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ERASED TEST, YOU MAY BE INTERESTED ONATP AV 2013

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Title of test:
ATP AV 2013

Description:
ATP mixed questions

Author:
Juan Jimenez
(Other tests from this author)

Creation Date:
26/12/2013

Category:
Driving Test

Number of questions: 109
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Content:
A flux value is found in: Most hydraulic systems Fuel control units and is an internal component not governed from the flight deck Directional Gyro systems and has no moving parts.
The intake section of a jet engine is often considered part of the fuselage. The other four parts which are considered part of the engine are The turbine, combustion chamber, exhaust and reversers The compressor, combustion chamber, turbine and exhaust The Engine struts, compressor, combustion chamber and exhaust.
Hydraulic systems in modern aircraft are usually employed to Aid in lowering the landing gear, moving the nose wheel steering and activating the passenger stairs. Aid in moving heavy control surfaces or accessories Helpthepilotlowerthelandinggearinemergency,activatethePowerTransferUnit(Sby.electricalpower) and engage the thrust reversers.
Large transport category jet airplanes employ Constantly heated leading edges for ground deicing Silver colored deicing boots Heated leading edges for de-icing / anti-icing.
The most fuel efficient type engine for commercial passenger transport is Turbofan with afterburners Turboprop Jet/scramjet (used on the Concorde).
What type measurement is used to rate power on Jet or Fanjet engines Pounds of thrust Brake horse power Shaft horsepower (SHP).
Modern aircraft electrical systems normally consist of Standard 350v 600 Hz AC with step-up transformers Engine generators delivering 115v AC including 400Hz and 24v DC systems 12v AC lead-acid batteries and 24v DC static generators.
Aircraft hydraulic systems use: Aviation grade engine oil as standard fluid Aircraft grade DOT 4 brake fluid Hydraulic fluid.
Where would a pilot find the type of engine oil a specific aircraft uses In the approved Airplane Operating Manual (AOM) or similar Do not even look, call maintenance In the Certificate of Airworthiness (Powerplant subsection.
If during a preflight a pilot sees that a tire is showing just a thread of canvass, he should: Consult with a maintenance technician Consult the limits / tolerances in the approved AFM. Look it up in the Maintenance section of the company’s Operations Specifications.
If at an airport JET A or Jet B type fuels are not available for your aircraft, would you: Top it up with 100/130 LL Avgas not to exceed a 50% ratio Look in the Flight / Maintenance Manual for alternate fuels Not use any other fuel than JET A or Jet B.
Modern aircraft are usually pressurized in flight by using: Auxiliary Power Units which are installed for this purpose primarily Pressure controlled bleed air tapped off usually from the last stage turbine section of the engine Bleed air tapped off from usually the compressor section of the engine.
At what Mach range does the subsonic flight range normally occur? From .75 to 1.20 Mach From 1,20 to 2,50 Mach Bellow .75 mach.
How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for turbojet aircraft? Immediatly prior to touchdown. After applying maximum wheel braking. Immediatly after ground contact.
What characterizes a transient compressor stall? Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by loud whine. Intermittent "bang", as backfires and flow reversal take place.
What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal. Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed. Strong vibrations and loud roar.
In turbine engine jargon, a Hot Start is when: The outside air temperature is above ISA + 45º C The EGT rises rapidly before the N1/N2N/3 reach sufficient speed and the engine is about to exceed limitations The-ITT/EGT-rises-rapidly-and-exceeds-limitations-before-sufficient-turbine/compressor-rotation-is-obtained.
Turbine engines can deliver reverse thrust by. Bringing-the-engine-from-forward-thrust-into-a-momentary-stop(stationary)then-spooled-up-into-reverse-thrust. Starting the engine in the opposite direction of normal forward thrust It is merely accelerated as the exhaust is redirected forward.
What other term is used to classify a “Turboprop Engine”: Propjet Fanjet TPE (Turbocharged Propeller Engine).
Approximately in what percentage do turboprop engines deliver thrust via the Propeller Vs turbine exhaust: 100% propeller - 0% turbine exhaust 20% propeller - 80% turbine exhaust 75% propeller - 25% turbine exhaust.
High-bypass ratio turbine engines can be compared in operating principle to A regular jet engine with afterburner A simple scramjet engine A turboprop engine with 200 or more small propeller blades.
A regular gas turbine type engine’s performance is most affected by: Ambient pressure and humidity Ambient temperature and pressure Mostly humidity in the air Vs ISA conditions.
If a normally aspirated engine’s power output (such as on a C-150 or PA28) engine is measured in shaft horse power (SHP), a turboprop engine’s power output is measured in: Lbs of thrust Also SHP ESHP (equivalent shaft horse power).
