight time and 100 hours as pilot in command 200 hours of flight time and 80 hours as pilot in command 200 hours of flight time and 70 hours as pilot in command 200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training as a pilot of
aeroplanes.
An applicant for a commercial pilot license shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than: 10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time. 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 10 hours may be instrument ground
time 15 hours of instrument time of which not more than 5 hours as pilot in command.
The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended
practices for Personnel Licensing is: Annex 2 Annex 1 Annex 11 Annex 12.
According to JAR-FCL, a professional flight crew license issued by a non JAA State may be
rendered valid for use on aircraft registered in a JAA Member State At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year At the discretion of the Authority of the Member State concerned for a period not exceeding the period
validity of basic license At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year,
provided that the basic license remains valid. At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year,
provided that the basic license remains valid.
According to JAR-FCL, license holders do not exercise the privileges of their licenses, related
ratings or authorizations at any time when they are aware of any decrease in their medical
fitness which might render them unable to safely exercise those privileges. They shall without
undue delay seek the advice of the authority or AME when becoming aware of hospital or clinic
admissions for: Any period More than 12 days More than one week More than 12 hours.
According to JAR-FCL, Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for: 60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 50, 12 months until age of 65 and 6 months thereafter 60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter 24 months until age of 40, 12 months until age of 60 and 6 months thereafter.
According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed a completed
an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a
certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by a JAA Member State at least: 150 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time 200 hours of flight time 150 hours of flight time 200 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time.
According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for: Indefinitely two years The period of validity of the license. one year.
According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A) including a night
qualification or CPL(A) and shall have completed at least 50 hours: Cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours
shall be in aeroplanes. Cross country flight time as pilot of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in
aeroplanes. Instructional flight time as student pilot-in-command of aeroplanes. Instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10
hours shall be in aeroplanes.
According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for single pilot aeroplanes not
requiring a type rating, including: All types of single-pilot, single-engine aeroplanes fitted with a turbojet engine. All self-sustaining gliders. Microlights having fixed wings and moveable aerodynamic control surfaces acting in all three
dimensions. Any other type of aeroplane if considered necessary.
According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed
on the basis of three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has: A certificate of airworthiness issued by the manufacturer. Handling characteristics that require the use of more than one crew member A certificate of airworthiness issued by a non-member state. Handling characteristic that requires additional flying or simulator training.
According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings will be one
year from the date: Of the last medical certificate Of the skill test The application is received by the Authority. Of issue.
According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for: Two years One year Two years up to age 40 years, then one year thereafter. Five years after license issue.
According to JAR-FCL, successful completion of multi-crew co-operation (MCC) training shall
be required to: Obtain the first-class rating on multi-engine aeroplanes Obtain the first type rating on multi-pilot aeroplanes Obtain a professional pilot license Revalidate any rating or license.
According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for ATPL (A)shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplane
at least 1.500 hours of flight time, including: 500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with JAR/FAR25 or
JAR/FAR 23. 500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with JAR/FAR 25 or
JAR/FAR 23, as pilot-in-command 500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with JAR/FAR 25 or
JAR/FAR 23, of which up to 150 hours may be as flight engineer. 500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with JAR/FAR 25 or
JAR/FAR 23, including 200 hours of night flight as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot.
According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform
as pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type certificated for: A minimum crew of two pilots plus a flight engineer. For the carriage of passengers at night. A minimum crew of two pilots under IFR Operations by pilots under training.
According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of a newly qualified Flight Instructor are restricted to
carrying out instruction under the supervision of a FI(A), approved for this purpose. The
restrictions may be removed from the rating: On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A) rating has
completed a competency test. On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A)after the holder of the restricted FI(A) rating has
supervised at least 100 solo flights. On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A)rating has
completed at least 100 hours flight instruction and , in addition, has supervised at least 25 student solo
flights. On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A) rating has
supervised at least 100 solo flights and completed a competency test.
According to JAR-FCL, the aeroplane instructor categories recognized are: FI(A) and IRI(A). FE(A)/TRE(A)/CRE(A)/IRE(A) and SFI authorization. FI(A)/TRI(A)CRE(A)/IRE(A) and SFI authorization FI(A)/TRI(A)/CRI(A)/IRI(A) and SFI authorization.
