Networking

Which type of network tecnology lets ou see the actual location of intermediary devices and cable installation_. Physical topology. Logical topology.

When data is ecoded ad pulses of light, which media is being used to transmit the data?. Fiber-optic cable. Wireless. Copper cable.

Which two deices are intermediary devices? (Choose two). Servers. Switches. Hosts. Routers.

Which connection physicallu connects the end device to the network?. Interface. Port. NIC.

Which connections are specialized ports on a networking device that connect to individual networks?. NIC. Interface. Port.

Which type of network topology lets you see which end devices are connected to which intermediary devices and what media is being used?. Logical topology. Physical topology.

Which type of network topology lets tou see the actual location of intermediary devices and cable installation?. Physical topology. Logical topology.

Which network infrastructure provides access and end device in a small geographical area, which is typically a network in a department in an enterprise, a home, or small business?. WAN. Intranet. LAN. Extranet.

Which network infrastructure might an organization use to provide secure and safe access to individuals who work for a different organization but require access to the organization's data?. Intranet. WAN. Extranet. LAN.

Which network infrastructure provide access to other networks over a large geographical area, which is often owned and managed by a telecommunications service provide?. WAN. LAN. Extranet. Intranet.

When designers follow accepted standards and protocols, which of the four basic characteristics of network architecture is achieved?. QoS. Security. Scalability. Fault tolerance.

Confidentiality, integrity, and scalability are requirements of which of the four basic characteristics of network architecture?. Scalability. QoS. Fault tolerance. Security.

With which type of policy, a router can manage the flow of data and voice traffic, giving priority to voice communications if the network experiences congestion?. Scalability. QoS. Security. Fault tolerance.

Having multiple paths to a destination is known as redundancy. This is a example of which characteristic of network architetture?. Security. Fault tolerance. Scalability. Qos.

Which feature is a good conferencing tool to use with others who are located elsewhere in your city, or even in another country?. Cloud computing. BYOD. Video communications.

Which feature describes using personal tools to access information and communicate across a business or campus network?. BYOD. Cloud computing. Video communications.

Which feature contains options such as Public, Private, Custom and Hybrid?. Video communications. Cloud computing. BYOD.

Which feature is being used when connecting a device to the network using an electrical outlet?. Smart home tecnology. Powerline. Wireless broadband.

Which feature uses the same cellular technology as a smartphone?. Wireless broadband. Smart home technology. Powerline.

Which attack slows down or crashes equipment and programs?. Virus, worm or Trojan horse. Firewall. Virtual Private Network (VPN). Zero-day or Zero-hour. Denial of Service (DoS).

Which option creates a secure connection for remote workers?. Virus, worm or Trojan horse. Firewall. Zero-day or Zero-hour. Deniel of Service (DoS). Virtual Private Network (VPN).

Which option blocks unauthorized access to your network?. Deniel of Service (DoS). Zero-day or Zero-hour. Vitual Private Network (VPN). Firewall. Virus, worm or Trojan horse.

Which option describes a network attack that occurs on the first day that a vulnerability becomes know?. Firewall. Denial of Service (DoS). Virtual Private Network (VPN). Zero-day or Zero-hour. Virus. worm or Trojan horse.

Which options describes malicious code runnng on user devices?. Virtual Private Network (VPN). Firewall. Denial of Service (DoS). Zero-day or Zero-hour. Virus, worm or Trojan horse.

During a routine inspection, a technician discovered that software that was installed on a computer was secretly collecting data about bsites that were visited by users of the computer. Which type of threat is affecting this computer?. Zero-day attacks. Spyware. Identity theft. DoS attack.

Which term refers to a network that provides secure access to the corporate offices by suppliers, customers and collaborators?. Internet. Extranet. Extendednet. Intranet.

A large corporation has modified its network to allow users to access network resources from their personal laptops and smart phones. Which networking trend does this describe?. Online collaboration. Video conferencing. Cloud computing. Bring your own device.

What is an ISP?. It is a standards body that develops cabling and wiring standards for networking. It is a networking device that combines that funcionality of several different networking devices in one. It is a protocol that establishes how computers with a local network communicate. It is an organization that enables individuals and business to connect to the Internet.

In which scenario would the use of WISP be recommended?. An Internet cafe in a city. A farm in a rural area without wired broadband access. Any home multiple wireless devices. An apartment in a building with cabe access to the Internet.

What characteristic of a network enables it to quickly grow to support new users and applications without impacting the performance of the service being delivered to existing users?. Reliability. Scalability. Quality of Service. Accesibility.

A college is building a new dormitory on its campus. Workers are digging in the ground to install a new water pipe for the dormitory. A worker accidentally damages a fiber optic cable that connects two of the existing dormitories to the campus data center. Although the cable has been cut, students in the dormitories only experience a very short interruption of network services. What characteristic of the network is shown here?. Quality of Service (QoS). Scalability. Security. Fault tolerance. Integrity.

What are two characteristics of scalable network? (Choose two). Easily overloaded with increased traffic. Grows in size without impacting existing users. It not as realible as a small network. Suitable for molular devices that allow for expansion. Offers limited number of applications.

Which device performs the function of determining the path that messages should take internetworks?. A router. A firewall. A web server. A DSL modem.

Which two Internet connection options do not require that physical cables be run to the building? (choose two). DSL. Cellular. Satellite. Dialup. Dedicated leased line.

What type of network must a home user in order to do online shopping?. An intranet. The Internet. An extranet. A local area network.

How does BYOD change the way in which business implement networks?. BYOD requires organizations to purchase laptops rather than desktops. BYOD users are responsible for their own network security, thus reducing the need for organizational security policies. BYOOD devices are more expensive that deviced that are purchased by an organization. BYOD provides flexibility in wher and how users can access network resources.

An employee wants to access the network of the organization remotely, in the safest possible way. What network feature would allow an employee to gain secure remote access to a company network?. ACL. IPS. VPN. BYOD.

What is the Internet?. It is a network based on Ethernet technology. It provides network access for mobile devices. It provides connections through interconnected global networks. It is a private network for an organization with LAN and WAN connections.

What are two functions of end devices on a network? (Choose two). They originate the data that flow through the network. The direct data alternate paths in the event of link failures. The filter the flow of datato enhance security. They are the interface between humans and the communication network. They provide the channel over which the network message travels.

Which access method ould be most appropriate if you were in the equipment room with a new switch that needs to be configured?. Aux. Telnet/SSH. Console.

Which access method be most appropriate if your manager gave you a special cable and told you to use it to configure the switch?. Telnet/SSH. Console. Aux.

Which access method would be the most appropriate in-band access to the IOS over a network connection?. Telenet/SSH. Aux. Concole.

Which IOS mode allows access to all commands and features?. Privileged EXEC mode. Glogal configuration mode. User EXEC mode. Interface subconfiguration mode. Line console subconfiguration mode.

Which IOS mode are you in if the Switch(config)# prompt is displayed?. Global configuration mode. User EXEC mode. Interface configuration mode. Privileged EXEC mode. Line console subconfiguration mode.

Which IOS mode are you in if the Switch> prompt is displayed?. User EXEC mode. Privileged EXEC mode. Line console subconfiguration mode. Interface subconfiguration mode. Global configuration mode.

Which two command would return you to the provileged EXEC prompt regardless of the configuration mode you are in? (choose two). disable. Cltr+Z. exit. end. enable.

What is the command to assign the name "Sw-Floor-2" to a switch?. host name Sw-Floor-2. hostname Sw-Floor-2. name Sw-Floor-2.

How is the privileged EXEC mode access secured on a switch?. enable class. service password-encryption. secret class. enable secret class.

Which command enables password for user EXEC mode access on a switch?. service password-encryption. enable secret. login. secret.

Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords access on a switch?. login. enable secret. service password-encryption. secret.

which is the command to configure a banner to be displayed when connectiong to a switch?. login banner $ keep out $. display $ keep out $. banner $ keep out $. banner motd $ keep out $.

What is the structure of an IPv4 address called?. Dotter-hexadecimal format. Dotted-decimal format. Dotted-binary format.

How is an IPv4 address represented?. Thirthy-two hexadecimal numbers separated by colors. Four decimal numbers beetween 0 and 255 separated by periods. Thirty-two hexadecimal numbers separated by periods. Four binary numbers beetwen 0 and 1 separated by colors.

What type interface has no physical port associated tith it?. Ethenet. Console. Switch virtual interface (SVI). Serial.

Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?. It should be deleted using the erase running-config command. It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified. It is automatically saved when the router reboots. It is stored in NVRAM.

Which tro statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two). Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured. All router commands are available. Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command. The device prompt for this mode ends with > symbol. Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.

Which toe of access is secured on a Cisco router or switch with the enable secret command?. Console line. Privileged EXEC. Virtual terminal. AUX port.

What is the default SVI on a CISCO switch?. VLAN999. VLAN1. VLAN100. VLAN99.

When a hostname is configured through the CISCO CLI, which three naming conversations are part of the guidelines? (Choose three). The hostname should be fewer than 64 characters in length. The hostname should be written in all lower case characters. The hostname should begin with a letter. The hostname should end with a special character. The hostname should contain no spaces.

What is the function of the shell in an OS?. It interacts with the device hardware. It interfaces between the users and the kernel. It provides dedicated fiewall services. It provides the intrusion protection services for the device.

A router with a valid operaing system contains a configuration file stored in NVRAM. The configuration file has an enable secret password but no console password. When the router boots up, which mode will display?. Privileged EXEC mode. Setup mode. Global configuration mode. User EXEC mode.

An administrator has just changed the IP address of an interface on an IOS device. What else must be done in order to apply those changes to the device?. Copy the information in the startup configuration file to the running configuration. Reload the device and type yes when prompted to save the configuration. Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration file. Nothing must be done. Charges to the configuration on an IOS device take effect as the command is typed corectly and the Enter key has been pressed.

Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch will lose all content when the device is restarted?. RAM. ROM. NVRAM. Flash.

Why would a technician enter the command copy startup-config running-config?. To make a changed cconfiguration the new startup configuration. To copy an existing configuration into RAM. To save an active configuration to NVRAM. To remove all configurations from the switch.

Which functionality is provided by DHCP?. Automatic assignment of an IP address to each host. Remote switch management. End-to-end connectivity test. Traslation of IP addresses to domain names.

