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Title of test: CISSPTEST1 Description: Certified information systems Author: Testinginprogress Other tests from this author Creation Date: 05/12/2024 Category: Computers Number of questions: 150

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Intellectual property rights are PRIMARY concerned with which of the following? A. Owner’s ability to realize financial gain B. Owner’s ability to maintain copyright C. Right of the owner to enjoy their creation D. Right of the owner to control delivery method. Which of the following types of technologies would be the MOST cost-effective method to provide a reactive control for protecting personnel in public areas? A. Install mantraps at the building entrances B. Enclose the personnel entry area with polycarbonate plastic C. Supply a duress alarm for personnel exposed to the public D. Hire a guard to protect the public area. Which of the following actions will reduce risk to a laptop before traveling to a high risk area? A. Examine the device for physical tampering B. Implement more stringent baseline configurations C. Purge or re-image the hard disk drive D. Change access codes. All of the following items should be included in a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) questionnaire EXCEPT questions that A. determine the risk of a business interruption occurring B. determine the technological dependence of the business processes C. Identify the operational impacts of a business interruption D. Identify the financial impacts of a business interruption. What is the MOST important consideration from a data security perspective when an organization plans to relocate? A. Network redundancies are not implemented B. Security awareness training is not completed C. Backup tapes are generated unencrypted D. Users have administrative privileges. When assessing an organization’s security policy according to standards established by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001 and 27002, when can management responsibilities be defined? A. Only when assets are clearly defined B. Only when standards are defined C. Only when controls are put in place D. Only procedures are defined. A company whose Information Technology (IT) services are being delivered from a Tier 4 data center, is preparing a companywide Business Continuity Planning (BCP). Which of the following failures should the IT manager be concerned with? A. Application B. Storage C. Power D. Network. An important principle of defense in depth is that achieving information security requires a balanced focus on which PRIMARY elements? A. Development, testing, and deployment B. Prevention, detection, and remediation C. People, technology, and operations D. Certification, accreditation, and monitoring. In a data classification scheme, the data is owned by the A. system security managers B. business managers C. Information Technology (IT) managers D. end users. Which of the following is an initial consideration when developing an information security management system? A. Identify the contractual security obligations that apply to the organizations B. Understand the value of the information assets C. Identify the level of residual risk that is tolerable to management D. Identify relevant legislative and regulatory compliance requirements. Which of the following BEST describes the responsibilities of a data owner? A. Ensuring quality and validation through periodic audits for ongoing data integrity B. Maintaining fundamental data availability, including data storage and archiving C. Ensuring accessibility to appropriate users, maintaining appropriate levels of data security D. Determining the impact the information has on the mission of the organization. Which of the following is an effective control in preventing electronic cloning of Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) based access cards? A. Personal Identity Verification (PIV) B. Cardholder Unique Identifier (CHUID) authentication C. Physical Access Control System (PACS) repeated attempt detection D. Asymmetric Card Authentication Key (CAK) challenge-response. An organization has doubled in size due to a rapid market share increase. The size of the Information Technology (IT) staff has maintained pace with this growth. The organization hires several contractors whose onsite time is limited. The IT department has pushed its limits building servers and rolling out workstations and has a backlog of account management requests. Which contract is BEST in offloading the task from the IT staff? A. Platform as a Service (PaaS) B. Identity as a Service (IDaaS) C. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) D. Software as a Service (SaaS). When implementing a data classification program, why is it important to avoid too much granularity? A. The process will require too many resources B. It will be difficult to apply to both hardware and software C. It will be difficult to assign ownership to the data D. The process will be perceived as having value. Which one of the following affects the classification of data? A. Assigned security label B. Multilevel Security (MLS) architecture C. Minimum query size D. Passage of time. Which of the following is MOST important when assigning ownership of an asset to a department? A. The department should report to the business owner B. Ownership of the asset should be periodically reviewed C. Individual accountability should be ensured D. All members should be trained on their responsibilities. Which component of the Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) specification contains the data required to estimate the severity of vulnerabilities identified automated vulnerability assessments? A. Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) B. Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) C. Asset Reporting Format (ARF) D. Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language (OVAL). What is the second phase of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) key/certificate life-cycle management? A. Implementation Phase B. Initialization Phase C. Cancellation Phase D. Issued Phase. Who in the organization is accountable for classification of data information assets? A. Data owner B. Data architect C. Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) D. Chief Information Officer (CIO). The use of private and public encryption keys is fundamental in the implementation of which of the following? A. Diffie-Hellman algorithm B. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) C. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) D. Message Digest 5 (MD5). Which technique can be used to make an encryption scheme more resistant to a known plaintext attack? A. Hashing the data before encryption B. Hashing the data after encryption C. Compressing the data after encryption D. Compressing the data before encryption. Which security service is served by the process of encryption plaintext with the sender’s private key and decrypting cipher text with the sender’s public key? A. Confidentiality B. Integrity C. Identification D. Availability. Which of the following mobile code security models relies only on trust? A. Code signing B. Class authentication C. Sandboxing D. Type safety. Which of the following is the BEST network defense against unknown types of attacks or stealth attacks in progress? A. Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS) B. Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) C. Stateful firewalls D. Network Behavior Analysis (NBA) tools. An input validation and exception handling vulnerability has been discovered on a critical web-based system. Which of the following is MOST suited to quickly implement a control? A. Add a new rule to the application layer firewall A. Add a new rule to the application layer firewall C. Install an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) D. Patch the application source code. An external attacker has compromised an organization’s network security perimeter and installed a sniffer onto an inside computer. Which of the following is the MOST effective layer of security the organization could have implemented to mitigate the attacker’s ability to gain further information? A. Implement packet filtering on the network firewalls B. Install Host Based Intrusion Detection Systems (HIDS) C. Require strong authentication for administrators D. Implement logical network segmentation at the switches. Which of the following is used by the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) to determine packet formats? A. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) B. Link Control Protocol (LCP) C. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) D. Packet Transfer Protocol (PTP). Which of the following operates at the Network Layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model? A. Packet filtering B. Port services filtering C. Content filtering D. Application access control. Which of the following factors contributes to the weakness of Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) protocol? A. WEP uses a small range Initialization Vector (IV) B. WEP uses Message Digest 5 (MD5) C. WEP uses Diffie-Hellman D. WEP does not use any Initialization Vector (IV). What is the purpose of an Internet Protocol (IP) spoofing attack? To send excessive amounts of data to a process, making it unpredictable To intercept network traffic without authorization To disguise the destination address from a target’s IP filtering devices To convince a system that it is communicating with a known entity. At what level of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model is data at rest on a Storage Area Network (SAN) located? Link layer Physical layer Session layer Application layer. In a Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) stack, which layer is responsible for negotiating and establishing a connection with another node? Transport layer Application layer Network layer Session layer. Which of the following BEST describes an access control method utilizing cryptographic keys derived from a smart card private key that is embedded within mobile devices? Derived credential Temporary security credential Mobile device credentialing service Digest authentication. What is the BEST approach for controlling access to highly sensitive information when employees have the same level of security clearance? Audit logs Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) Two-factor authentication Application of least privilege. A manufacturing organization wants to establish a Federated Identity Management (FIM) system with its 20 different supplier companies. Which of the following is the BEST solution for the manufacturing organization? Trusted third-party certification Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) Security Assertion Markup language (SAML) Cross-certification. Users require access rights that allow them to view the average salary of groups of employees. Which control would prevent the users from obtaining an individual employee’s salary? Limit access to predefined queries Segregate the database into a small number of partitions each with a separate security level Implement Role Based Access Control (RBAC) Reduce the number of people who have access to the system for statistical purposes. Which of the following is of GREATEST assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations? Change management processes User administration procedures Operating System (OS) baselines System backup documentation. Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure? Executive audiences will understand the outcomes of testing and most appropriate next steps for corrective actions to be taken Technical teams will understand the testing objectives, testing strategies applied, and business risk associated with each vulnerability Management teams will understand the testing objectives and reputational risk to the organization Technical and management teams will better understand the testing objectives, results of each test phase, and potential impact levels. In which of the following programs is it MOST important to include the collection of security process data? Quarterly access reviews Security continuous monitoring Business continuity testing Annual security training. Which of the following could cause a Denial of Service (DoS) against an authentication system? Encryption of audit logs No archiving of audit logs Hashing of audit logs Remote access audit logs. A Virtual Machine (VM) environment has five guest Operating Systems (OS) and provides strong isolation. What MUST an administrator review to audit a user’s access to data files? Host VM monitor audit logs Guest OS access controls Host VM access controls Guest OS audit logs. With what frequency should monitoring of a control occur when implementing Information Security Continuous Monitoring (ISCM) solutions? Continuously without exception for all security controls Before and after each change of the control At a rate concurrent with the volatility of the security control Only during system implementation and decommissioning. What is the MOST important step during forensic analysis when trying to learn the purpose of an unknown application? Disable all unnecessary services Ensure chain of custody Prepare another backup of the system Isolate the system from the network. A continuous information security monitoring program can BEST reduce risk through which of the following? Collecting security events and correlating them to identify anomalies Facilitating system-wide visibility into the activities of critical user accounts Encompassing people, process, and technology Logging both scheduled and unscheduled system changes. What would be the MOST cost effective solution for a Disaster Recovery (DR) site given that the organization’s systems cannot be unavailable for more than 24 hours? Warm site Hot site Mirror site Cold site. An organization is found lacking the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit. What would be the MOST probable cause? Absence of a Business Intelligence (BI) solution Inadequate cost modeling Improper deployment of the Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA) Insufficient Service Level Agreement (SLA). Recovery strategies of a Disaster Recovery planning (DRIP) MUST be aligned with which of the following? Hardware and software compatibility issues Applications’ critically and downtime tolerance Budget constraints and requirements Cost/benefit analysis and business objectives. When is a Business Continuity Plan (BCP) considered to be valid? When it has been validated by the Business Continuity (BC) manager When it has been validated by the board of directors When it has been validated by all threat scenarios When it has been validated by realistic exercises. Which of the following is the FIRST step in the incident response process? Determine the cause of the incident Disconnect the system involved from the network Isolate and contain the system involved Investigate all symptoms to confirm the incident. Which of the following types of business continuity tests includes assessment of resilience to internal and external risks without endangering live operations? Walkthrough Simulation Parallel White box. A Business Continuity Plan/Disaster Recovery Plan (BCP/DRP) will provide which of the following? Guaranteed recovery of all business functions Minimization of the need decision making during a crisis Insurance against litigation following a disaster Protection from loss of organization resources. Which of the following is a PRIMARY advantage of using a third-party identity service? Consolidation of multiple providers Directory synchronization Web based logon Automated account management. What is the PRIMARY reason for implementing change management? Certify and approve releases to the environment Provide version rollbacks for system changes Ensure that all applications are approved Ensure accountability for changes to the environment. What should be the FIRST action to protect the chain of evidence when a desktop computer is involved? Take the computer to a forensic lab Make a copy of the hard drive Start documenting Turn off the computer. The configuration management and control task of the certification and accreditation process is incorporated in which phase of the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC)? System acquisition and development System operations and maintenance System initiation System implementation. When in the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) MUST software security functional requirements be defined? After the system preliminary design has been developed and the data security categorization has been performed After the vulnerability analysis has been performed and before the system detailed design begins After the system preliminary design has been developed and before the data security categorization begins After the business functional analysis and the data security categorization have been performed. What is the BEST approach to addressing security issues in legacy web applications? Debug the security issues Migrate to newer, supported applications where possible Conduct a security assessment Protect the legacy application with a web application firewall. Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk with using open source software in a commercial software construction? Lack of software documentation License agreements requiring release of modified code Expiration of the license agreement Costs associated with support of the software. A Java program is being developed to read a file from computer A and write it to computer B, using a third computer C. The program is not working as expected. What is the MOST probable security feature of Java preventing the program from operating as intended? Least privilege Privilege escalation Defense in depth Privilege bracketing. Which of the following is a web application control that should be put into place to prevent exploitation of Operating System (OS) bugs? Check arguments in function calls Test for the security patch level of the environment Include logging functions Digitally sign each application module. Which of the following is the BEST method to prevent malware from being introduced into a production environment? Purchase software from a limited list of retailers Verify the hash key or certificate key of all updates Do not permit programs, patches, or updates from the Internet Test all new software in a segregated environment. Which of the following is a limitation of the Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) as it relates to conducting code review? It has normalized severity ratings It has many worksheets and practices to implement. It aims to calculate the risk of published vulnerabilities. It requires a robust risk management framework to be put in place. An organization is designing a large enterprise-wide document repository system. They plan to have several different classification level areas with increasing levels of controls. The BEST way to ensure document confidentiality in the repository is to encrypt the contents of the repository and document any exceptions to that requirement. utilize Intrusion Detection System (IDS) set drop connections if too many requests for documents are detected. keep individuals with access to high security areas from saving those documents into lower security areas. require individuals with access to the system to sign Non-Disclosure Agreements (NDA). An advantage of link encryption in a communications network is that it makes key management and distribution easier protects data from start to finish through the entire network. improves the efficiency of the transmission. encrypts all information, including headers and routing information. A security consultant has been asked to research an organization's legal obligations to protect privacy-related information. What kind of reading material is MOST relevant to this project? The organization's current security policies concerning privacy issues Privacy-related regulations enforced by governing bodies applicable to the organization Privacy best practices published by recognized security standards organizations Organizational procedures designed to protect privacy information. An external attacker has compromised an organization's network security perimeter and installed a sniffer onto an inside computer. Which of the following is the MOST effective layer of security the organization could have implemented to mitigate the attacker's ability to gain further information? Implement packet filtering on the network firewalls Require strong authentication for administrators Install Host Based Intrusion Detection Systems (HIDS) Implement logical network segmentation at the switches. Which of the following is an authentication protocol in which a new random number is generated uniquely for each login session? Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) Password Authentication Protocol (PAP). Which of the following is an attacker MOST likely to target to gain privileged access to a system? Programs that write to system resources Programs that write to user directories Log files containing sensitive information Log files containing system calls. Which of the following elements MUST a compliant EU-US Safe Harbor Privacy Policy contain? An explanation of how long the data subject's collected information will be retained for and how it will be eventually disposed. An explanation of who can be contacted at the organization collecting the information if corrections are required by the data subject. An explanation of the regulatory frameworks and compliance standards the information collecting organization adheres to. An explanation of all the technologies employed by the collecting organization in gathering information on the data subject. Which of the following actions should be performed when implementing a change to a database schema in a production system? Test in development, determine dates, notify users, and implement in production Apply change to production, run in parallel, finalize change in production, and develop a back-out strategy Perform user acceptance testing in production, have users sign off, and finalize change Change in development, perform user acceptance testing, develop a back-out