According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of the holder of an unrestricted FI(A) rating are to conduct
flight instruction for the issue of a CPL(A): Without restriction Provided that the FI(A) has completed not less than 15 hours on the relevant type in the preceding 12
months. Provided that the FI(A) has completed 200 hours of flight instruction Provided that the FI(A) has completed at least 500 hours of flight time as a pilot of aeroplanes including
at least 200 hours of flight instruction.
According to JAR-FCL, an examiner’s authorization is valid for: Not more than two years Not more than three years The period of validity of the class/type rating. The period of validity of the medical certificate.
According to JAR-FCL, Medical certificates classes are: 1,2,3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 class 1 only.
The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrumental Flight Rating in_____ aeroplanes
shall prove, according to Annex I, PERSONNEL LICENSING, his/her capability to pilot such
aircraft only by instrumental rules and an engine _________. Multi-engine / inoperative or simulated inoperative Land/inactive. Amphibious/inactive or simulated inactive. Single-engine/inactive.
Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are CORRECT? Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance: not required Service provided: Air Traffic Control Service; ATC Clearance: required Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance: required Service provided: Air Traffic Control Service; ATC Clearance: not required.
Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a
control zone when ceiling is less than: 2000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km 1000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km 1500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km 1000 feet or visibility is less than 8 km.
The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is: The airliner operator The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled airspace The aircraft owner The commander.
Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land? Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention Military aircraft VIP (Head of state) aircraft Emergency aircraft.
An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL and 9 000 feet MSL outside controlled
airspace under VFR, must remain on principle at least: 1500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility. 1500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility. Clear of clouds and in sight of the surface; 8 km visibility. 2000 feet horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility.
The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "G" above 10 000 feet MSL are: clear of clouds; 8 km visibility 1 mile horizontally and 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility 2000 meters horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility.
The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "B" above 10 000 feet MSL are: 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility. 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility.
A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True
Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by
plus or minus: 2% 3% 5% 10 %.
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall, unless
otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following code on mode "A" 7500 7700 7600 7000.
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio
communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies: 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz.
Which manoeuvres shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to
communicate to the intercepted aircraft "YOU MAY PROCEED"? Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights. Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft. Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern. Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted
aircraft.
Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing
radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate
assistance? Switching on and off three times the landing lights The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights Switching on and off four times the landing lights Switching on and off four times the navigation lights.
If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common
language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to
request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing? YOU LAND LET DOWN DESCEND DESCEND FOR LANDING.
If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common
language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to
communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received? NOT POSSIBLE CAN NOT COMPLY UNABLE TO COMPLY CAN NOT.
A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means: The airport is unsafe, do not land The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling Give way to other aircraft in emergency Continue circling and wait for further instructions.
On aerodromes aircraft taxying on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to: other converging aircraft other vehicles and pedestrians aircraft taking off or about to take off all vehicles moving on the apron except the "follow me" vehicle.
Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircraft
flying IFR outside controlled airspace? 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated position of the aircraft 2000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of course 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course 2000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course.
Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft
"B" with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a
converging course. Which has the right of way? "Aircraft "B" regardless of the direction "A" is approaching" "Aircraft "A" if "B" is on its right" "Aircraft "A" regardless of the direction which "B" is approaching" "Aircraft "B" if "A" is on its left".
Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the
track? Inform the ATC unit immediately Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions.
While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance.
What action must be taken? The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permit Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours Squawk 7700.
A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals: Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards. Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist Crossing arms extended above his head Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground.
An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited
and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radiocommunications. The procedure
to be followed is: continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight plan. adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of landing descend to enroute Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations.
A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means: Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit. Come back and land. Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being. Dangerous airfield. Do not land.
A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means: An area unit for the movement of aircraft. The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways. Need special precautions while approaching for landing.
Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the air
traffic advisory service: Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes made thereto to the ATS unit providing that
service. Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan but changes made thereto are not necessary to be notified. need to file a flight plan may file a flight plan under pilot's discretion.
An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on
a line forming an angle of less than: 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter 80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter.
VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are: 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds 8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds No minima, VFR flights are not permitted 8 km visibility, and clear of clouds.