What is the prime advantage of a fuel injected engine Vs a carburetor type: A fuel injector is better because it can be adjusted on wing. A fuel injector better atomizes the fuel for optimum performance A fuel injector is less expensive because it does not need carburetor de-icing.
Turbine engines have a compression ratio of say 20:3 just like normal internal combustion engines do, this ratio on turbine type engines is: Air pressures at the intake Vs the exhaust stage Air pressures at the combustor stage Vs the turbine stage Air pressures at the turbine Vs the exhaust stage.
Turbine engines have a compression ratio just like internal combustion engines False Impossible since turbine engines do not have pistons True.
Constant speed propellers operate the same on an internal combustion engine as they do on most turboprop engines because they both Use a hydraulic oil system to feed an over speed solenoid Use engine oil and a propeller governor to maintain a given RPM set by the pilot Use a propeller governor and turbine/turbocharger air to pneumatically control the engine RPM in flight.
Automated flight decks or cockpits Enhance basic pilot flight skills. Decrease the work load in terminal areas. Often create much larger pilot errors than traditional cockpits.
Identify REIL. Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of the runway. Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.
What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? Lights are closed together and easily distinguinished from surrounding lights Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for caution zone Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of the runway for caution zone.
What does the Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of? Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white and green. Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white. One light projector with two colors; red and white.
You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of the runway when The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign. The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line. All parts of the aircraft hace crossed the hold line.
What is the standard temperature at 10,000 feet? -5 C -15 C +5 C.
What is the standard temperature at 20,000 feet? -15 C -20 C -25 C.
W hat are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level? 59°F and 1013.2" Hg. 15°C and 29.92 Mb. 15 C and 29.92 Hg.
The performance tables of an aircraft for takeoff and climb are based on Cabin altitude True altitude. Pressure/density altitude.
What effect, if any, would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas turbine engine performance? As air density decreases, thrust increases As temperature increases, thrust increases. As temperature increases, thrust decreases.
With regard to the technique required for a crosswind correction on takeoff, a pilot should use Aileron-pressure-into-the-wind-and-initiate-the-lift-off-at-a-normal-airspeed-in-both-tailwheel-and-nose-wheel-type airplanes Right rudder pressure, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both tricycle- and conventional-gear airplanes Rudder-as-required-to-maintain-directional-control,aileron-pressure-into-the-wind,and-higher-than-normal lift-off airspeed in both conventional- and nosewheel-type airplanes.
When turbulence is encountered during the approach to a landing, what action is recommended and for what primary reason? Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to attain more positive control. Decrease the airspeed slightly below normal approach speed to avoid overstressing the airplane Increase-the-airspeed-slightly-above-normal-approach-speed-to-penetrate-the-turbulence-as-quickly-as-possible.
A pilot’s most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming airborne on takeoff is Landing directly into the wind. Turning back to the takeoff field. Maintaining a safe airspeed.
Which type of approach and landing is recommended during gusty wind conditions? A power-off approach and power-on landing. A power-on approach and power-off landing. A power-on approach and power-on landing.
A proper crosswind landing on a runway requires that, at the moment of touchdown, the Direction of motion of the airplane and its lateral axis be perpendicular to the runway Direction of motion of the airplane and its longitudinal axis be parallel to the runway. Downwind wing be lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the airplane to drift.
What effect does an uphill runway slope have on takeoff performance? Increases takeoff speed. Increases takeoff distance. Decreases takeoff distance.
At higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed Will be higher, but groundspeed will be unchanged Should be increased to compensate for the thinner air. Will be unchanged, but groundspeed will be faster.
Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and the sink rate to decrease? Tailwind which suddenly increases in velocity Sudden increase in a headwind component Sudden decrease in the headwind component.
Which INITIAL cockpit indicatons should a pilot be awere of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases Indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases. Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases.
Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airpeed? Increasing tailwind and decreasing headwind. Increasing tailwind and headwind Decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind.
Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? Decreasing headwind or tailwind Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.
What is the recommended technique to counter a loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear? Lower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed. Avoid overstressing the aircraft, "pitch to airspeed", and apply maximum power. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed indications.
Under what conditions would clear air turbulence (CAT) most likely be encountered? When constant pressure charts show a 60-knot isotaches less than 20 NM apart. When a sharp trough is moving at a speed less than 20 knots When constant pressure charts show a 20-knot isotaches less than 60 NM apart.
