Macau Airlaw
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![]() Macau Airlaw Description: Macau Airlaw 2026 |



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The maximum flying time permitted under the law is: 100 hours during a period of a 28 consecutive days. 100 hours during a period of one month. 1500 hours during one single year. 1200 hours during 12 consecutive months. A license holder who suffers an injury making him incapable of undertaking his license should inform the AACM. This should be done: Within 14 days. When 20 days have elapsed. ASAP. When 30 days have elapsed. The privileges of the holder of ATPL A320 command is: To act as pilot-in-command in airplanes in air transportation. To act as pilot-in-command in A320, and co-pilot in any air transportation. To act as pilot-in-command and co-pilot in A320 in any air transportation. To act as pilot-in-command and co-pilot in airplanes in charter operations. What is the minimum requirement for a public transport aircraft to be equipped with … ELT?. When airplane on flights over designated land areas. When airplane operated over water 400NM away from land suitable for an emergency landing. When airplane with more than 250 seats and condition A. When airplane with more than 250 seats and condition B. In a class B airspace, the aircraft separation provided by ATC service are: IFR from IFR only. IFR from IFR, and IFR from VFR. All aircrafts. None of above. A passenger who is Drunk: Shall be refused the permission to board the aircraft. Shall be permitted on board only if accompanied by a companion who would undertake... Shall be permitted on board only if PIC was notified. Shall be refused the permission to board the aircraft if the flight is more than 3 hrs. A flight plan delay message must be sent after a delay of: 1 hour. 15 minutes. 30 minutes. 2 hours. EAT is the time an aircraft: Is expected to join the hold. Is expected to leave the hold and commence its approach. Is expected to land. Is expected to leave the last holding point before destination. The INCERFA phase exists when: No communication as been received from an aircraft within a period of 30mn after the last notified …. An aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to land within 5mn of the estimated time of landing. An aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to land within 30mn of the estimated time of landing. The fuel on board is considered to be exhausted or insufficient to insure the aircraft to reach safety. Regarding the signals for aerodrome traffic, the meaning of steady red light to an aircraft in flight is: Aerodrome unsafe do not land. Cleared to land. Give way to other aircraft and continue circling. Land at this aerodrome and proceed to apron. In the signal areas of an aerodrome, a red square with a single yellow diagonal strip means: Do not Land. Landing are prohibited. Take special care when landing because of the poor state of the maneuvering area. Special precaution are necessary when approaching or landing. Rest period is: Total hours of sleep before making a flight. The total time a flight crew is on ground before making a flight. The time when a flight crew is not performing his flight duty. A period of time before starting on Flight Duty period which is designed to give crew members adequate opportunity to rest before a flight. A control zone extends from: The upper limit of the control area (CTA) to a specified altitude or flight level. The surface to the lower limit of the control area within which it is located. The upper limit of the air traffic zone (ATZ) to the lower limit of the CTA within which it is located. The surface to the transition altitude of the aerodrome in which it is located. The lowest cruising level for which oxygen must be provided for flight crew and all passengers in an unpressurized aircraft is: FL100. FL110. FL120. FL140. Who is responsible to keep the AFM current: The operator. The commander. The owner. The Contracting State. For an aircraft being registered in Macau, having a flight for the purpose of public transport and being on an international air navigation. What are the minimum documents that need to be carried on board? A Radio Station License, B CofA, C FC Licences, D Copy of Certificate of Maintenance review, E Copy of L Sheet, F Technical Log, G certif. of Registration, H Ops Manual, I Intercept and Visual signs, J Copy of AOC. ABCFG. ABCEFIJ. ABCGIJ. ABCDEFGHI and J. Aircraft A with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft B has no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which as the right of way?. Aircraft B if A is on its left. Aircraft A if B is on its right. Aircraft B regardless of the direction of A is approaching. Aircraft A regardless of the direction of B is approaching. In order to comply with Instruments Flight Rules an aircraft shall not fly at a height of less than ______ above the highest obstacle within a distance of_____: 1000 Ft, 5NM. 1000 Ft, 10NM. 1500 Ft, 5NM. 1500 Ft, 10NM. A public transport aircraft with 245 seats departs on a flight with a load of 136 passengers. The number of flights attendant required is: 3. 