Which functions are provided to users by the context-sensitive help feature of the Cisco IOS CLI? (Choose two). Displaying a list of all availale commands within the current mode. Determining which option, keyword, or argument is available for the entered command. Allowing the user to complete of an abbreviated command with the TAB key. Providing an error message when a wrong command is submitted. Selecting the best command to accomplish a task.

which memory location on a Cisco router or switch stores the startup configuration file?. RAM. ROM. NVRAM. Flash.

To what subnet does the IP address 10.1.100.50 belong if the subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 is used?. 10.0.0.0. 10.1.100.0. 10.1.100.32. 10.1.0.0.

What is the process of converting information into the proper form for trasmission?. Formatting. Encapsulation. Encoding.

Which step of the communication process is concerned with properly identifying the address of the sender and receiver?. Encapsulation. Encoding. Formatting.

Which three are components of message timing? (Choose three). Retransmit time. Response tmeout. Flow control. Access method. Sequence numbers.

Which delivery method is used to trasmit information to one or more end device, but nont all devices on the network?. Unicast. Broadcast. Multicast.

BGP and OSPF are examble of which type of protocol?. Network security. Network communication. Service discovery. Routing.

Which two protocols are service discovery protocols? (Choose two). TCP. DNS. DHCP. SSH.

What is the purpose of the sequencing function in network communications?. To guarantee delivery of data. To ensure data flows at an efficient rte beween sender and receiver. To determinate if data is corrupted during trasmission. To uniquely label trasmitted segments of data for proper reassembly by the receiver.

This protocol is responsable for guaranteeing the reliable delivery of information. IP. Ethernet. TCP. HTTP.

UDP and TCP belong to which layer of the TCP/IP protocol?. Internet. Application. Transport. Network access.

Which two protocols belong in the TCP/IP model application layer?. EIGRP. ICMP. OSPF. DHCP. DNS.

Which protocol operates at the network access layer of the TCP/IP model?. Ethernet. HTTP. DNS. IP.

Which of the following are protocols that provde feedback from the destintion host to the source host regarding errors in packet delivery?. ICMPv4. IPv4. IPv6. ICMPv6. TCP. UDP.

A device receives a data link frame with data and processes and removes the Ethernet information. What information would be the next to be processed by the receiving device?. UDP at the internet layer. IP at the internet layer. TCP at the transport layer. HTML at the application layer. HTTP at the application layer.

Which services are provided by the internet layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three). Internet Protocol. Address Resolution. Ethernet. File Transfer. Routing Protocols. Messaging.

True or false. Standards organizations are usually vendor-neutral. True. False.

This standards organization is concerned with the Request for Comments (RFC) documents that specify new protocols and update existing ones. Internet Research Task Force (IRTF). Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF). Internet Architetture Board (IAB). Internet Society (ISOC).

What type of standards are developed by the Electronics Industries Alliance (EIA)?. Radio equipment and cell towers. Electric wiring and connectors. Voice over IP (VoIP) and satellite communications. Video compression and broadband communications.

What is the process of dividing a large data stream into smaller pieces prior to trasmission?. Multiplexing. Segmentation. Duplexing. Sequencing.

What in the PDU associated with the transport layer?. Segment. Packet. Frame. Bits.

Which protocols stack layer encaplites data into frames?. Transport. Data link. Network. Application.

What is the name of the process of adding protocol information to data as it moves down the protocol stack?. Sequencing. Segmentation. De-encapsulation. Encapsulation.

True or false? Frames exchanged between devices in different IP networks must be forwarded to a default gateway. True. False.

True or false? The right-most part of an IP address is used to identify the network that a device belongs to. True. False.

What is used to determinate the network portion of an IPv4 address?. Left-most part of the MAC address. Right-most part of the IP address. MAC address. Subnet mask.

Which of the following statements are true regarding network layer and data link layer addresses? (Shoose three). Dta link layer address are physical and network layer addresses are logical. Data link layer addresses are logical and network layer addresses are physical. Network layer addresses are logical and data link addresses are expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits. Dta link layer addresses are 32 bits in length. Network layer addresses are expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits and data link layer addresses are decimal. Network layer addresses are either 32 or 128 bits in length.

What is the order of the two addresses in the data limk frame?. Destination MAC, source IP. Destination IP, source IP. Destination MAC, source MAC. Source IP, destination IP. Source MAC, destination MAC.

True or false? Data link addresses are physical so they never change in the data link rom source to destination. True. False.

Which tree acronyms/initialisms represent standard organizzazions? (Choose three). IANA. MAC. IEEE. OSI. TCP/IP. IETF.

What type of communication will send a message to all devices on a local area network?. Allcast. Broadcast. Multicast. Unicast.

In computer communication, what is the purpose of message encoding?. To convert information to the appropriate form for trasmission. To brak large messages into smaller frames. To negotiate correct timing for successful communication. To interpret information.

Which message delvery option is used when all devices need to receive the same message simultaneously?. Duplex. Broadcast. Unicast. Multicast.

What are two beneficts of using a layered network model? (Choose two). It ensures a device at one layer can function at the next higher layer. It speeds up packet delivery. It prevents technology in one layer from affecting other layers. It prevents designers from creating their own model. It assists in protocol design.

What is the purpose of protocols in data communications?. Specifing the bandwidth of the channel or medium for each type of communication. Providing the rules required for specific type of communication to occur. Specifying the device operating systems that will support the communication. Dictating the content of the message sent during communication.

Which logical address is used for delivery of data to a remote network?. Source MAC address. Destination MAC address. Source IP address. Desination port numer. Destination IP address.

What is the general term that is used to describe a piece of data at any layer of a networking model?. Packet. Protocol data unit. Segment. Frame.

Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Choose two). IP. BOOTP. PPP. ICMP. POP.

Witch layer of the OSI model defines services to segment and reassemble data for individual communications between end devices?. Application. Presentation. Transport. Network. Session.

Which type of communication will send a message to a group of host destinastions simultaneously?. Broadcast. Unicast. Multicast. Anycast.

What process is used to receive transmitted data and convert it into a readable message?. Flow control. Access control. Encapsulation. Decoding.

What is done an IP packet before it is trasmitter over the physical medium?. It is segmented into smaller individual pieces. It is encapsulated in a Layer 2 frame. It is tagger with information guaranteeing reliable delivery. It is encapsulated into a TCP segment.

What process is used to place one message inside another message for transfer from the source to the destination?. Flow control. Access control. Decoding. Encapsulation.

A web client is sending a request for a webpage to a web server. From the perspective of the client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that is used to prepare the request for trasmission?. HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet. Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP. Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP. HTTP, IP, TCP, Ethernet.

What two criteria are used to help select a network medium from various network media? (Choose two.). the number of intermediate devices installed in the network. the environment where the selected medium is to be installed. the cost of the end devices utilized in the network. the distance the selected medium can successfully carry a signal. the types of data that need to be prioritized.

Match the requirements of a reliable network with the supporting network architecture. fault tolerance. sclability. security.

A user is implementing security on a small office network. Which two actions would provide the minimum security requirements for this network? (Choose two). implementing a firewall. adding a dedicated intrusion prevention device. implementing an intrusion detection system. installing antivirus software. installing a wireless network.

Which interface allows remote management of a Layer 2 Switch?. the switch virtual interface. the forst Ethernet port interface. the console port interface. the AUX interface.

Passwords can be used to restrict ccess to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three). Boot IOS mode. Privileged EXEC mode. VTY interface. Ethernet interface. Router configuration mode. Console interface.

Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z. SW1 (config) # enable password letmein SW1 (config) # enable secret secretin SW1 (config) # line console 0 SW1(config-line) # password lineconin SW1 (config-line) # login SW1 (config-line) # exit SW1 (config) # line vty 0 15 SW1 (config-line) # password linevtyin SW1 (config-line) # login SW1 (config-line) # end SW1# Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses a console connection to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?. linevtyin. lineconin. secretin. letmein.

Which two host names follow the guidelines for naming conversations on Cisco IOS devies? (Choose two). RW-3-Switch-2A4. HO Floor 17. Branch2!. Floor(15). SwBranch799.

Inthe show running-config comand, which part of the syntax is represented by running-config?. a prompt. a keyword. the command. a variable.

What are two chatacteristics of RAM on a Cisco device? (Choose two). The contents of RAM are lost during a power cycle. The configuration that is actively running on the device is stored in RAM. RAM is a component in Cisco switches but non in Cisco routers. RAM is able to store multiple version of IOS and configuration files. RAM provides nonvolatile storage.

What command is used to verify the condition of the switch interfaces, including the status of the interfaces and a configured IP address?. ping. traceroute. ipconfig. show ip interface brief.

A technician configures a switch with these commands: SwitchA(config)# interface vlan 1 SwitchA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 SwitchA(config-if)# no shutdown What is the technician configuring?. Telnet access. Password encryption. SVI. Physical switchport access.

How is SSH different from Telnet?. SSH must be configured over an active network connection, whereas Telnet is used to connect to a device from a console connection. SSH provides security to remote sessions by encrypting messages and using user authentication. Telnet is considered insecure and sends messages in plaintext. SSH makes connections over the network, whereas Telnet is for out-of-band access. SSH requires the use of the PuTTY terminal emulation program. Tera Term must be used to connect to devices through the use of Telnet.

After making configuration changes on a Cisco switch, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command. What is the result of issuing this command?. The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file. The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted. The new configuration will be stored in flash memory. The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a command in IOS?. It aborts the current command and returns to configuration mode. It moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line. It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a command. It exits configuration mode and returns to user EXEC mode.

While trying to solve a network issue, a technician made multiple changes to the current router configuration file. The changes did not solve the problem and were not saved. What action can the technician take to discard the changes and work with the file in NVRAM?. Close and reopen the terminal emulation software. Issue the copy startup-config running-config command. Delete the vlan.dat file and reboot the device. Issue the reload command without saving the running configuration.

What command will prevent all unencrypted passwords from displaying in plain text in a configuration file?. (config-line)# password secret. (config)# enable secret Secret_Password. (config)# enable password secret. (config)# service password-encryption. (config)# enable secret Encrypted_Password.

Which statement is correct about network protocols?. Network protocols define the type of hardware that is used and how it is mounted in racks. They define how messages are exchanged between the source and the destination. They are only required for exchange of messages between devices on remote networks. They all function in the network access layer of TCP/IP.