Which is the definition of "severe wind shear"? Any rapid change of horizontal wind shear in excess of 25 knots; vertical shear excepted Any rapid change in wind direction or velocity which causes airspeed changes greater than 15 knots or vertical speed changes greater tan 500 ft/min Any-change-of-airspeed-greater-than-20-Knots-which-is-sustained-for-more-than-20-seconds-or-vertical-speed changes in excess of 100ft/min.
What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? Wind shear. Frontal passage. Light and variable.
Which INTIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be awere of when a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind? Altitude increases; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase.
Clear air turbulence (CAT) associated with a mountain wave may extend as fas as 1,000 miles or more downstream of the mountain 100 miles or more upwind of the mountain. 5,000 feet above the tropopause.
What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT) Extend flaps to decrease wind loading Extend gear to provide more drag and increase stability. Adjust airspeed to that recomended for rough air.
If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recomended? Mantain a constant altitude. Mantain a constant attitude Mantain constant airspeed and altitude.
Which action is recomended regarding an altitude change to get out of the jet stream turbulence? Descend if ambient temperature is falling Descend if ambient temperature is rising. Mantain altitude or course to avoid a possible elongated turbulent area.
Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encontered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is Operating at high airspeeds Using high power settings Developing lift.
Which flight conditions of large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down.
What effect would a light corsswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by large airplane that has just taken off? A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.
What wind condition prolongs the hazard of the wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? Direct tailwind Light quartering headwind. Light quartering tailwind.
To avoid the wingtip vortices of a desparting jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplanes flight path Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplanes flight path.
If you take off behaind a jeavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off prior to the point where the jet touched down. beyond the point where the jet touched down at the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway.
What is the pilots responsability for the clearance or instruction readback? Read back the entire clearance or instruction to confirm the message is understood If the clearance or instruction is understood, and acknowledgement is sufficient. Except for SIDs, read back altitude assignmets, altitude restrictions, and vectors.
What action should a pilot take when a clearance is received from ATC that appears to be contrary to a regulation? Request a clarification from ATC. Read the clearance back in its entirety. Do no accept the clearance.
What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit? Time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving Time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed Time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed, and inbound leg length.
What action should a pilot take if asked by ARTCC to "VERIFY 9,000" and the flight is actually maintaining 8,000? Immediately climb to 9000 Report climbing to 9000. Report maintaining 8000.
Where are position reports required on an IFR flight on airway or routes? Over all designated compulsory reporting points Only where specifically requested by ARTCC When requested to change altitude or advise of weather conditions.
Wich reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? Position-reports,vacating-and-altitude,unable-to-climb-500ft/min,and-time-and-altitude-reaching-a-holding fix or point to which cleared Position reports, vacating and altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 Knots. Vacating-and-altitude,unable-to-climb-500ft/min,time-and-altitude-reaching-a-holding-fix-or-point-to-which-cleared,a-change-in-average-true-airspeed-exceeding-5-percent-or-10-Knots,and-leaving-and-assigned holding fix or point.
TCAS I provides traffic and resolution advisories proximity warning. recomended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic.
TCAS II provides traffic and resolution advisories. proximity warning maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic.
Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and Mantain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. Request a new ATC clearance. expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory, after the conflict is resolved.
Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS II, resolution advisory (RA) is expected to Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. Request a new ATC clearance. notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable.
With no traffic identified by TCAS, you must continually scan for other traffic in visual conditions must scan only for hot air balloons. can rest assured that no other aircraft are in the area.
While being radar vectored, to the final approach course of an IFR approach, when may the pilot descend to published altitudes? Only when approach control clears the flight for the approach Anytime the flight is on a published leg of an approach chart. When the flight is within the 10-mile ring of a published approach.
What action (s) should a pilot take if vectored across the final approach course during an IFR approach? Continue on the last heading issued until otherwise instructed Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course Turn onto final, and broadcast in the blind that the flight has proceeded on final.
What is the difference between a visual and a contact approach? A visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact apprach is initiated by the pilot. visual approach is an IFR authorization while a contact approach is an VFR authorization Both are the same but classified according to the part initiating the approach.
How should a pilot describe braking action? 00 percent, 50 percent, 75 percent, or 100 percent. Zero-zero, fifty-fift, or normal. Nil, poor, fair or good.
When entering a holding pattern above 14,000 feet, the initial outbound leg should not exceed 1 minute 1-1/2 minutes 1-1/2 minutes or 10 NM, whichever is less.
Under what condition should a piot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status? When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.
You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay This will ensure your priority handling by ATC ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency If-your-remaining-usable-fuel-supply-suggests-the-need-for-traffic-priority-to-ensure-a-safe-landing,declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.