6. 10. 5. When must the SSR transponder be operated?. At all times unless instructed by ATC. At your discretion regardless of ATC instructions. Always. Mode A always, mode C at pilot discretion. During descent to land, you note another aircraft climbing towards you on a reciprocal track and that appears to be a danger of collision. What should you do?. Level off until the other aircraft has passed underneath. Alter heading to the right. Maintain heading and level out at a VFR cruising speed. Increase the rate of descent so as to pass underneath to other aircraft. The height of the airfield is determined by: The highest point on the landing area. The lowest point on the maneuvering area. The highest point of the runway mostly in use. The average height of the runway mostly in use. An aircraft is permitted to fly with an inoperative item if it is: A minor item which does not affect the aircraft ‘s airworthiness. Listed in the MMEL. Listed in the MEL and meet the conditions specified. Not required for the particular flight. You are the PIC of Macau registered A/C with 2 power units and MTWA over 5700kg and with 150 passengers on board. You shall not fly unless at any point along the route their will not be: More than 30 min flying time at normal cruise speed from the nearest aerodrome. More than 60 min flying time at OEI cruise speed from the nearest aerodrome. More than 120 mn flying time at OEI cruise speed from the nearest aerodrome. More than 60 NM from the nearest aerodrome. Which of the following action should be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track: If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for ATC instruction. Notify ATC with the new track immediately and comply with instructions. Inform the ATC unit immediately. Adjust the heading of the aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable. What as the most effect on the design on an instrument departure procedure: ATC requirements. Terrain surrounding the aerodrome. Location of navigational aids. Airspace restrictions. The SSR codes for an Emergency, Hijacking; and Radio Failure are: 7500, 7600 and 7400 respectively. 7700, 7500 and 7600 respectively. 7400, 7500 and 7600 respectively. 7500, 7600 and 7800 respectively. An aircraft flying on airways is instructed to hold on an en route reporting point. The correct holding procedure is: A RH Hold Perpendicular to the airway centerline. A RH Hold Aligned to the airway centerline. A LH Hold Aligned to the airway centerline. A LH Hold Perpendicular to the airway centerline. An aircraft flying for the purpose of public transport at night, which equipment is not mandatory: One electric torch for every member of the flight crew of the aircraft. Electric lighting system to provide illumination in every passenger compartment. Landing lights consisting of one dual filaments lamp with separated energized filaments. Landing lights consisting of two single filaments lamps with separately energized filaments. About the take off alternate: Shall be specified in the operational flight plan. Shall be specified in the company flight plan. Shall always be within 1 hour of flight. A+B. Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft "YOU MAY PROCEED": Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft. Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft. Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern. Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights.. If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descend shall be made so as to : pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude. follow approximately 50 feet above the nominal glide path. pass the fix at the rate of descent of 500 feet/min, which is obligatory. leave the intermediate approach altitude, step by step until reaching the MAPt. When, in air space where VFR are permitted, the pilot in command of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight in accordance with visual flight rules, until the destination is reached: 1 He must inform the control unit ("Cancelling my IFR Flight") 2 He must request and obtain clearance 3 He may request his IFR flight plan to be changed to a VFR flight plan. 4 The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight plan. The correct combination of statements is. 1 and 4. 