What layer is responsible for routing messages through an internetwork in the TCP/IP model?. transport. internet. session. network access.

At which layer of the OSI model would a logical address be added during encapsulation?. transport layer. physical layer. network layer. data link layer.

What method can be used by two computers to ensure that packets are not dropped because too much data is being sent too quickly?. response timeout. flow control. access method. encapsulation.

RouterA-----RouterB | | SwitchA SwitchB | | HostA HostB Refer to the exhibit. ServerB is attempting to contact HostA. Which two statements correctly identify the addressing that ServerB will generate in the process? (Choose two.). ServerB will generate a packet with the destination IP address of HostA. ServerB will generate a frame with the destination MAC address of RouterB. ServerB will generate a frame with the destination MAC address of SwitchB. ServerB will generate a packet with the destination IP address of RouterA. ServerB will generate a packet with the destination IP address of RouterB. ServerB will generate a frame with the destination MAC address of RouterA.

Which statement accurately describes a TCP/IP encapsulation process when a PC is sending data to the network?. Packets are sent from the network access layer to the transport layer. Data is sent from the internet layer to the network access layer. Segments are sent from the transport layer to the internet layer. Frames are sent from the network access layer to the internet layer.

A web client is receiving a response for a web page from a web server. From the perspective of the client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that is used to decode the received transmission?. Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP. HTTP, Ethernet, IP, TCP. HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet. Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP.

What is an advantage of network devices using open standard protocols?. Competition and innovation are limited to specific types of products. A client host and a server running different operating systems can successfully exchange data. Network communications is confined to data transfers between devices from the same vendor. Internet access can be controlled by a single ISP in each market.

What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three.). DHCP. NAT. DNS. FTP. PPP. ARP.

When IPv4 addressing is manually configured on a web server, which property of the IPv4 configuration identifies the network and host portion for an IPv4 address?. Subnet mask. DHCP server address. Default gateway. DNS server address.

Which name is assigned to the transport layer PDU?. data. packet. frame. bits. segment.

Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?. to enable the switch to function as a default gateway. to enable the switch to send broadcast frames to attached PCs. to enable the switch to receive frames from attached PCs. to enable the switch to be managed remotely.

Which device performs the function of determining the path that messages should take through internetworks?. a DSL modem. a router. a web server. a firewall.

Switch1> config t $ Invalid input detected at '^' marker. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?. The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command. The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode. The entire command, configure terminal, must be used. The administrator is already in global configuration mode.

What term describes a type of network used by people who work from home or from a small remote office?. Intranet. Extranet. Internet. SOHO network.

At which OSI layer is a destination MAC address added to a PDU during the encapsulation process?. transport layer. network layer. application layer. data link layer.

True or false? The physical layer is only concerned with wired network connections. True. False.

True or false? When a frame is encoded by the physical layer, all bits are sent over the media at the same time. True. False.

The physical layer of the receiving device passes bits up to which higher level layer?. Network. Data link. Presentation. Application.

What PDU is received by the physical layer for encoding and transmission?. Segment. Frame. Packet.

Which media uses patterns of microwaves to represent bits?. Copper. Wireless. Fiber-optic.

Which media uses patterns of light to represent bits?. Copper. Wireless. Fiber-optic.

Which media uses electrical pulses to represent bits?. Fiber-optic. Copper. Wireless.

Which of these is the name for the capacity of a medium to carry data?. Bandwidth. Goodput. Throughput.

Which of these is a measure of the transfer of bits across the media?. Bandwidth. Throughput. Goodput.

Which of the following attaches antennas to wireless devices? It can also be bundled with fiber-optic cabling for two-way data transmission. Coaxial. STP. UTP.

Which of the following counters EMI and RFI by using shielding techniques and special connectors?. STP. UTP. Coaxial.

Which of the following is the most common network media?. UTP. Coaxial. STP.

Which of the following terminates with BNC, N type and F type connectors?. STP. Coaxial. UTP.

Which of the following fiber-optic cable types can help data travel approximately 500 meters?. Single-mode. Multimode.

Which of the following fiber-optic cable types use light emitting diodes (LEDs) as a data light source transmitter?. Multimode. Single-mode.

Which of the following fiber-optic cable types use lasers in a single stream as a data light source transmitter?. Single-mode. Multimode.

Which of the following fiber-optic cable types is used to connect long- distance telephony and cable TV applications?. Multimode. Single-mode.

Which of the following fiber-optic cable types can travel approximately 100 km?. Multimode. Single-mode.

Which of the following fiber-optic cable types is used within a campus network?. Multimode. Single-mode.

True or false. Wireless is not well suited for enterprise networks. True. False.

True or false. Wireless LANs operate in full-duplex allowing all devices to send or receive data at the same time so the number of users does not impact performance. False. True.

Which of the following wireless standards is best suited for industrial and loT environments?. Bluetooth. WiMAX. Wi-Fi. Zigbee.

Which of the following wireless standards is used for Personal Area Networks (PANs) and allows devices to communicate over distances of 1 to 100 meters?. Wi-Fi. Zigbee. Bluetooth. WiMAX.

A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a server. Using a tester, the administrator notices that the signals generated by the server NIC are distorted and not usable. In which layer of the OSI model is the error categorized?. Data link layer. Presentation layer. Network layer. Physical layer.

What type of cable is used to connect a workstation serial port to a Cisco router console port?. Crossover. Coaxial. Rollover. Straight-through.

Why are two strands of fiber used for a single fiber optic connection?. The two strands allow the data to travel for longer distances without degrading. They allow for full-duplex connectivity. They prevent crosstalk from causing interference on the connection. They increase the speed at which the data can travel.

Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?. Twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together. Wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding. Avoiding sharp bends during installation. Requiring proper grounding connections. Designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference.

What is one advantage of using fiber optic cabling rather than copper cabling?. It is easier to terminate and install than copper cabling. It is usually cheaper than copper cabling. It is able to be installed around sharp bends. It is able to carry signals much farther than copper cabling.

A network administrator is designing a new network infrastructure that includes both wired and wireless connectivity. Under which situation wouldva wireless connection be recommended?. The end-user device requires a dedicated connection because of performance requirements. The end-user device area has a high concentration of RFI. The end-user device only has an Ethernet NIC. The end-user device needs mobility when connecting to the network.

Which type of UTP cable is used to connect a PC to a switch port?. Rollover. Straight-through. Console. Crossover.

What is the definition of bandwidth?. The amount of data that can flow from one place to another in a given amount of time. The speed at which bits travel on the network. The speed of bits across the media over a given period of time. The measure of usable data transferred over a given period of time.

Which statement correctly describes frame encoding?. It generates the electrical, optical, or wireless signals that represent the binary numbers of the frame. It transmits data signals along with a clock signal which occurs at evenly spaced time durations. It converts bits into a predefined code in order to provide a predictable pattern to help distinguish data bits from control bits. It uses the characteristic of one wave to modify another wave.

What is a characteristic of UTP cabling?. Cancellation. Woven copper braid or metallic foil. Cladding. Immunity to electrical hazards.

A wireless LAN is being deployed inside the new one room office that is occupied by the park ranger. The office is located at the highest part of the national park. After network testing is complete, the technicians report that the wireless LAN signal is occasionally affected by some type of interference. What is a possible cause of the signal distortion?. The large number of trees that surround the office. The elevated location where the wireless LAN was installed. The number of wireless devices that are used in the wireless LAN. The microwave oven.

What is the purpose of the OSI physical layer?. Transmitting bits across the local media. Controlling access to media. Exchanging frames between nodes over physical network media. Performing error detection on received frames.

Which characteristic describes crosstalk?. The loss of wireless signal over excessive distance from the access point. The weakening of the network signal over long cable lengths. The distortion of the network signal from fluorescent lighting. The distortion of the transmitted messages from signals carried in adjacent wires.

What is indicated by the term throughput?. The measure of the usable data transferred across the media. The guaranteed data transfer rate offered by an ISP. The capacity of a particular medium to carry data. The measure of the bits transferred across the media over a given period of time. The time it takes for a message to get from sender to receiver.

Which standards organization oversees development of wireless LAN standards?. ISO. IEEE. TIA. IANA.

Which is the binary equivalent to the 192.168.11.10 IP address?. 11000000.10101000.00001011.00010010. 11000000.10101000.00001011.00001010. 11000000.10101000.00001010.00001011. 11000000.11000000.00001011.00001010.

Which of the following is the binary equivalent to the 172.16.31.30 IP address?. 10101100.00010000.00011110.00011110. 10101100.00010000.00011111.00011110. 11000000.00010000.00011111.00011110. 10101000.00010000.00011111.00011110.

Which is the hexadecimal equivalent of 202?. C10. BA. B10. CA.

Which is the hexadecimal equivalent of 254?. EA. FA. ED. FE.

Which is the decimal equivalent of A9?. 171. 170. 169. 168.

Which of the following is the decimal equivalent of 7D?. 124. 125. 127. 126.

What is the binary representation for the decimal number 173?. 10101101. 10100101. 10100111. 10110101.

Given the binary address of 11101100 00010001 00001100 00001010, which address does this represent in dotted decimal format?. 236.17.12.10. 234.16.12.10. 234.17.10.9. 236.17.12.6.

How many binary bits exist within an IPv6 address?. 32. 256. 64. 128. 48.

What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 232?. 10011000. 11000110. 11110010. 11101000.

Which two statements are correct about IPv4 and IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.). IPv4 addresses are represented by hexadecimal numbers. IPv4 addresses are 128 bits in length. IPv6 addresses are 32 bits in length. IPv6 addresses are represented by hexadecimal numbers. IPv4 addresses are 32 bits in length. IPv6 addresses are 64 bits in length.

Which IPv4 address format was created for ease of use by people and is expressed as 201.192.1.14?. Binary. Hexadecimal. ASCII. Dotted decimal.

What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address 11001011.00000000.01110001.11010011?. 192.0.2.199. 203.0.113.211. 198.51.100.201. 209.165.201.223.

What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 10010101?. 157. 168. 149. 192.

What is the decimal equivalent of the hex number 0x3F?. 77. 93. 87. 63.