strategy, and implement change. What is the ultimate objective of information classification? To assign responsibility for mitigating the risk to vulnerable systems To ensure that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection To recognize that the value of any item of information may change over time To recognize the optimal number of classification categories and the benefits to be gained from their use. Which of the following BEST represents the principle of open design? Disassembly, analysis, or reverse engineering will reveal the security functionality of the computer system. Algorithms must be protected to ensure the security and interoperability of the designed system. A knowledgeable user should have limited privileges on the system to prevent their ability to compromise security capabilities. The security of a mechanism should not depend on the secrecy of its design or implementation. At a MINIMUM, a formal review of any Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) should be conducted monthly. quarterly. annually. bi-annually. A vulnerability test on an Information System (IS) is conducted to exploit security weaknesses in the IS. measure system performance on systems with weak security controls. evaluate the effectiveness of security controls. prepare for Disaster Recovery (DR) planning. The BEST method of demonstrating a company's security level to potential customers is a report from an external auditor. responding to a customer's security questionnaire. a formal report from an internal auditor. a site visit by a customer's security team. Which of the following MUST be part of a contract to support electronic discovery of data stored in a cloud environment? Integration with organizational directory services for authentication Tokenization of data Accommodation of hybrid deployment models Identification of data location. Which of the following can BEST prevent security flaws occurring in outsourced software development? Contractual requirements for code quality Licensing, code ownership and intellectual property rights Certification of the quality and accuracy of the work done Delivery dates, change management control and budgetary control. Which of the following wraps the decryption key of a full disk encryption implementation and ties the hard disk drive to a particular device? Trusted Platform Module (TPM) Preboot eXecution Environment (PXE) Key Distribution Center (KDC) Simple Key-Management for Internet Protocol (SKIP). A software scanner identifies a region within a binary image having high entropy. What does this MOST likely indicate? Encryption routines Random number generator Obfuscated code Botnet command and control. By allowing storage communications to run on top of Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) with a Storage Area Network (SAN), the confidentiality of the traffic is protected. opportunity to sniff network traffic exists. opportunity for device identity spoofing is eliminated. storage devices are protected against availability attacks. Why must all users be positively identified prior to using multi-user computers? To provide access to system privileges To provide access to the operating system To ensure that unauthorized persons cannot access the computers To ensure that management knows what users are currently logged on. A system has been scanned for vulnerabilities and has been found to contain a number of communication ports that have been opened without authority. To which of the following might this system have been subjected? Trojan horse Denial of Service (DoS) Spoofing Man-in-the-Middle (MITM). The Structured Query Language (SQL) implements Discretionary Access Controls (DAC) using INSERT and DELETE. GRANT and REVOKE PUBLIC and PRIVATE. ROLLBACK and TERMINATE. Alternate encoding such as hexadecimal representations is MOST often observed in which of the following forms of attack? Smurf Rootkit exploit Denial of Service (DoS) Cross site scripting (XSS). An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is generating alarms that a user account has over 100 failed login attempts per minute. A sniffer is placed on the network, and a variety of passwords for that user are noted. Which of the following is MOST likely occurring? A dictionary attack A Denial of Service (DoS) attack A spoofing attack A backdoor installation. Which of the following methods protects Personally Identifiable Information (PII) by use of a full replacement of the data element? Transparent Database Encryption (TDE) Column level database encryption Volume encryption Data tokenization. In a basic SYN flood attack, what is the attacker attempting to achieve? A. Exceed the threshold limit of the connection queue for a given service B. Set the threshold to zero for a given service C. Cause the buffer to overflow, allowing root access D. Flush the register stack, allowing hijacking of the root account. The birthday attack is MOST effective against which one of the following cipher technologies? Chaining block encryption Asymmetric cryptography Cryptographic hash Streaming cryptography. Which one of the following security mechanisms provides the BEST way to restrict the execution of privileged procedures? Role Based Access Control (RBAC) Biometric access control Federated Identity Management (IdM) Application hardening. A disadvantage of an application filtering firewall is that it can lead to a crash of the network as a result of user activities. performance degradation due to the rules applied. loss of packets on the network due to insufficient bandwidth. Internet Protocol (IP) spoofing by hackers. Passive Infrared Sensors (PIR) used in a non-climate controlled environment should reduce the detected object temperature in relation to the background temperature. increase the detected object temperature in relation to the background temperature. automatically compensate for variance in background temperature. detect objects of a specific temperature independent of the background temperature. Logical access control programs are MOST effective when they are approved by external auditors. combined with security token technology. maintained by computer security officers. made part of the operating system. Checking routing information on e-mail to determine it is in a valid format and contains valid information is an example of which of the following anti-spam approaches? Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) blacklist Reverse Domain Name System (DNS) lookup Hashing algorithm Header analysis. In the area of disaster planning and recovery, what strategy entails the presentation of information about the plan? Communication Planning Recovery Escalation. What is the MOST important purpose of testing the Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)? Evaluating the efficiency of the plan Identifying the benchmark required for restoration Validating the effectiveness of the plan Determining the Recovery Time Objective (RTO). Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnections (OSI) model implementation adds information concerning the logical connection between the sender and receiver? Physical Session Transport Data-Link. The goal of software assurance in application development is to enable the development of High Availability (HA) systems. facilitate the creation of Trusted Computing Base (TCB) systems. prevent the creation of vulnerable applications. encourage the development of open source applications. The three PRIMARY requirements for a penetration test are A defined goal, limited time period, and approval of management A general objective, unlimited time, and approval of the network administrator An objective statement, disclosed methodology, and fixed cost A stated objective, liability waiver, and disclosed methodology. Which Hyper Text Markup Language 5 (HTML5) option presents a security challenge for network data leakage prevention and/or monitoring? Cross Origin Resource Sharing (CORS) WebSockets Document Object Model (DOM) trees Web Interface Definition Language (IDL). Which of the following defines the key exchange for Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)? Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) key exchange Internet Key Exchange (IKE) Security Key Exchange (SKE) Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP). What would be the PRIMARY concern when designing and coordinating a security assessment for an Automatic Teller Machine (ATM) system? Physical access to the electronic hardware Regularly scheduled maintenance process Availability of the network connection Processing delays. Which of the following statements is TRUE for point-to-point microwave transmissions? They are not subject to interception due to encryption. Interception only depends on signal strength. They are too highly multiplexed for meaningful interception. They are subject to interception by an antenna within proximity. When constructing an Information Protection Policy (IPP), it is important that the stated rules are necessary, adequate, and flexible. confidential. focused. achievable. The overall goal of a penetration test is to determine a system's ability to withstand an attack. capacity management. error recovery capabilities. reliability under stress. Which of the following is the FIRST step of a penetration test plan? Analyzing a network diagram of the target network Notifying the company's customers Obtaining the approval of the company's management Scheduling the penetration test during a period of least impact. Copyright provides protection for which of the following? Ideas expressed in literary works A particular expression of an idea New and non-obvious inventions Discoveries of natural phenomena. Which one of the following effectively obscures network addresses from external exposure when implemented on a firewall or router? Network Address Translation (NAT) Application Proxy Routing Information Protocol (RIP) Version 2 Address Masking. Two companies wish to share electronic inventory and purchase orders in a supplier and client relationship. What is the BEST security solution for them? Write a Service Level Agreement (SLA) for the two companies. Set up a Virtual Private Network (VPN) between the two companies. Configure a firewall at the perimeter of each of the two companies Establish a File Transfer Protocol (FTP) connection between the two companies. An organization is selecting a service provider to assist in the consolidation of multiple computing sites including development, implementation and ongoing support of various computer systems. Which of the following MUST be verified by the Information Security Department? The service provider's policies are consistent with ISO/IEC27001 and there is evidence that the service provider is following those policies. The service provider will segregate the data within its systems and ensure that each region's policies are met. The service provider will impose controls and protections that meet or exceed the current systems controls and produce audit logs as verification. The service provider's policies can meet the requirements imposed by the new environment even if they differ from the organization's current policies. What