2 and 3. 2 and 4. 1 and 3. To indicate the existence of a fuel emergency to ATC a pilot should: Request “fuel priority”. Report “fuel emergency”. Report “fuel stat low”. Declare a MAYDAY if an emergency or PAN if urgent. On an IFR flight in airspace Class D, you receive traffic information from ATC that a VFR flight is going to cross track from right to left. Who as the right way?. ATC decides who as the right of way and issues appropriate instructions. ATC … VFR flights from IFR flights in airspace Class D. The VFR traffic has the right of way. The IFR traffic. Flight duty period is the time when the flight crew member: Is on board the A/C to the end of the completed flight. Commence duty, to subsequent to a rest period and prior of making a flight to the moment completely retrieved of all duties and completed the flights. Perform its flight duties from T/O to the time the A/C comes to a complete stop. Start A/C to A/C shut down. On an instrument approach part of the procedure enables the aircraft to return inbound from outbound. This is Called: Base turn. Reversal procedure. Procedure turn. Racetrack. If a green flashing light directed from an aerodrome to an aircraft in flight, it means: Do not land wait for permission. Land at this aerodrome after receiving continuous green light, and proceed to apron. You may land. Return to the aerodrome wait for the permission to approach and land. You are the PIC of Macau registered A/C with 2 power units and MTWA over 5700kg and with 150 passengers on board. You shall not fly unless at any point along the rout their will not be: More than 30 mn flying time at normal cruise speed from the nearest aerodrome. More than 60 mn flying time at OEI cruise speed from the nearest aerodrome. More than 120 mn flying time at OEI cruise speed from the nearest aerodrome. More than 60 NM from the nearest aerodrome. It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual maneuvering (circling) area outside the final approach and missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the published procedure: Permits circling only in VMC. Recommends not to perform circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists. Prohibits the circling approach to the affected runway. Prohibits circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists. Under what situation are all passengers in a Macau registered public transport aircraft required to be given a demonstration of the method of use of the life jackets before take-off?. For all flights. A flight in an aircraft which is not a sea plane but fly over water. A flight in an aircraft which is not a sea plane but fly over water over 30mn to the nearest land. A flight in an aircraft which is not a sea plane but fly over water over 60mn to the nearest land. IFR clearance is always valid: To the clearance limit. For a maximum period of 5 minutes. For a maximum period of 30 minutes. Until landing at the destination airfield. If during descent to an airfield, the broadcast RVR is less than the specified minima the aircraft must not descend below: 500 ft. 1000 ft. MSA of the Airfield. MDA of the Airfield. About the take off alternate: Shall be specified in the operational flight plan. Shall be specified in the company flight plan. Shall always be within 1 hour of flight. A+B. CORRECT PROCEDURE FOR AIRCRAFT IN DISTRESS?. Squawk 7600, mayday, mayday, mayday on ATC frequency and on 121.50 emergency frequency. Squawk 7700, mayday, mayday, mayday on ATC frequency and on 121.50 emergency frequency. Squawk 7500, mayday, mayday, mayday on ATC frequency and on 121.50 emergency frequency. Squawk 7700, mayday, mayday, mayday on ATC frequency and on 120.50 emergency frequency. A pilot license shall be deemed to be suspended if the license holder suffers any personal injury involving incapacity to undertaken the functions to which his/her license. The suspension of the license shall cease: Upon the holder having recovered from such injury. Upon the holder being medically examined and pronounced fit by an Aviation Medical Examiner. Upon the