What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address which is represented as the binary string 00001010.01100100.00010101.00000001?. 10.100.21.1. 10.10.20.1. 100.10.11.1. 100.21.10.1.

What is the decimal equivalent of 0xC9?. 199. 200. 185. 201.

Which is a valid hexadecimal number?. H. J. F. G.

What is the binary representation of 0xCA?. 11011010. 11001010. 10111010. 11010101.

What is another name for the OSI data link layer?. Layer 1. Layer 6. Layer 3. Layer 2.

The IEEE 802 LAN/MAN data link layer consists of which two sublayers? (Choose two.). Link Control Protocol. Media Access Control. Network Control Protocol. Logical Link Control.

What is the responsibility of the MAC sublayer?. Provides the method to get the frame on and off the media. Communicates with the network layer (Layer 3). Adds Layer 3 addresses to the frame. Transmits the bits on the media.

What Layer 2 function does a router perform? (Choose three.). De-encapsulates the frame. Re-encapsulates the packet into a new frame. Refers to its Layer 3 routing table for a matching destination network. Accepts a frame from a medium.

the media access control method used depends on which two criteria?. Topology. Type of data. Layer 3 IP protocol. Transport layer protocol. Media sharing.

Nhich organization defines standards for the network access layer (i.e., the OSI physical and data link layers)?. IETF. IEEE. Cisco. IANA.

Which topology displays networking device layer IP addresses?. Aerial topology. Physical topology. Logical topology. IP address topology.

What kind of network would use point-to-point, hub and spoke, or mesh topologies?. LAN. PAN. WLAN. WAN.

Which LAN topology is a hybrid topology?. Ring. Star. Extended star. Bus.

Which duplex communication method is used in WLANs?. Half-duplex. Simplex. Full-duplex.

Which media access control method is used in legacy Ethernet LANs?. Carrier sense multiple access/collision annoyance. Carrier sense multiple access/collision avoidance. Carrier sense multiple access/collision detection. Carrier sense multiple access/collision destruction.

What does the data link layer add to a Layer 3 packet to create a frame? (Choose two.). Flags. Sequence number. Header. Trailer.

What is the function of the last field in a data link layer frame?. To determine whether the frame experienced transmission errors. To identify special flow control services such as quality of service (QoS). To identify the beginning and end limits of the frame. To identify the Layer 3 protocol in the data field.

Which lists the Layer 2 and Layer 3 address fields in the correct order?. Destination NIC address, source NIC address, source IP address, destination IP address. Source NIC address, destination NIC address, source IP address, destination IP address. Destination NIC address, source NIC address, destination IP address, source IP address. Source NIC address, destination NIC address, destination IP address, source IP address.

Which of the following are data link layer protocols? (Choose three). 802.11. Ethernet. IP. PPP. UDP.

What identifier is used at the data link layer to uniquely identify an Ethernet device?. IP address. UDP port number. MAC address. Sequence number. TCP port number.

What attribute of a NIC would place it at the data link layer of the OSI model?. Attached Ethernet cable. IP address. RJ-45 port. MAC address. TCP/IP protocol stack.

Which two engineering organizations define open standards and protocols that apply to the data link layer? (Choose two.). Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA). Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE). Internet Society (ISOC). International Telecommunication Union (ITU). Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA).

What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?. The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology. Physical topologies display the IP addressing scheme of each network. Physical topologies are concerned with how anetwork transfers frames. Logical topologies refer to how a network transfers data between devices.

What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?. Token passing. CSMA/CA. CSMA/CD. Priority ordering.

A technician has been asked to develop a physical topology for a network that provides a high level of redundancy. Which physical topology requires that every node is attached to every other node on the network?. Hierarchical. Ring. Bus. Star. Mesh.

Which statement describes the half-duplex mode of data transmission?. Data that is transmitted over the network flows in both directions at the same time. Data that is transmitted over the network flows in one direction to many different destinations simultaneously. Data that is transmitted over the network can only flow in one direction. Data that is transmitted over the network flows in one direction at a time.

Which is a function of the Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer?. To provide data link layer addressing. To accept segments and package them into data units that are called packets. To define the media access processes that are performed by the hardware. To identify which network layer protocol is being used.

Which data link layer media access control method does Ethernet use with legacy Ethernet hubs?. Token passing. CSMA/CD. Determinism. Turn taking.

What are the two sublayers of the OSI model data link layer? (Choose two.). Internet. MAC. LLC. Transport. Physical. Network access.

Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for specifying the encapsulation method used for specific types of media?. Data link. Physical. Transport. Application.

What type of physical topology can be created by connecting all Ethernet cables to a central device?. Mesh. Bus. Ring. Star.

What are two services performed by the data link layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.). It monitors the Layer 2 communication by building a MAC address table. It provides media access control and performs error detection. It fragments data packets into the MTU size. It accepts Layer 3 packets and encapsulates them into frames. It determines the path to forward packets.

Although CSMA/CD is still a feature of Ethernet, why is it no longer necessary?. The virtually unlimited availability of IPv6 addresses. The development of half-duplex switch operation. The use of CSMA/CA. The use of full-duplex capable Layer 2 switches. The use of Gigabit Ethernet speeds.

Which part of an Ethernet Frame uses a pad to increase the frame field to at least 64 bytes?. Preamble. Data field. Start of Frame Delimiter. EtherType.

Which part of an Ethernet frame detects errors in the frame?. Preamble. Start of Frame Delimiter. Frame Check Sequence.

Which part of an Ethernet Frame describes the higher-layer protocol that is encapsulated?. Frame Check Sequence. Start of Frame Delimiter. Ether Type. Preamble.

Which part of an Ethernet Frame notifies the receiver to get ready for a new frame?. Frame Check Sequence. Start of Frame Delimiter. Preamble. Data field.

Which data link sublayer controls the network interface through software drivers?. MAC. LLC.

Which data link sublayer works with the upper layers to add application information for delivery of data to higher level protocols?. LLC. MAC.

What is a function of the MAC sublayer? (Choose three.). Allows multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media. Communicates between software at the upper layers and the device hardware at the lower layers. Uses CSMA/CD or CSMA/CA to support Ethernet technology. Checks for errors in received bits. Controls access to the media.

What are two methods for switching data between ports on a switch? (Choose two.). Cut-off switching. Cut-through switching. Store-and-restore switching. Store-and-supply switching. Store-and-forward switching.

Which switching method can be implemented using fast-forward switching or fragment-free switching?. Store-and-forward switching. Store-and-restore switching. Cut-off switching. Cut-through switching.

Which two types of memory buffering techniques are used by switches? (Choose two.). Port-based memory buffering. Short-term memory buffering. Long-term memory buffering. Shared memory buffering.

What feature automatically negotiates the best speed and duplex setting between interconnecting devices?. Autobots. Autonegotiation. Autotune. Auto-MDIX.

Which two characteristics describe Ethernet technology? (Choose two.). It is supported by IEEE 802.3 standards. It uses a ring topology. It typically uses an average of 16 Mbps for data transfer rates. It uses unique MAC addresses to ensure that data is sent to the appropriate destination. It is supported by IEEE 802.5 standards.

What statement describes a characteristic of MAC addresses?. They must be globally unique. They are added as part of a Layer 3 PDU. They have a 32-bit binary value. They are only routable within the private network.

What is the special value assigned to the first 24 bits of a multicast MAC address transporting an IPv4 packet?. FF-00-5E. 01-00-5E. 01-5E-00. FF-FF-FF.

What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it receives a frame with a unicast destination MAC address that does not match its own MAC address?. It will remove the frame from the media. It will discard the frame. It will strip off the data-link frame to check the destination IP address. It will forward the frame to the next host.

Which network device makes forwarding decisions based on the destination MAC address that is contained in the frame?. Hub. Switch. Router. Repeater.

Which network device has the primary function to send data to a specific destination based on the information found in the MAC address table?. Switch. Modem. Hub. Router.

Which function or operation is performed by the LLC sublayer?. It communicates with upper protocol layers. It adds a header and trailer to a packet to form an OSI Layer 2 PDU. It is responsible for media access control. It performs data encapsulation.

What happens to runt frames received by a Cisco Ethernet switch?. The frame is returned to the originating network device. The frame is sent to the default gateway. The frame is dropped. The frame is broadcast to all other devices on the same network.

What addressing information is recorded by a switch to build its MAC address table?. The source Layer 2 address of incoming frames. The destination Layer 3 address of incoming packets. The destination Layer 2 address of outgoing frames. The source Layer 3 address of outgoing packets.

What is auto-MDIX?. An Ethernet connector type. A feature that detects Ethernet cable type. A type of Cisco switch. A feature to automatically determine speed and duplex.

What type of address is 01-00-5E-0A-00-02?. An address that reaches every host in the network. An address that reaches every host inside a local subnet. An address that reaches one specific host. An address that reaches a specific group of hosts.

Which statement is true about MAC addresses?. A NIC only needs a MAC address if connected to a WAN. The first three bytes are used by the vendor assigned OUI. The ISO is responsible for MAC addresses regulations. MAC addresses are implemented by software.

Which two functions or operations are performed by the MAC sublayer? (Choose two.). It is responsible for Media Access Control. It adds a header and trailer to form an OSI Layer 2 PDU. It handles communication between upper and lower layers. It performs the function of NIC driver software. It adds control information to network protocol layer data.

What are the two sizes (minimum and expected maximum) of an Ethernet frame? (Choose two.). 64 bytes. 128 bytes. 1024 bytes. 1518 bytes. 56 bytes.

What are two characteristics of fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.). It is more expensive than UTP cabling is. Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil. It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding, and twisting to protect data. It is not affected by EMI or RFI. It typically contains 4 pairs of fiber-optic wires.

Which two devices commonly affect wireless networks? (Choose two.). microwaves. external hard drives. cordless phones. home theaters. Blu-ray players. incandescent light bulbs.

With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?. the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously. the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable. the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs. the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire.

What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?. control data access to the media. determine the path packets take through the network. create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media. provide physical addressing to the devices.

A network administrator is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical financial application. The administrator notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.). the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet. the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone. the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data. the type of traffic that is crossing the network. the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network. the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing.

Match the situation with the appropriate use of network media. Horizontal cabling structure. Desktop PCs in an enterprise office. Backbone cabling in an enterprise. Long-haul networks. Guest access in a coffee shop. Waiting rooms in a hospital.