What is the hijack code? 7200 7777 7500.
What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. When distress conditions such as fie, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs.
Wich range of codes should a pilot avoid switching through when changing transponder codes? 0000 through 1000 7200 and 7500 series. 7500, 7600 and 7700 series.
Which condition reduces the required runway for the takeoff? Higher-than-recomended airspeed before rotation. Lower-than-standard air density. Increase headwind component.
Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway? Critical engine failure speed. Rotation speed. Accelerate-stop distance.
What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on groundspeed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind and airplane weight? Higher than at low elevation. Lower than at low elevation. The same as at low elevation.
Wich weather condition is defined as an anticyclone? Calm High pressure area COL.
Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight? Freezing rain. Embedded thundrestorms. Clear air turbulence.
What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight? Visible water Water vapor Supercooled water drops.
Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? Wet snow. Freezing rain Ice pellets.
VFR is the same as VMC and IFR is the same as IMC. False, but they are correlated False, one is the type of flight plan and the other the designation as per Ops. Specs True, they are both the same.
A DME arc should be flown within ____ from the center of the arc: 1.0 DME 2.0 DME 0.0. (No deviations are allowed.
TERPs are a US standard used for: All ICAO special charts IFR departure design criteria Non Jeppesen stars.
When flying a DP and you lose communications, you must: Continue flying the DP as published Return for a landing Proceed as per special instructions on the chart when included.
Take off minimums are a standard value or all airports in Colombia True, except as published on STARs False, every airport is different True, except where otherwise published on the chart or company Ops Specs.
Departure Procedures must: Be flown if available for that airport Be flown and no change request for another DP is allowed if on an IFR flight plan Be flown if accepted but may be declined or changes made if coordinated with ATC.
On a Jeppesen or NOA chart what does V344 mean: V-stands-or“VictorCollins”whom-in-1935-invented-the-airways-between-VOR-sand-344-is-the-airway-allocation V stands for VOR (VHF signal) and 344 is the airway allocation V stands for “very high speed” and 344 is the max. speed allowed in Kts for that direction of flight.
MEA guarantees adequate terrain clearance and Navigation signal Both navigation and communications 1.500 ground clearance around mountains.
When flying an airway you need to deviate 3.5 Nm to the left of course you need Do nothing, airways are 4 Nm wide to each side Request ATC since you are expected to navigate on the center line of the airway Do nothing, airways are 8 Nm wide to each side of the center line.
1.000 Ft clearance from terrain and 2.000 Ft in mountainous areas is guaranteed on MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA and MEA MVA, MEA and MOCA Neither,as-the-radio-altimeter-is-never-activated(2.500Ftorless)when-the-aircraft-flies-in-mountainous-terrain.
In order to fly a route where you plan to fly with an IFR approved GPS as the primary means of navigation from airport A direct to airport B, you need A Hi or Lo enroute chart A GPS navigation chart since airways will not be used A WAC VFR chart since GPS is not certified for enroute navigation.
When departing an airport in class B airspace you should advice ATC upon initial contact once handed off from TWR: Aircraft ID, present altitude, limiting altitude assigned and squak code Aircraft ID, present altitude, squak code Your altitude assigned level/alt, squak code.
When in radar contact, your aircraft DME equipment becomes unserviceable, you should: Write a maintenance report at your next stop Advice ATC so he/she if required may make alternate arrangements Check the MEL to ensure the equipment is not required for the type of flight you are executing.
Position reports when required should include: Aircraft ID, position, time, altitude, ETA at next point, following compulsory point, remarks if any Nothing if you were advised to be in radar contact since in this condition ATL always knows where you are Aircraft ID, position, ETA over next PT and following point.
You are in radar contact and ATC clears you to a lower altitude at pilot’s discretion, you should: Report leaving present altitude Just descend at will since ATC will know your altitude at all times Descend as quickly as possible to relieve ATC of your traffic.
You gave a position report and you recognize that your ETA at the following point is off, you should: If off by more than 3 minutes advice ATC of revised time Do nothing as you are on an IFR Flt Advice ATC if more than 5 % error or 10 miles.
In a no wind condition you are asked at 12:00 Hrs. to hold at 8.000 Ft. until 12:12 Hrs. You will fly two complete racetrack patterns You will fly three complete racetrack patterns The # of circuits you fly depends on the speed you are holding at.
If on a descent clearance you are cleared to hold at a fix, you should Reach the fix at or below the speed for your aircraft type/category Maintainthespeedupsoastoholdatthefastestspeedpossibletobethefirsttoleavethefixandexpedite ATC Slow down and enter the hold at VMC + 10 Kts.
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