holder being able to passed flight test. Both B and C are correct. During descent to land, you note another aircraft climbing towards you on a reciprocal track and that appears to be a danger of collision. What should you do?. Level off until the other aircraft has passed underneath. Maintain heading and level out at a VFR cruising speed. Increase the rate of descent so as to pass underneath to other aircraft. Alter heading to the right. While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of red flashes. The signals means that the aircraft: Must Stop. Must return to point of departure. Must vacate the landing area in use. May continue to taxi to take off area. What is a horizontal white dumb-bell marking in an aerodrome signal area means?. Aerodrome completely unserviceable. Use only hard surface movement areas. Gliding operation in progress. Aerodrome is unsafe. TODA=. TORA. TORA plus the stopway and the clearway. TORA plus the stopway. TORA plus the clearway. The IFR cruising altitude if in uncontrolled airspace should be given as Flight Level: When the QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1013. Whenever the altitude clearance is Higher than 3000 ft. If in class A only. If above Transition altitude. What is an area identified by the term stopway?. An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff. An area, not necessarily as wide as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. An area, not necessarily as wide as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during an aborted takeoff. A pressurized aircraft flying above FL250 must have enough oxygen to supply for ______ if the cabin pressure exceeds 15,000 ft: 10% of the passengers. 30% of the passengers. 50% of the passengers. All Passengers. The marshalling signal “Move extended arms downward in a “patting” gesture, moving wands up and down from waist to knees” means: Slow down. Turn to port. Chocks inserted. Cut engine(s). FLIGHT TIME REQUIRED FOR INSTRUMENT RATING?. The applicant shall hold a private or CPL – Airplanes. The applicant shall hold not less than 50 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot in command of which not less than 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes. The applicant must have 40 hours of instrument flight time in Aeroplanes of which not more than 20 hours or 30 hours where a flight simulator is used under supervision of an authorized ground instructor. All correct. FLIGHT TIME REQUIRED FOR INSTRUMENT RATING REVALIDATION?. A minimum of 6 hours of instrument flight time within the preceding 90 days. A minimum of 10 hours of instrument flight time within the preceding 90 days. A minimum of 6 hours of instrument flight time within the preceding 60 days. A minimum of 10 hours of instrument flight time within the preceding 60 days. FLIGHT TIME REQUIRED FOR REVALIDATION OF ATPL?. 12 hours within 6 months and 6 hours of instruments on the last 90 days. The recent experience shall be considered, or a minimum of 12 hours of flight time within the preceding 6 months and 6 hours of instrument flight time within the preceding 90 days of revalidation. 10 hours within 6 months and 6 hours of instruments on the last 90 days. The recent experience shall be considered, or a minimum of 12 hours of flight time within the preceding 6 months and 6 hours of instrument flight time within the preceding 90 days of revalidation. 12 hours within 12 months and 6 hours of instruments on the last 90 days. The recent experience shall be considered, or a minimum of 12 hours of flight time within the preceding 6 months and 6 hours of instrument flight time within the preceding 90 days of revalidation. 75 hours within 6 months and 6 hours of instruments on the last 90 days. The recent experience shall be considered, or a minimum of 12 hours of flight time within the preceding 6 months and 6 hours of instrument flight time within the preceding 90 days of revalidation. ANNUAL CHECKS FOR PILOTS?. One annual base check done in aircraft simulator. One check every six months in the type simulator. One annual line check. All correct. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM AIRCRAFT WEIGHT TO REQUIRE 2 PILOTS?. 5.770 Kg. 3.700 Kg. 12.500 Kg. 5.700 Kg. COMMANDER ASSIGNMENT OF PILOTS AT THE CONTROLS DURING TAKE OFF AND LANDING?. Ensure that both pilots will be at the controls all the time except personal needs. The Commander shall cause both pilots to be at the controls of the aircraft. During T.O & LDG. All correct. LIFE VEST BRIEFING?. All flights. More than 30 minutes flying time to nearest land beyond gliding distance to land. During take off and landing, if the aircraft would forced to land in water in an emergency. All correct. MAXIMUM FLIGHT LEVEL FOR UNPRESSURIZED FLIGHT AND OXYGEN SUPPLY FOR CREW AND PASSENGERS?. 