During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio
communication failure. You will: Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC Select A7600 and continue according to current flight plan to destination Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC.
When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan, ATC has to be
informed in case: it is a deviation from the track. of an emergency. the estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes. the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flight plan.
Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft
above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight: at least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position at least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position at least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position at least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position.
An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light: while taxiing, but not when it is being towed outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed on the ground when the engines are running outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not applicable.
The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that: glider flying is performed outside the landing area taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only this aerodrome is using parallel runways.
Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. The signals given by this aircraft conflict with
ATC instructions. You should: select code A7500 on your transponder follow ATC instructions. request ATC for other instructions. follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft.
An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference (’hijacked’) and is forced to divert
from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try
to: Continue at an altitude that differs from the semi-circular rule with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and
500 feet when lower than FL 290 Fly the emergency triangle Declare an emergency As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimize the difference between cabin
pressure and outside pressure.
An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference (’hijacked’) and is forced to divert
from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try
to: Declare an emergency Fly the emergency triangle Continue at an altitude that differs from the semi-circular rule with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and
500 feet when lower than FL 290 As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimize the difference between cabin
pressure and outside pressure.
An aircraft manoeuvring in an airport’s circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control
tower. This signifies that the aircraft must: not land because the airport is not available for landing. give way to another aircraft. return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.
Whilst flying in an aerodrome’s traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from
the tower. The aircraft: must give way to another aircraft. is cleared to land. must land immediately and clear the landing area. must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.
While taxying an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of red
flashes. This signal means that the aircraft: must return to its point of departure must stop. must vacate the landing area in use. may continue to taxi to the take-off area.
While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal: a series
of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft: must stop. may continue to taxy towards the take-off area. must return to its point of departure. is cleared for take-off.
Within uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500 ft margin above
the following two levels: 3000 ft AMSL or 1000 ft AGL. 3000 ft AMSL or 1500 ft AGL. FL 30 or 100 ft AGL. FL 30 or 1500 ft AGL.
What does the abbreviation OIS mean? Obstruction in surface. Obstacle in surface. Obstacle identification slope. Obstacle identification surface.
What does the abbreviation DER mean? Departure end of route. Distance end of route. Departure end of runway Distance end of runway.
The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a
sector of: 30 NM 10 NM 15 NM 25 NM.
A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an airport where poor weather conditions are
prevailing. The closest accessible aerodrome is three flying hours away. The take-off minima
to be observed at departure airfield are: ceiling greater or equal to DH/MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for
landing, with an available instrument approach procedure VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing on the runway to be used ceiling greater or equal to DH or MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for
landing, with an available instrument approach procedure to be envisaged with one engine out VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing, and ceiling greater or equal to
ceiling required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure.
If in an instrument departure procedure, the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published,
the pilot is expected: To ignore the wind and proceed on an heading equal to the track. To request from ATC different heading for wind correction. To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace. To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind correction.
In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument departure
procedure? Navigation aids. ATC requirements. The terrain surrounding the airport. Airspace restrictions.
In an instrument departure procedure, the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of
runway equals: 0 ft. 3.3 % gradient. 35 ft. 0.8 % gradient.
In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the runway centre line
within: 12.5° 30° 45° 15°.
Turning departures provide track guidance within: 10 Km 5 Km 15 Km 20 Km.
We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial
departure track is within: 25° of the alignment of the runway centreline 5° of the alignment of the runway centreline 10° of the alignment of the runway centreline 15° of the alignment of the runway centreline.
During circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight tracks), the maximum allowed
airspeed for a Cat B aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection envelope, is: 120 kt 135 kt 125 kt 150 kt.
The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the
assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of: 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure, approach or missed
approach instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight tracks). 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument
procedures, as well as circle-to-land, and 15° for missed approach procedures. The bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate for all procedures with airspeed limitation related to aeroplane
categories. 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument
procedures, 25° for circling-to-land with prescribed flight tracks and 15° for missed approach
procedures.
Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend
below the OCA? When seems possible to land When the aircraft has the control tower in sight When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight.
A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound
track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a: Base turn Procedure turn Reversal procedure Racetrack.