What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?. data. physical address. logical address. error detection.

What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?. It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer. It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device. It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the medium. It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media.

During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer for a PC connected to an Ethernet network?. An IP address is added. The process port number is added. The logical address is added. The physical address is added.

What are three ways that media access control is used in networking? (Choose three.). Data link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media. Contention-based access is also known as deterministic. Media access control provides placement of data frames onto the media. Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD. Networks with controlled access have reduced performance due to data collisions. 802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD.

What is the function of the CRC value that is found in the FCS field of a frame?. to verify the integrity of the received frame. to verify the physical address in the frame. to verify the logical address in the frame. to compute the checksum header for the data field in the frame.

Which media communication type does not require media arbitration in the data link layer?. half-duplex. deterministic. controlled access. full-duplex.

What three items are contained in an Ethernet header and trailer? (Choose three.). destination IP address. error-checking information. destination MAC address. source MAC address. source IP address.

A network team is comparing physical WAN topologies for connecting remote sites to a headquarters building. Which topology provides high availability and connects some, but not all, remote sites?. mesh. hub and spoke. point-to-point. partial mesh.

Which two fields or features does Ethernet examine to determine if a received frame is passed to the data link layer or discarded by the NIC? (Choose two.). auto-MDIX. Frame Check Sequence. minimum frame size. source MAC address. CEF.

What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?. the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable. the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected. the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a crossover Ethernet cable connection. the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation.

A Layer 2 switch is used to switch incoming frames from a 1000BASE-T port to a port connected to a 100Base-T network. Which method of memory buffering would work best for this task?. shared memory buffering. port-based buffering. fixed configuration buffering. level 1 cache buffering.

What are two examples of the cut-through switching method? (Choose two.). store-and-forward switching. fragment-free switching. CRC switching. QOS switching. fast-forward switching.

Which is a multicast MAC address?. FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF. 00-26-0F-4B-00-3E. 01-00-5E-00-00-03. 5C-26-0A-4B-19-3E.

Which switching method uses the CRC value in a frame?. cut-through. fast-forward. fragment-free. store-and-forward.

What is the purpose of the FCS field in a frame?. to obtain the MAC address of the sending node. to determine if errors occurred in the transmission and reception. to compute the CRC header for the data field. to verify the logical address of the sending node.

Which switching method has the lowest level of latency?. cut-through. fast-forward. fragment-free. store-and-forward.

Which advantage does the store-and-forward switching method have compared with the cut-through switching method?. frame error checking. faster frame forwarding. frame forwarding using IPv4 Layer 3 and 4 information. collision detecting.

Which frame forwarding method receives the entire frame and performs a CRC check to detect errors before forwarding the frame?. fast-forward switching. fragment-free switching. store-and-forward switching. cut-through switching.

What is one advantage of using the cut-through switching method instead of the store-and-forward switching method?. makes a fast forwarding decision based on the source MAC address of the frame. has a lower latency appropriate for high-performance computing applications. provides the flexibility to support any mix of Ethernet speeds. has a positive impact on bandwidth by dropping most of the invalid frames.

What is the auto-MDIX feature?. It enables a switch to dynamically select the forwarding method. It enables a device to automatically configure the speed of its interface. It enables a device to automatically configure an interface to use a straight-through or a crossover cable. It enables a device to automatically configure the duplex settings of a segment.

PC---1---Switch---2---Router---3---Router The PC is connected to the console port of the switch. All the other connections are made through FastEthernet links. Which types of UTP cables can be used to connect the devices?. 1 - rollover, 2 - crossover, 3 - straight-through. 1 - crossover, 2 - rollover, 3 - straight-through. 1 - crossover, 2 - straight-through, 3 - rollover. 1 - rollover, 2 - straight-through, 3 - crossover.

What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?. loss of signal strength as distance increases. leakage of signals from one cable pair to another. strengthening of a signal by a networking device. time for a signal to reach its destination.

What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.). greater bandwidth potential. greater distances per cable run. lower installation cost. easily terminated. durable connections. limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI.

What OSI physical layer term describes the measure of usable data transferred over a given period of time?. air. fiber-optic cable. copper cable. goodput.

Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI data link layer? (Choose two.). Communicates between the networking software at the upper layers and the device hardware at the lower layers. Places information in the frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being used for the frame. Controls the NIC responsible for sending and receiving data on the physical medium. Adds Layer 2 control information to network protocol data. Integrates various physical technologies.

What action will occur if a host receives a frame with a destination MAC address it does not recognize?. The host returns the frame to the switch. The host will discard the frame. The host replies to the switch with its own IP address. The host forwards the frame to all other hosts.

Which OSI layer sends segments to be encapsulated in an IPv4 or IPv6 packet?. Network layer. Data link layer. Transport layer. Session layer.

Which layer is responsible for taking an IP packet and preparing it for transmission over the communications medium?. Data link layer. Physical layer. Transport layer. Network layer.

What is the term for splitting up an IP packet when forwarding it from one medium to another medium with a smaller MTU?. Serialization. Segmentation. Encapsulation. Fragmentation.

Which delivery method does not guarantee that the packet will be delivered fully without errors?. Media independent. Connectionless. Best effort.

What are the two most commonly referenced fields in an IPv4 packet header that indicate where the packet is coming from and where it is going? (Choose two.). Time to Live. Protocol. Differentiated Services (DS). Source IP address. Destination IP address.

Which statement is correct about IPv4 packet header fields?. The source and destination IPv4 addresses remain the same while travelling from source to destination. The Version field identifies the next level protocol. The Time to Live field is used to determine the priority of each packet. The Total Length and Header Checksum fields are used to reorder a fragmented packet.

Which field is used to detect corruption in the IPv4 header?. Differentiated Services (DS). Time to Live. Protocol. Header Checksum.

Which field includes common values such as ICMP (1), TCP (6), and UDP(17)?. Header Checksum. Protocol. Time to Live. Differentiated Services (DS).

Which three options are major issues associated with IPv4? (Choose three.). Global and political boundaries. Too many IPv4 addresses available. active connection always. Increased network complexity and Internet routing table expansion. Lack of end-to-end connectivity. IP address depletion.

Which two options are improvements provided by IPv6 as compared to IPv4? (Choose two.). Standardizes the use of NAT. Increased the IP address space. Supports class-based networks. Header supports additional fields for complex packets. Uses a simpler header to provide improved packet handling.

Which is true of the IPv6 header?. It consists of 40 octets. It contains 12 header fields. It contains 8 header fields. It consists of 20 octets.

Which is true of the IPv6 packet header?. The Source and Destination IPv6 addresses change while travelling from source to destination. The Time to Live field replaces the DiffServ field. The Hop Limit field replaces the IPv4 Time to Live field. The Version field identifies the next header.

Which statement about host forwarding decisions is true?. Routing is enabled on switches to discover the best path to a destination. A remote destination host is on the same local network as the sending host. Local hosts can reach each other without the need of a router. A host cannot ping itself.

Which default gateway statement is true?. Traffic can only be forwarded outside the local network if there is no default gateway. The default gateway address is the IP address of a switch on a remote network. A default gateway is required to send packets to other hosts on the local network. The default gateway address is the IP address of the router on the local network.

Which two commands could be entered on a Windows host to view its IPv4 and IPv6 routing table? (Choose two.). print net. netroute -I. print route. netstat -r. route print.

What is the command used on a Cisco IOS router to view the routing table?. show routing table. route print. show ip route. netstart -r.

What does a code of "O" indicate next to a route in the routing table?. A gateway of last resort. A route learned dynamically from OSPF. A directly connected route. A route with an administrative distance of 0.

This type of route is also known as a gateway of last resort. Static route. Default route. Directly connected route. Remote route.

Which is a characteristic of static routes?. They automatically adjust to a change in network topology. They are appropriate when there are many redundant links. They are advertised to directly connected neighbors. They are manually configured.

True or False? A router can be configured with a combination of both static routes and a dynamic routing protocol. True. False.

Which command can be used on a Windows host to display the routing table?. tracert. show ip route. netstat -s. netstat -r.

What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?. Source and destination MAC. Source and destination application protocol. Source and destination port number. Source and destination IP address.

How does the network layer use the MTU value?. The network layer depends on the data link layer to set the MTU, and adjusts the speed of transmission to accommodate it. The MTU is passed to the network layer by the data link layer. The network layer depends on the higher level layers to determine the MTU. To increase speed of delivery, the network layer ignores the MTU.

Which characteristic describes an IPv6 enhancement over IPv4?. IPv6 addresses are based on 128-bit flat addressing as opposed to IPv4 which is based on 32-bit hierarchical addressing. The IPv6 header is simpler than the IPv4 header is, which improves packet handling. The IPv6 address space is four times bigger than the IPv4 address space. Both IPv4 and IPv6 support authentication, but only IPv6 supports privacy capabilities.

Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of IPv4?. All IPv4 addresses are assignable to hosts. IPv4 natively supports IPsec. IPv4 has a 32-bit address space. An IPv4 header has fewer fields than an IPv6 header has.

When a router receives a packet, what information must be examined in order for the packet to be forwarded to a remote destination?. Source MAC address. Destination MAC address. Source IP address. Destination IP address.

Which IPv4 address can a host use to ping the loopback interface?. 127.0.0.1. 127.0.0.0. 126.0.0.1. 126.0.0.0.

A computer has to send a packet to a destination host in the same LAN. How will the packet be sent?. The packet will be sent only to the default gateway. The packet will be sent directly to the destination host. The packet will be sent to the default gateway first, and then, depending on the response from the gateway, it may be sent to the destination host. The packet will first be sent to the default gateway, and then from the default gateway it will be sent directly to the destination host.

When a connectionless protocol is in use at a lower layer of the OSI model, how is missing data detected and retransmitted if necessary?. Upper-layer connection-oriented protocols keep track of the data received and can request retransmission from the upper- level protocols on the sending host. The best-effort delivery process guarantees that all packets that are sent are received. Network layer IP protocols manage the communication sessions if connection-oriented transport services are not available. Connectionless acknowledgements are used to request retransmission.

What was the reason for the creation and implementation of IPv6?. To provide more address space in the Internet Names Registry. To allow NAT support for private addressing. To make reading a 32-bit address easier. To relieve IPv4 address depletion.