18 000 ft. 14 000 ft. 10 000 ft. 12 000 ft. THE LOWEST CRUISING LEVEL FOR WHICH OXYGEN MUST BE PROVIDED FOR FLIGHT CREW AND ALL PASSENGERS IN AN UNPRESSURIZED AIRCRAFT IS?. FL120. FL140. FL100. FL180. TRANPORTATION OF DANGEREOUS GOODS ?. In accordance with regulation of AACM. With written permission of AACM. With consent of the operator. All of the Above. NUMBER OF FIRE EXTINGUISHERS REQUIRED?. One in pilot’s compartment. One in each passenger compartment. At least one in the pilot’s compartment and one in each passenger compartment. One in each cargo compartment. IFR MINIMUM HEIGHTS IN CONTROLLED AIRSPACE?. Mountainous area = 2.000 feet at 8 km (5nm) of the highest obstacle. Elsewhere ----------= 1.000 feet at 8 km (5nm) of the highest obstacle. Mountainous area = 1.000 feet at 8 km (5nm) of the highest obstacle. Elsewhere ----------= 1.000 feet at 8 km (5nm) of the highest obstacle. Mountainous area = 2.000 feet at 12 km (8 nm) of the highest obstacle. Elsewhere ----------= 1.000 feet at 8 km (5nm) of the highest obstacle. Mountainous area = 2.000 feet at 12 km (8nm) of the highest obstacle. Elsewhere ----------= 1.500 feet at 8 km (5nm) of the highest obstacle. MINIMUM ALTITUDE ABOVE A CAR (MOBILE OBJECT) ?. Above 150 meters (500 feet) over any mobile obstacle. Above 500 meters (1500 feet) over any mobile obstacle. Above 200 meters (800 feet) over any mobile obstacle. Above 100 meters (300 feet) over any mobile obstacle. IFR VERTICAL AND HORIZONTAL SEPARATION FROM OTHER AIRCRAFT?. 2.000 feet below FL 290 and 2.000 feet above FL 290 and the horizontal separation under SSR radar is 5 nm. 1.000 feet below FL 290 and 2.000 feet above FL 290 and the horizontal separation under SSR radar is 5 nm. 3.000 feet below FL 290 and 2.000 feet above FL 290 and the horizontal separation under SSR radar is 5 nm. 1.500 feet below FL 290 and 2.000 feet above FL 290 and the horizontal separation under SSR radar is 5 nm. IFR CARDINAL ALTITUDES ON A TRACK BETWEEN 000 DEGREES TO 179 DEGREES?. Evens thousands below FL 145. Odds thousands below FL 145. Evens thousands below FL 290. Odds thousands below FL 290. IFR CARDINAL ALTITUDES ON A TRACK BETWEEN 180 DEGREES TO 359 DEGREES?. Even thousands below FL 290. Even thousands below FL 145. Odds thousands below FL 290. Odds thousands below FL 145. AERODROME SIGNALS FLASHING WHITE TO AIRCRAFT ON THE GROUND?. Return to the starting point on the aerodrome. Circle to land. Proceed to taxiway. Return to holding point. WHEN AIRCRAFT CATEGORIES DETERMINATION IS 1.3 OF VAT, GIVE THE VAT DEFINITION. VAT is the speed at 35 feet over the threshold based upon 1.3 times the stall speed in the approach configuration at maximum certified landing mass or weight. VAT is the speed at 50 feet over the threshold based upon 1.3 times the stall speed in the approach configuration at maximum certified landing mass or weight. VAT is the speed at 35 feet over the threshold based upon 1.3 times the stall speed in the landing configuration at maximum certified landing mass or weight. VAT is the speed at 50 feet over the threshold based upon 1.3 times the stall speed in the landing configuration at maximum certified landing mass or weight. DEFINE EXPECTED APPROACH TIME (ESTIMATED APPROACH TIME)?. Is expected to join the hold. Is expected to leave the hold and commence its approach. is expected to land. Is expected to leave the last en-route holding point before destination. MINIMUM OVER CONGESTED AREA ?. 2.500 feet in 600 meters (2000 feet). 1.500 feet in 600 meters (2000 feet). 1.500 feet in 300 meters (1000 feet). 2.500 feet in 800 meters (3500 feet). FOLLOING AN AIRPROX INCIDENT A REPORT SHOULD BE MADE: Within 24 hours. Within 7 days. Immediately after land. Immediately by radio. FLYING UNDER SSR RADAR CONTROL WHAT ARE THE MINIMUM SEPARATION IN FLIGHT?. 5 nm. 8 nm. 10 nm. 12 nm. HOW MANY TIMES A YEAR THE PILOTS MUST PRACTICE THE “EMERGENCY PROCEDURES. 2 times a year, one of them in flight simulator. 1 time in two years. 1 time in 12 months. 