If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descend shall be made so as to: pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude. follow approximately 50 feet above the nominal glide path. pass the fix at the rate of descent of 500 feet/min, which is obligatory. leave the intermediate approach altitude, step by step until reaching the MAPt.
In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to: Mean sea level. Aerodrome reference point. Relevant runway threshold. Aerodrome elevation.
A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the
opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the
designated track is called a: Base turn. Procedure turn. Racetrack. Reversal track.
You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not
be made until:
1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight
2. visual reference has been established and can be maintained
3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained, and a landing can be made
The combination regrouping all the correct answers is: 1, 2, 3. 1, 2. 2, 3. 1, 3.
In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track
is limited to: 1 minute. 2 minutes. 3 minutes. 1 minute 30 seconds.
How many separate segments has an instrument approach procedure? 3. Up to 5. 4. Up to 4.
Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure commence? At the IF. At the IAF. At the FAF. At the final enroute fix.
Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment in an
instrument approach procedure? At least 300m (984 ft). 150m (492 ft). 300m (984 ft). At least 150m (492 ft).
In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the
start of turn for categories A and B aircraft for: 1 minute 15 seconds. 1minute 30 seconds. 2 minutes. 1 minute.
In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the
start of the turn for categories C, D, E aircraft for: 1 minute. 1 minute 15 seconds. 1 minute 30 seconds. 2 minutes.
In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is called: Shuttle. Based turn. Racetrack pattern. Procedure turn.
Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure may include a dead
reckoning segment from a fix to the localizer. The DR track will: Intercept the localizer at 45° and will not be more 10 NM in length. Intercept the localizer at 30° and will not be more 5 NM in length. Intercept the localizer at 45° and will not be more 5 NM in length. Intercept the localizer at 30° and will not be more 10 NM in length.
Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in
an instrument approach procedure? 150m (492 ft) 300m (984 ft) 450m (1476 ft) 600m (1968 ft).
In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing
are made is called: Initial approach segment. Final approach segment. Intermediate approach segment. Arrival segment.
In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the: MAP FAF FAP IF.
In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path interception occurs at heights above runway
elevation from: 150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft) 300m (984 ft) to 600m (1968 ft) 150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft) 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not
normally deviate from the centreline, after being established on track, more than: One and a half of scale deflection. One scale deflection. A quarter of scale deflection. Half a scale deflection.
In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are based among other standard
conditions, on a vertical distance between the flight paths of the wheels and glide path antenna,
not greater than: 6m 3m 9m 12m.
Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure? Arrival, initial, intermediate and final. Initial, intermediate and final. Arrival, intermediate and final. Initial and final.
Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb
gradient of: 0.8% 3.3% 5% 2.5%.
Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end? At the first point where 50m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained. At the missed approach point. At the point where the climb is established. At the point where a new approach, holding or return to enroute flight is initiated.
The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach,
to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straightin
approach, is: Visual manoeuvring (circling). Visual approach. Contact approach. Aerodrome traffic pattern.
It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent obstacle
exists in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final approach and missed
approach area. When this option is exercised, the published procedure: Permits circling only in VMC. Prohibits circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists. Recommends not to perform circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists. Prohibits the circling approach to the affected runway.
When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle clearance
altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined: Only for categories A and B aircraft. For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them. Only for categories C, D and E aircraft. For all categories of aircraft, and it is the same for all of them.
A circling approach is: A contact flight manoeuvre. A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC. A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring. A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight.
If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that
the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the: Landing runway. MAP. FAF. Final missed approach track.
Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not
deviate from the centreline more than: full scale deflection of the localizer indicator. half scale deflection of the localizer indicator. half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator and horizontal 35 ° off the centreline. full scale deflection of the localizer indicator and half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator.
Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approach procedure? the state the operator the pilot-in-command the "flight-operations" of the company.
On a non-precision approach, a so-called "straight-in-approach" is considered acceptable, if
the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is: 30 degrees or less 40 degrees or less 20 degrees or less 10 degrees or less.
Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure
the required minimum obstacle clearance, is: 8% 5% 7% 6.5%.
The primary area of an instrument approach segment is: A defined area symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which full obstacle clearance
is provided. the most critical part of the segment where the minimum altitude should be kept very carefully the first part of the segment the outside part of the segment where the obstacle clearance increases from o ft to the appropriate
minimum.