Which information is used by routers to forward a data packet toward its destination?. Source data-link address. Destination IP address. Source IP address. Destination data-link address.

Which field in an IPv4 packet header will typically stay the same during its transmission?. Packet Length. Destination Address. Time-to-Live. Flag.

Which field in an IPv6 packet is used by the router to determine if a packet has expired and should be dropped?. Hop Limit. No Route to Destination. Address Unreachable. TTL.

What destination MAC address would be included in a frame sent from a source device to a destination device on the same local network?. The MAC address of the local router interface. The MAC address of the destination device. A broadcast MAC address of FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF.

What destination MAC address would be included in a frame sent from a source device to a destination device on a remote local network?. The MAC address of the local router interface. The MAC address of the destination device. A broadcast MAC address of FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF.

What two protocols are used to determine the MAC address of a known destination device IP address (IPv4 and IPv6)?. DNS. ND. DHCP. ARP.

What two functions are provided by ARP? (Choose two.). Maintains a table of IPv4 address to domain names. Resolves IPv4 addresses to domain names. Resolves IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses. Maintains a table of IPv6 to MAC address mappings. Maintains a table of IPv4 to MAC address mappings. Resolves IPv6 addresses to MAC addresses.

Where is the ARP table stored on a device?. NVRAM. Flash. ROM. RAM.

Which statement is true about ARP?. ARP entries are cached temporarily. An ARP cache cannot be manually deleted. ARP entries are cached permanently.

Which command could be used on a Cisco router to view its ARP table?. show arp table. arp -a. arp -d. show ip arp.

What is an attack using ARP?. ARP poisoning. ARP starvation. ARP broadcasts. ARP hopping attacks.

Which two ICMPv6 messages are used in SLAAC?. Neighbor solicitation. Neighbor advertisement. Router advertisement. Router solicitation.

Which two ICMPv6 messages are used in to determine the MAC address of a known IPv6 address?. Router advertisement. Neighbor advertisement. Router solicitation. Neighbor solicitation.

To what type of address are ICMPv6 neighbor solicitation messages sent?. Multicast. Unicast. Broadcast.

Which router component holds the routing table, ARP cache, and running configuration file?. ROM. Flash. RAM. NVRAM.

What type of information is contained in an ARP table?. Routes to reach destination networks. Domain name to IPv4 address mappings. Switch ports associated with destination MAC addresses. IPv4 address to MAC address mappings.

A PC is configured to obtain an IPv4 address automatically from network 192.168.1.0/24. The network administrator issues the arp -a command and notices an entry of 192.168.1.255 ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff. Which statement describes this entry?. This entry refers to the PC itself. This is a dynamic map entry. This is a static map entry. This entry maps to the default gateway.

A cybersecurity analyst believes an attacker is spoofing the MAC address of the default gateway to perform a man-in-the-middle attack. Which command should the analyst use to view the MAC address a host is using to reach the default gateway?. route print. arp -a. netstat -r. ipconfig /all.

What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a received frame is not in the MAC table?. It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be delivered. It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch. It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was received. It initiates an ARP request.

Which two ICMPv6 messages are used during the Ethernet MAC address resolution process? (Choose two.). Echo request. Router advertisement. Neighbor advertisement. Router solicitation. Neighbor solicitation.

How does the ARP process use an IPv4 address?. To determine the network number based on the number of bits in the IPv4 address. To determine the amount of time a packet takes when traveling from source to destination. To determine the MAC address of a device on the same network. To determine the MAC address of the remote destination host.

What is one function of the ARP protocol?. Maintaining a table of domain names with their resolved IP addresses. Obtaining an IPv4 address automatically. Mapping a domain name to its IP address. Resolving an IPv4 address to a MAC address.

Which action is taken by a Layer 2 switch when it receives a Layer 2 broadcast frame?. It sends the frame to all ports except the port on which it received the frame. It sends the frame to all ports. It sends the frame to all ports that are registered to forward broadcasts. It drops the frame.

What addresses are mapped by ARP?. Destination IPv4 address to the source MAC address. Destination MAC address to the source IPv4 address. Destination IPv4 address to the destination host name. IPv4 address to a destination MAC address.

The ARP table in a switch maps which two types of address together?. Layer 3 address to a Layer 4 address. Layer 3 address to a Layer 2 address. Layer 2 address to a Layer 4 address. Layer 4 address to a Layer 2 address.

When an IPv4 packet is sent to a host on a remote network, what information is provided by ARP?. The MAC address of the switch port that connects to the sending host. The IPv4 address of the default gateway. The IPv4 address of the destination host. The MAC address of the router interface closest to the sending host.

What is the purpose of ARP in an IPv4 network?. To build the MAC address table in a switch from the information that is gathered. To forward data onward based on the destination IP address. To forward data onward based on the destination MAC address. To obtain a specific MAC address when an IP address is known.

Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?. 127.0.0.1. 01-00-5E-00-AA-23. 255.255.255.255. 0.0.0.0. FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.

A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?. The configuration file is missing from NVRAM. Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory. The POST process has detected hardware failure. The IOS image is corrupt.

Which command is used to encrypt all passwords in a router configuration file?. Router_A (config) # encrypt password. Router_A (config) # enable secret <password>. Router_A (config) # service password-encryption. Router_A (config) # enable password <password>.

Company policy requires using the most secure method to safeguard access to the privileged exec and configuration mode on the routers. The privileged exec password is trustknow1. Which of the following router commands achieves the goal of providing the highest level of security?. enable secret trustknow1. service password-encryption. enable password trustknow1. secret password trustknow1.

What will be the response from the router after the command, "router(config)# hostname portsmouth" is entered?. router(config-host)#. portsmouth#. hostname = portsmouth portsmouth#. portsmouth(config)#. invalid input detected. ? command not recognized router(config)#.

An administrator is configuring a new router to permit out-of-band management access. Which set of commands will allow the required login using a password of cisco?. Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# password manage Router(config-line)# exit Router(config)# enable password cisco. Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# password cisco Router(config-line)# login. Router(config)# line console 0 Router(config-line)# password cisco Router(config-line)# login. Router(config)# line console 0 Router(config-line)# password cisco Router(config-line)# exit Router(config)# service password-encryption.

Which command can be used on a Cisco router to display all interfaces, the IPv4 address assigned, and the current status?. show ip route. show ip interface brief. show interface fa0/1. ping.

Which CLI mode allows users to access all device commands, such as those used for configuration, management, and troubleshooting?. User EXEC mode. Global configuration mode. Privileged EXEC mode. Interface configuration mode.

What is the purpose of the startup configuration file on a Cisco router?. To facilitate the basic operation of the hardware components of a device. To provide a limited backup version of the IOS, in case the router cannot load the full featured IOS. To contain the configuration commands that the router IOS is currently using. To contain the commands that are used to initially configure a router on startup.

Which characteristic describes the default gateway of a host computer?. The logical address assigned to the switch interface connected to the router. The physical address of the router interface on the same network as the host computer. The physical address of the switch interface connected to the host computer. The logical address of the router interface on the same network as the host computer.

What is the purpose of the banner motd command?. It configures a message that will identify printed documents to LAN users. It is a way that routers communicate the status of their links with one another. It provides an easy way of communicating with any user attached to a router's LANs. It provides a way to make announcements to those who log in to a router.

A technician is configuring a router to allow for all forms of management access. As part of each different type of access, the technician is trying to type the command login. Which configuration mode should be entered to do this task?. User executive mode. Privileged EXEC mode. Global configuration mode. Any line configuration mode.

What is stored in the NVRAM of a Cisco router?. The startup configuration. The running configuration. The bootup instructions. The Cisco IOS.

Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is true?. To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption command in plain text, issue the no service password-encryption command. As soon as the service password-encryption command is entered, all currently set passwords formerly displayed in plain text are encrypted. It is configured in privileged EXEC mode. It encrypts only line mode passwords.

Why is NAT not needed in IPv6?. Any host or user can get a public IPv6 network address because the number of available IPv6 addresses is extremely large. The end-to-end connectivity problems that are caused by NAT are solved because the number of routes increases with the number of nodes that are connected to the Internet. The problems that are induced by NAT applications are solved because the IPv6 header improves packet handling by intermediate routers. Because IPv6 has integrated security, there is no need to hide the IPv6 addresses of internal networks.

<output omitted> Gateway of last resort is 0.0.0.0 to network 0.0.0.0 10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 10.1.0.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0 172.17.0.0/24 is subnetted, 4 subnets O 172.17.6.0 [110/2] via 192.168.3.4, 00:10: 41, FastEthernet0/0 O 172.17.10.0 [110/2] via 192.168.5.2, 00:09:52, FastEthernet1/1 O 172.17.12.0 [110/2] via 192.168.4.2, 00:12:23, FastEthernet1/0 C 172.17.14.0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/1 C 192.168.3.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0 C 192.168.4.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet1/0 C 192.168.5.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet1/1 S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0 Refer to the exhibit. Match the packets with their destination IP address to the exiting interfaces on the router. (Not all targets are used.). packets with destination of 172.17.8.20. packets with destination of 172.17.14.8. packets with destination of 172.17.10.5. packets with destination of 172.17.6.15. packets with destination of 172.17.12.10.

Which statement describes a feature of the IP protocol?. IP relies on upper layer services to handle situations of missing or out-of-order packets. IP relies on Layer 2 protocols for transmission error control. MAC addresses are used during the IP packet encapsulation. IP encapsulation is modified based on network media.

Which parameter does the router use to choose the path to the destination when there are multiple routes available?. the lower gateway IP address to get to the destination network. the higher gateway IP address to get to the destination network. the higher metric value that is associated with the destination network. the lower metric value that is associated with the destination network.

What IPv4 header field identifies the upper layer protocol carried in the packet?. Differentiated Services. Identification. Protocol. Version.

How do hosts ensure that their packets are directed to the correct network destination?. They search in their own local routing table for a route to the network destination address and pass this information to the default gateway. They have to keep their own local routing table that contains a route to the loopback interface, a local network route, and a remote default route. They always direct their packets to the default gateway, which will be responsible for the packet delivery. They send a query packet to the default gateway asking for the best route.

Which field in the IPv4 header is used to prevent a packet from traversing a network endlessly?. Sequence Number. Acknowledgment Number. Differentiated Services. Time-to-Live.