2 times a year. THE HEIGHT OF THE AIRFIELD IS DETERMINATED BY: The highest point on the airfield. The highest point on the runway. The lowest point on the manoeuvring area. The highest point on the landing area. ANY AIRCRAFT SHALL NOT FLY NEAR OR OVER PERSONAL OR VESSEL CLOSER THAN: 1500 feet. 500 feet. 2000 feet. 3000 feet. The take-off distance available at an airfield is made up of: The take-off run available plus the stop way. The take-off run available. The take-off run available plus the stop way plus the clearway. The take-off run available plus the clearway. Marshall sign, right arm down, left arm repeated upward and rearward. Turn left. Turn right. Stop. Slow down. Red Pyro light or flare, what means?. Give way to the other traffic and remain on circuit. Go away, do not land regardless of previous clearance. Happy new year. None of the above. A public transport aircraft with 245 seats departs on a flight with a passenger load of 136. The number of flight attendants required is: 4.8. 2. 5. 6. A flight plan delay message must be sent after a delay of: 1 hour. 15 minutes. 30 minutes. 2 hours. The controlling authority for a TMA is usually: The ATC unit for the main airfield in the TMA. The ATCC for the FIR/UIR. The zone controller. The ATC for the airfield directly beneath the TMA. Runway visual range is reported when it falls below: 800 m. 1000 m. 1500 m. 1200 m. What flights are protected by the Prevention of Terrorism Act. Public transport flights only. Private flights only. All flights. Military flights only. An Instrument Rating Test is valid before renewal for: 13 months. 6 months. 12 months. 2 years. The captain of a public transport aircraft must ensure that passenger seat belts are secure for: Take-off and landing. Take-off, landing and turbulence. Take-off, landing, taxiing, turbulence & in emergencies. Take-off, landing, taxiing & turbulence. While flying at night another aircraft reports that you are on a relative bearing of 100 degrees from him. You should see his: Red navigation light. White navigation light. Green & white navigation lights. Green navigation light. A pre-flight altimeter check should be carried out: At the holding point. At the runway threshold. On the apron. On the manoeuvring area. A light aircraft taking off from an intermediate position on the runway after a heavy aircraft requires a wake vortex separation of: 3 minutes. 2 minutes. 5 nm. 4 nm. Airways normally have a lower limit that is at least: 3000 ft amsl. 3000 ft agl. FL 40. FL 30. In the airfield Circuit the “finals” call is made when: After completion of the turn on to final approach and not more than 4 nm from the runway. When making a straight-in approach at 6 nm range. Abeam the upwind threshold of the runway. On completion of the turn on to base leg. A public transport aircraft shall not take-off unless the following minima for the departure airfield are satisfactory: Cloud base and visibility. Cloud base and RVR. Cloud ceiling and RVR. MDH and RVR. An aircraft Captain should transmit special aircraft observations when he encounters: Severe turbulence or icing. Moderate turbulence, hail or CB clouds during supersonic or transonic flight. Other conditions that the Captain considers may affect the safety of other aircraft. All the above. On a public transport flight in a pressurized aircraft passengers must be briefed on the use of emergency oxygen: Before take-off. Before climbing through FL 120. Before climbing through FL 100. Before climbing through FL 80. For a flight which requires a load sheet, one copy must be retained for: 7 days. 14 days. 6 months. 1 month. With regard to flight lime limitations, “flight time” means: The time from crew report to 30 minutes after landing. The lime between an aircraft starting to move and coming to a complete stop plus one and a half hours. The time between take-off and landing. The total time from when an aircraft first moves under its own power for the purpose of taking off until it comes to rest after flight. Aerodrome fire and rescue category is based on: Length and weight of aircraft. Length and width of aircraft. Fuel load and passenger capacity of aircraft. Fuel load and maximum take-off weight of aircraft. The correct procedure for an aircraft in distress is to: Call on the area emergency frequency. Wait until someone calls the aircraft first. Call on 121.5 straight away. First call on the frequency in use once, if no contact on 121.5. Incase you pass your exam. Which of the following actions would you consider?. Celebrate with friends at OTT?. Celebrate in the Hotel?. WhatsApp Marnus and thank him, send any corrections or addition and maybe buy him a coffee?. Walk away and tell no one. |