should be the INITIAL response to Intrusion Detection System/Intrusion Prevention System (IDS/IPS) alerts? Ensure that the Incident Response Plan is available and current. Determine the traffic's initial source and block the appropriate port. Disable or disconnect suspected target and source systems. Verify the threat and determine the scope of the attack. The BEST way to check for good security programming practices, as well as auditing for possible backdoors, is to conduct log auditing. code reviews. impact assessments. static analysis. A practice that permits the owner of a data object to grant other users access to that object would usually provide Mandatory Access Control (MAC). owner-administered control. owner-dependent access control. Discretionary Access Control (DAC). Which of the following is ensured when hashing files during chain of custody handling? Availability Accountability Integrity Non-repudiation. In Disaster Recovery (DR) and business continuity training, which BEST describes a functional drill? A full-scale simulation of an emergency and the subsequent response functions A specific test by response teams of individual emergency response functions A functional evacuation of personnel An activation of the backup site. The type of authorized interactions a subject can have with an object is control. permission. procedure. protocol. Which of the following is a potential risk when a program runs in privileged mode? It may serve to create unnecessary code complexity It may not enforce job separation duties It may create unnecessary application hardening It may allow malicious code to be inserted. The use of strong authentication, the encryption of Personally Identifiable Information (PII) on database servers, application security reviews, and the encryption of data transmitted across networks provide data integrity. defense in depth. data availability. non-repudiation. Which of the following is an appropriate source for test data? Production data that is secured and maintained only in the production environment. Test data that has no similarities to production datA. Test data that is mirrored and kept up-to-date with production datA. Production data that has been sanitized before loading into a test environment. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when storing and processing Personally Identifiable Information (PII)? Encrypt and hash all PII to avoid disclosure and tampering. Store PII for no more than one year. Avoid storing PII in a Cloud Service Provider. Adherence to collection limitation laws and regulations. In a financial institution, who has the responsibility for assigning the classification to a piece of information? Chief Financial Officer (CFO) Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) Originator or nominated owner of the information Department head responsible for ensuring the protection of the information. The process of mutual authentication involves a computer system authenticating a user and authenticating the user to the audit process. computer system to the user. user's access to all authorized objects. computer system to the audit process. When implementing controls in a heterogeneous end-point network for an organization, it is critical that hosts are able to establish network communications. users can make modifications to their security software configurations. common software security components be implemented across all hosts. firewalls running on each host are fully customizable by the user. Which of the following is a security feature of Global Systems for Mobile Communications (GSM)? It uses a Subscriber Identity Module (SIM) for authentication. It uses encrypting techniques for all communications. The radio spectrum is divided with multiple frequency carriers. The signal is difficult to read as it provides end-to-end encryption. Which of the following does the Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) provide? Authorization and integrity Availability and integrity Integrity and confidentiality Authorization and confidentiality. What maintenance activity is responsible for defining, implementing, and testing updates to application systems? Program change control Regression testing Export exception control User acceptance testing. Which of the following is the FIRST action that a system administrator should take when it is revealed during a penetration test that everyone in an organization has unauthorized access to a server holding sensitive data? Immediately document the finding and report to senior management. Use system privileges to alter the permissions to secure the server Continue the testing to its completion and then inform IT management Terminate the penetration test and pass the finding to the server management team. Which one of these risk factors would be the LEAST important consideration in choosing a building site for a new computer facility? Vulnerability to crime Adjacent buildings and businesses Proximity to an airline flight path Vulnerability to natural disasters. Which of the following is the MAIN reason that system re-certification and re-accreditation are needed? To assist data owners in making future sensitivity and criticality determinations To assure the software development team that all security issues have been addressed To verify that security protection remains acceptable to the organizational security policy To help the security team accept or reject new systems for implementation and production. The stringency of an Information Technology (IT) security assessment will be determined by the system's past security