What routing table entry has a next hop address associated with a destination network?. Directly-connected routes. Local routes. C and L source routes. Remote routes.

What are two services provided by the OSI network layer? (Choose two.). routing packets toward the destination. encapsulating PDUs from the transport layer. performing error detection. placement of frames on the media. collision detection.

A network technician issues the arp -d * command on a PC after the router that is connected to the LAN is reconfigured. What is the result this command is issued?. The ARP cache is cleared. The ARP cache is synchronized with the router interface. The current content of the ARP cache is displayed. The detailed information of the ARP cache is displayed.

What statement describes the function of the Address Resolution Protocol?. ARP is used to discover the IP address of any host on a different network. ARP is used to discover the MAC address of any host on the local network. ARP is used to discover the IP address of any host on the local network. ARP is used to discover the MAC address of any host on a different network.

What is the aim of an ARP spoofing attack?. to overwhelm network hosts with ARP requests. to fill switch MAC address tables with bogus addresses. to associate IP addresses to the wrong MAC address. to flood the network with ARP reply broadcasts.

Which statement describes the treatment of ARP requests on the local link?. They are received and processed by every device on the local network. They must be forwarded by all routers on the local network. They are received and processed only by the target device. They are dropped by all switches on the local network.

Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows a small switched network and the contents of the MAC address table of the switch. PC1 has sent a frame addressed to PC3. What will the switch do with the frame?. The switch will forward the frame to all ports except port 4. The switch will forward the frame only to ports 1 and 3. The switch will forward the frame only to port 2. The switch will discard the frame. The switch will forward the frame to all ports.

Where are IPv4 address to Layer 2 Ethernet address mappings maintained on a host computer?. MAC address table. Neighbor table. ARP cache. Routing table.

Under which two circumstances will a switch flood a frame out of every port except the port that the frame was received on? (Choose two.). The destination address in the frame is a known unicast address. The destination address is unknown to the switch. The source address in the frame is a multicast address. The source address in the frame header is the broadcast address. The frame has the broadcast address as the destination address.

A network administrator requires access to manage routers and switches locally and remotely. Match the description to the access method. remote access via a dialup connection. unsecure remote access. preferred out-of-band access method. remote access method that uses encryption.

Match the phases to the functions during the boot up process of a Cisco router. phase 1. phase 3. phase 2.

A new network administrator has been asked to enter a banner message on a Cisco device. What is the fastest way a network administrator could test whether the banner is properly configured?. Power cycle the device. Reboot the device. Enter CTRL-Z at the privileged mode prompt. Exit global configuration mode. Exit privileged EXEC mode and press Enter.

Match the commands to the correct actions. configures a name on the router. provides security on the console. displays a message after accessing the router.

Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration shown from PC1. What is a description of the default gateway address?. It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud. It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1. It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the Internet. It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same LAN.

What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?. Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted. The switch requires a username/password combination for remote access. The SSH client on the switch is enabled. The switch requires remote connections via a proprietary client software.

What are two functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.). to contain the running configuration file. to retain contents when power is removed. to store the routing table. to store the startup configuration file. to store the ARP table.

A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?. The configuration file is missing from NVRAM. Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory. The IOS image is corrupt. The POST process has detected hardware failure.

Which two functions are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.). microsegmentation. domain name resolution. packet forwarding. flow control. path selection.

The global configuration command ip default-gateway 172.16.100.1 is applied to a switch. What is the effect of this command?. The switch can communicate with other hosts on the 172.16.100.0 network. The switch will have a management interface with the address 172.16.100.1. The switch can be remotely managed from a host on another network. The switch is limited to sending and receiving frames to and from the gateway 172.16.100.1.

What is the effect of using the Router# copy running-config startup-config command on a router?. The contents of RAM will change. The contents of NVRAM will change. The contents of flash will change. The contents of ROM will change.

What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?. The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network. The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host. The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway. The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks. A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.

What are two potential network problems that can result from ARP operation? (Choose two.). Network attackers could manipulate MAC address and IP address mappings in ARP messages with the intent of intercepting network traffic. Large numbers of ARP request broadcasts could cause the host MAC address table to overflow and prevent the host from communicating on the network. On large networks with low bandwidth, multiple ARP broadcasts could cause data communication delays. Multiple ARP replies result in the switch MAC address table containing entries that match the MAC addresses of hosts that are connected to the relevant switch port. Manually configuring static ARP associations could facilitate ARP poisoning or MAC address spoofing.

Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header that contains a 32-bit binary value associated with an interface on the sending device?. Destination IPv4 address. TTL. Protocol. Source IPv4 address.

What property of ARP allows MAC addresses of frequently used servers to be fixed in the ARP table?. Entries in an ARP table are time-stamped and are purged after the timeout expires. The port-to-MAC address table on a switch has the same entries as the ARP table on the switch. A static IP-to-MAC address entry can be entered manually into an ARP table. The type field 0x806 appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.

RTR1(config)# interface gi0/1 RTR1(config-if)# description Connects to the Marketing LAN RTR1(config-if)# ip address 10.27.15.17 255.255.255.0 RTR1(config-if)# no shutdown RTR1(config-if)# interface gi0/0 RTR1(config-if)# description Connects to the Payroll LAN RTR1(config-if)# ip address 10.27.14.148 255.255.255.0 RTR1(config-if)# no shutdown RTR1(config-if)# interface s0/0/0 RTR1(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP RTR1(config-if)# ip address 10.14.15.254 255.255.255.0 RTR1(config-if)# no shutdown RTR1(config-if)# interface s0/0/1 RTR1(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN RTR1(config-if)# ip address 203.0.113.39 255.255.255.0 RTR1(config-if)# no shutdown RTR1(config-if)# end Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the Payroll LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What IP address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?. 203.0.113.39. 10.27.15.17. 10.27.14.148. 10.14.15.254. 10.27.14.1.

Which two types of ICMP messages are common to both ICMPv4 and ICMPv6? (Choose two.). Destination or Service Unreachable. Source Unreachable. Time exceeded. Hostname resolution. IP configuration.

Which type of ICMPv6 message would a host send to acquire an IPv6 configuration when booting up?. Neighbor Advertisement (NA) message. Router Solicitation (RS) message. Router Advertisement (RA) message. Neighbor Solicitation (NS) message.

A technician is troubleshooting a network where it is suspected that a defective node in the network path is causing packets to be dropped. The technician only has the IP address of the end point device and does not have any details of the intermediate devices. What command can the technician use to identify the faulty node?. tracert. ping. ipconfig /displaydns. ipconfig /flushdns.

A user who is unable to connect to the file server contacts the help desk. The helpdesk technician asks the user to ping the IP address of the default gateway that is configured on the workstation. What is the purpose for this ping command?. To obtain a dynamic IP address from the server. To test that the host has the capability to reach hosts on other networks. To resolve the domain name of the file server to its IP address. To request that gateway forward the connection request to the file server.

What is a function of the tracert command that differs from the ping command when they are used on a workstation?. The tracert command sends one ICMP message to each hop in the path. The tracert command shows the information of routers in the path. The tracert command reaches the destination faster. The tracert command is used to test the connectivity between two devices.

Which ICMP message is used by the traceroute utility during the process of finding the path between two end hosts?. Destination unreachable. Ping. Redirect. Time exceeded.

Which utility uses the Internet Control Messaging Protocol (ICMP)?. NTP. Ping. DNS. RIP.

Which protocol is used by IPv4 and IPv6 to provide error messaging?. ARP. ICMP. NDP. DHCP.

A network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the ping command on a router. Which symbol will be displayed to indicate that a time expired during the wait for an ICMP echo reply message?. . -. U. $.

Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.). The IP address of the router nearest the destination device. The destination device is reachable through the network. The average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to return to the source. The number of routers between the source and destination device. The average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to respond.

A user calls to report that a PC cannot access the internet. The network technician asks the user to issue the command ping 127.0.0.1 in a command prompt window. The user reports that the result is four positive replies. What conclusion can be drawn based on this connectivity test?. The PC can access the Internet. However, the web browser may not work. The IP address obtained from the DHCP server is correct. The TCP/IP implementation is functional. The PC can access the network. The problem exists beyond the local network.

Which command can be used to test connectivity between two devices using echo request and echo reply messages?. ping. netstat. ICMP. ipconfig.

What field content is used by ICMPv6 to determine that a packet has expired?. Hop Limit field. TTL field. CRC field. Time Exceeded field.

Which protocol provides feedback from the destination host to the source host about errors in packet delivery?. DNS. ARP. BOOTP. ICMP.

A network administrator can successfully ping the server at www.cisco.com, but cannot ping the company web server located at an ISP in another city. Which tool or command would help identify the specific router where the packet was lost or delayed?. telnet. ipconfig. netstat. traceroute.

What message is sent by a host to check the uniqueness of an IPv6 address before using that address?. Neighbor solicitation. Router solicitation. ARP request. Echo request.

Host-A has the IPv4 address and subnet mask 10.5.4.100 255.255.255.0. What is the network address of Host-A?. 10.0.0.0. 10.5.0.0. 10.5.4.100. 10.5.4.0.

Host-A has the IPv4 address and subnet mask 172.16.4.100 255.255.0.0. What is the network address of Host-A?. 172.0.0.0. 172.16.4.100. 172.16.4.0. 172.16.0.0.

Host-A has the IPv4 address and subnet mask 10.5.4.100 255.255.255.0. Which of the following IPv4 addresses would be on the same network as Host-A? (Choose all that apply). 10.5.4.1. 10.5.4.99. 10.0.0.98. 10.5.100.4. 10.5.0.1.

Host-A has the IPv4 address and subnet mask 172.16.4.100 255.255.0.0. Which of the following IPv4 addresses would be on the same network as Host-A? (Choose all that apply). 172.16.0.1. 172.16.4.99. 172.17.4.99. 172.18.4.1. 172.17.4.1.

Host-A has the IPv4 address and subnet mask 192.168.1.50 255.255.255.0. Which of the following IPv4 addresses would be on the same network as Host-A? (Choose all that apply). 192.168.0.1. 192.168.1.100. 192.168.0.100. 192.168.2.1. 192.168.1.1.