In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial approach segment provides at least: 1476 ft 492 ft decreasing from 984 to 492 ft 984 ft.
If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a circling manoeuvre, what actions
should be taken? Initiate a missed approach Turn 90 degrees towards the runway and wait for visual contact If you have other visual cues, continue with ground contact Turn towards the inner marker for the runway in use, maintaining circling altitude.
What action should be taken if contact is lost with the aerodrome on the down-wind leg? Descend to OCL/ACH and in the hope that the visibility is better at a lower altitude Maintain your circling altitude and turn towards the aerodrome Request an amended clearance Initiate a missed approach.
During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) of the initial approach
segment primary area is equal to: 150 m (492 ft) 300 m (984 ft) 210 m (690 ft) 120 m (394 ft).
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle
clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is: 50 m (164 ft) 90 m (295 ft) 30 m (98 ft) 120 m (384 ft).
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle
clearance (MOC) in the final phase of this missed approach is: 30 m (98 ft) 90 m (295 ft) 50 m (164 ft) 120 m (384 ft).
A "precision approach" is a direct instrument approach... using bearing, elevation and distance information. using at least one source of bearing information and one source of elevation or distance information. using bearing, elevation and distance information, providing the pilot uses a flight director or an
autopilot certified to a height below 200 ft. carried out by a crew of at least two pilots trained with a specific working method.
Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC charts are
based on a minimum climb gradient of: 5% 2% 2.5% 3.3%.
Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These
sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of: 20 NM 10 NM 5 NM 25 NM.
The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is: ± 5 NM ± 10 NM ± 12.5 NM ± 2.5 NM.
In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below: 350 ft 200 ft the OCH 400 ft.
For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than: 250 ft 150 ft 200 ft 100 ft.
What will be your action if you cannot comply with a standard holding pattern? inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance. a non-standard holding pattern is permitted. it is permitted to deviate from the prescribed holding pattern at pilot discretion. Follow the radio communication failure procedure.
In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a: rate of 3°per second maximum bank angle of 25° rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 20°, which ever requires the lesser bank rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser bank.
Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed? 230 kt TAS 240 kt IAS 230 kt IAS 240 kt TAS.
Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding
pattern shall be made into which direction? First right and then to the left. To the left. To the right. Teardrop to the left and then to the right.
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140? 1 minute 2 minutes 1,5 minutes 30 seconds.
You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding procedure is: all
turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound MC 052°. You are approaching the fix on an
inbound Magnetic Track 232°. Select the available entry procedure. Off set Parallel Direct Either "off set" or "parallel".
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140? 2 minutes. 1 minute. 1 minute 30 seconds. 2 minutes 30 seconds.
In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to: Heading. Course. Bearing. Track.
Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexibility on either
side of the sectors boundaries of: 5° 10° 15° 20°.
How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the buffer area? 3 NM 5 km 5 NM 3 km.
In a standard holding pattern turns are made: to the left in a direction depending on the entry ; in a direction depending on the wind direction to the right.
Standard airway holding pattern below 14000 ft? Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound Right hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound Left hand turns / 1 minute outbound Left hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound.
The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from QNH to
standard setting 1013.25 hPa when passing: Transition layer. Transition level. Transition altitude. The level specified by ATC.
The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below: 2500 ft 1500 ft 1000 ft 3000 ft.
The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported: as altitude. as height. as flight level. according pilot's choice.
The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level will be reported: as height. as altitude. According to pilot's choice. as flight level.
In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft the vertical position of
the aircraft shall be expressed in: altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitude altitude above sea level on or above the transition altitude flight level on or below the transition level flight level on or below the transition altitude.
During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be
expressed as: either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during climb altitude above mean sea level during climb flight level during descent altitude above mean sea level during descent.
At what moment during the approach should the reported airfield altimeter setting be set? When passing the transition level When passing the transition altitude Within the transition layer When passing 3000 FT AMSL or 1000 FT AGL.
The transition level: shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established for the aerodrome is published in the AGA section of the AIP shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been established is calculated and decided by the commander.
The transition level: Is published on the approach and landing chart for each aerodrome Is calculated by ATS Is calculated by the commander Will be distributed via NOTAM.
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