record. size of the system's database. sensitivity of the system's datA. age of the system. Following the completion of a network security assessment, which of the following can BEST be demonstrated? The effectiveness of controls can be accurately measured A penetration test of the network will fail The network is compliant to industry standards All unpatched vulnerabilities have been identified. What is the MOST effective countermeasure to a malicious code attack against a mobile system? Sandbox Change control Memory management Public-Key Infrastructure (PKI). Which of the following statements is TRUE of black box testing? Only the functional specifications are known to the test planner. Only the source code and the design documents are known to the test planner. Only the source code and functional specifications are known to the test planner. Only the design documents and the functional specifications are known to the test planner. Why MUST a Kerberos server be well protected from unauthorized access? It contains the keys of all clients. It always operates at root privilege. It contains all the tickets for services. It contains the Internet Protocol (IP) address of all network entities. An internal Service Level Agreement (SLA) covering security is signed by senior managers and is in place. When should compliance to the SLA be reviewed to ensure that a good security posture is being delivered? As part of the SLA renewal process Prior to a planned security audit Immediately after a security breach At regularly scheduled meetings. The FIRST step in building a firewall is to assign the roles and responsibilities of the firewall administrators. define the intended audience who will read the firewall policy. identify mechanisms to encourage compliance with the policy. perform a risk analysis to identify issues to be addressed. Which one of the following is a fundamental objective in handling an incident? To restore control of the affected systems To confiscate the suspect's computers To prosecute the attacker To perform full backups of the system. Internet Protocol (IP) source address spoofing is used to defeat address-based authentication. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP). Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP). Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) hijacking. When transmitting information over public networks, the decision to encrypt it should be based on the estimated monetary value of the information. whether there are transient nodes relaying the transmission. the level of confidentiality of the information. the volume of the information. Which of the following is a method used to prevent Structured Query Language (SQL) injection attacks? Data compression Data classification Data warehousing Data validation. Which of the following is an effective method for avoiding magnetic media data remanence? Degaussing Encryption Data Loss Prevention (DLP) Authentication. What is the FIRST step in developing a security test and its evaluation? Determine testing methods Develop testing procedures Identify all applicable security requirements Identify people, processes, and products not in compliance. Multi-threaded applications are more at risk than single-threaded applications to race conditions. virus infection. packet sniffing. database injection. What is the term commonly used to refer to a technique of authenticating one machine to another by forging packets from a trusted source? Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) attack Smurfing Session redirect Spoofing. Including a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) in the design of a computer system is an example of a technique to what? Interface with the Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) Improve the quality of security software Prevent Denial of Service (DoS) attacks Establish a secure initial state. Which of the following is considered best practice for preventing e-mail spoofing? Spam filtering Cryptographic signature Uniform Resource Locator (URL) filtering Reverse Domain Name Service (DNS) lookup. The key benefits of a signed and encrypted e-mail include confidentiality, authentication, and authorization. confidentiality, non-repudiation, and authentication non-repudiation, authorization, and authentication. non-repudiation, confidentiality, and authorization. As one component of a physical security system, an Electronic Access Control (EAC) token is BEST known for its ability to overcome the problems of key assignments. monitor the opening of windows and doors. trigger alarms when intruders are detected. lock down a facility during an emergency. An auditor carrying out a compliance audit requests passwords that are encrypted in the system to verify that the passwords are compliant with policy. Which of the following is the BEST response to the auditor? Provide the encrypted passwords and analysis tools to the auditor for analysis. Analyze the encrypted passwords for the auditor and show them the results. Demonstrate that non-compliant passwords cannot be created in the system. Demonstrate that non-compliant passwords cannot be encrypted in the system. Which of the following would be the FIRST step to take when implementing a patch management program? Perform automatic deployment of patches. Monitor for vulnerabilities and threats. Prioritize vulnerability remediation. Create a system inventory. The Hardware Abstraction Layer (HAL) is implemented in the system software. system hardware. application software. network hardware.

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