Which two statements are correct about private IPv4 addresses? (Choose two.). Internet routers will typically forward any packet with a destination address that is a private IPv4 address. 172.99.1.1 is a private IPv4 address. Private IPv4 addresses are assigned to devices within an organization's intranet (internal network). Any organization (home, school, office, company) can use the 10.0.0.0/8 address.

Which two statements are correct about public IPv4 addresses? (Choose two.). To access a device over the internet, the destination IPv4 address must be a public address. Public IPv4 address exhaustion is a reason why there are private IPv4 addresses and why organizations are transitioning to IPv6. 192.168.1.10 is a public IPv4 address. Public IPv4 addresses are allowed to be assigned to devices within an organization's intranet (internal network).

Which organization or group of organizations receives IP addresses from IANA and is responsible for allocating these addresses to ISPs and some organizations?. Tier 1 ISPs. IEEE. RIRs. IETF.

Which devices will not forward an IPv4 broadcast packet by default?. Windows PC. None of the above. All devices forward IPv4 broadcast packets by default. Router. Ethernet switch.

Which two situations are the result of excessive broadcast traffic? (Choose two). Slow network operations. Slow device operations. When devices on all adjacent networks are affected. When the router has to forward an excessive number of packets.

What is the prefix length notation for the subnet mask 255.255.255.224?. /26. /27. /28. /25.

How many valid host addresses are available on an IPv4 subnet that is configured with a /26 mask?. 192. 62. 254. 64. 190.

Which subnet mask would be used if 5 host bits are available?. 255.255.255.0. 255.255.255.240. 255.255.255.128. 255.255.255.224.

A network administrator subnets the 192.168.10.0/24 network into subnets with /26 masks. How many equal-sized subnets are created?. 16. 8. 64. 2. 1. 4.

What subnet mask is represented by the slash notation /20?. 255.255.255.0. 255.255.255.248. 255.255.224.0. 255.255.240.0. 255.255.255.192.

Which statement is true about variable-length subnet masking?. Subnets may only be subnetted one additional time. The size of each subnet may be different, depending on requirements. Each subnet is the same size. Bits are returned, rather than borrowed, to create additional subnets.

Why does a Layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP address and subnet mask?. To identify faulty frames. To identify the network address of the destination network. To identify the broadcast address of the destination network. To identify the host address of the destination host.

How many usable IP addresses are available on the 192.168.1.0/27 network?. 30. 62. 32. 256. 16. 254.

Which subnet mask would be used if exactly 4 host bits are available?. 255.255.255.240. 255.255.255.224. 255.255.255.128. 255.255.255.248.

Which two parts are components of an IPv4 address? (Choose two.). Host portion. Physical portion. Logical portion. Network portion. Broadcast portion. Subnet portion.

If a network device has a mask of /26, how many IP addresses are available for hosts on this network?. 16. 62. 30. 14. 32. 64.

What does the IP address 172.17.4.250/24 represent?. Multicast address. Broadcast address. Network address. Host address.

If a network device has a mask of /28, how many IP addresses are available for hosts on this network?. 32. 254. 256. 14. 62. 16.

What is the purpose of the subnet mask in conjunction with an IP address?. To uniquely identify a host on a network. To identify whether the address is public or private. To mask the IP address to outsiders. To determine the subnet to which the host belongs.

A network administrator is variably subnetting a network. The smallest subnet has a mask of 255.255.255.224. How many usable host addresses will this subnet provide?. 30. 2. 62. 14. 6.

What is the most important motivating factor for moving to IPv6?. IPv6 addresses that are easier to work with. Better performance with IPv6. Depletion of IPv4 addresses. Better security with IPv6.

True or False: 4 out of 5 RIRs no longer have enough IPv4 addresses to allocate to customers on a regular basis. True. False.

Which of the following techniques use native IPv6 connectivity?. Dual stack. All of the above. Tunneling. Translation.

What is the recommended prefix length for most IPv6 subnets?. /32. /128. /48. /64.

Which part of a GUA is assigned by the ISP?. Prefix. Global routing prefix and subnet ID. Global routing prefix. RIR prefix.

Which type of IPv6 unicast address is not routable between networks?. LLA. Embedded IPv4 address. Unique local address. GUA.

True or false? The Subnet ID field in an GUA must borrow bits from the interface ID. True. False.

What type of IPv6 address begins with fe80?. GUA. LLA. None. An IPv6 address must begin with 2001. Multicast address.

True or false? RA messages are sent to all IPv6 routers by hosts requesting addressing information. False. True.

Which dynamic addressing method for GUAs is the one where devices rely solely on the contents of the RA message for their addressing information?. Method 3: Stateful DHCPv6. Method 1: SLAAC. Method 2: SLAAC and stateless DHCPv6.

Which dynamic addressing method for GUAs is the one where devices rely solely on a DHCPv6 server for their addressing information?. Method 1: SLAAC. Method 2: SLAAC and stateless DHCPv6. Method 3: Stateful DHCPv6.

Which dynamic addressing method for GUAs is the one where devices get their IPv6 configuration in a RA message and request DNS information from a DHCPv6 server?. Method 2: SLAAC and stateless DHCPv6. Method 1: SLAAC. Method 3: Stateful DHCPv6.

What are the two methods a device can use to generate its own IPv6 interface ID?. Stateless DHCPv6. EUI-64. Stateful DHCPv6. SLAAC. Randomly generated.

True or False? IPv6 was designed with subnetting in mind. False. True.

Which field in an IPv6 GUA is used for subnetting?. Global Routing Prefix. Network. Subnet ID. Prefix. Interface ID.

Given a /48 Global Routing Prefix and a /64 prefix, what is the subnet portion of the following address: 2001:db8:cafe:1111:2222:3333:4444:5555. 3333. 1111. Café. 4444. 2222.

Given a /32 Global Routing Prefix and a /64 prefix, how many bits would be allocated for the Subnet ID?. 64. 48. 8. 32. 16.

What is the valid most compressed format possible of the IPv6 address 2001:0DB8:0000:AB00:0000:0000:0000:1234?. 2001:DB8:0:AB :: 1234. 2001:DB8 :: AB00 :: 1234. 2001:DB8:0:AB00 :: 1234. 2001:DB8:0:AB:0:1234.

What is the prefix associated with the IPv6 address 2001:DB8:D15:EA:CC44 :: 1/64?. 2001:DB8:D15:EA:CC44 :: /64. 2001:DB8:D15:EA :: /64. 2001:DB8 :: /64. 2001 :: /64.

What type of address is automatically assigned to an interface when IPv6 is enabled on that interface?. Unique local. Loopback. Link-local. Global unicast.

Which IPv6 network prefix is only intended for local links and can not be routed?. FE80 :: /10. FF00 :: /12. 2001 :: /3. FC00 :: /7.

What is the purpose of the command ping :: 1?. It tests the broadcast capability of all hosts on the subnet. It tests the internal configuration of an IPv6 host. It tests the multicast connectivity to all hosts on the subnet. It tests the reachability of the default gateway for the network.

What is the interface ID of the IPv6 address 2001:DB8 :: 1000:A9CD:47FF:FE57:FE94/64?. 47FF:FE57:FE94. A9CD:47FF:FE57:FE94. 1000:A9CD:47FF:FE57:FE94. FE94. FE57:FE94.

What is the network address for the IPv6 address 2001:DB8:AA04:B5 :: 1/64?. 2001:DB8 :: /64. 2001 :: /64. 2001:DB8:AA04:B5 :: /64. 2001:DB8:AA04 :: /64.

Which address type is not supported in IPv6?. Unicast. Broadcast. Multicast. Private.

What is indicated by a successful ping to the :: 1 IPv6 address?. The default gateway address is correctly configured. All hosts on the local link are available. The link-local address is correctly configured. IP is properly installed on the host. The host is cabled properly.

What is the most compressed representation of the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0001?. 2001:db8 :: abcd:0:1. 2001:db8:0:abcd :: 1. 2001:0db8:abcd :: 0001. 2001:0db8:0000:abcd :: 1. 2001:0db8:abcd :: 1.

What is the minimum configuration for a router interface that is enabled for IPv6?. To have a self-generated loopback address. To have both an IPv4 and an IPv6 address. To have a link-local IPv6 address. To have both a link-local and a global unicast IPv6 address.

At a minimum, which address is required on IPv6-enabled interfaces?. Global unicast. Link-local. Unique local. Site local.

What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.). A subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site. An interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network. A global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided by an ISP. An interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host. A global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided by a local administrator.

Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:db8:130f :: /48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create /64 subnetworks if interface ID bits are not borrowed?. 16. 128. 8. 80.

Which type of IPv6 address is not routable and used only for communication on a single subnet?. Unspecified address. Link-local address. Global unicast address. Unique local address. Loopback address.

Refer to the exhibit. Considering the addresses already used and having to remain within the 10.16.10.0/24 network range, which subnet address could be assigned to the network containing 25 hosts?. 10.16.10.240/27. 10.16.10.240/28. 10.16.10.128/28. 10.16.10.64/27. 10.16.10.160/26. 10.16.10.224/26.

IV) Which layer is responsible for establishing a temporary communication session between the source and destination host applications?. Application layer. Physical layer. Network layer. Data link layer. Transport layer.

Which three are transport layer responsibilities? (Choose three.). Identifying routing information. Identifying frames. Tracking individual conversations. Segmenting data and reassembling segments. Conversation multiplexing.

Which transport layer protocol statement is true?. UDP provides reliability. TCP is faster than UDP. UDP is a best-effort delivery protocol. TCP has fewer fields than UDP.

Which transport layer protocol would be used for VolP applications?. VolP Transfer Protocol. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP). User Datagram Protocol (UDP). Session Information Protocol (SIP).

Which transport layer protocol ensures reliable same-order delivery?. ICMP. TCP. UDP. IP.

Which TCP header statement is true?. It consists of 10 fields in a 20-byte header. It consists of 4 fields in an 8-byte header. It consists of 8 fields in a 10-byte header. It consists of 20 fields in a 40-byte header.

Which two applications would use the TCP transport layer protocol? (Choose two.). HTTP. VolP. TFTP. FTP. ICMP.

Which of the following is a stateless best-effort delivery transport layer protocol?. TCP. IP. UDP. ICMP.

Which UDP header statement is true?. It consists of 10 fields in a 20-byte header. It consists of 20 fields in a 40-byte header. It consists of 4 fields in an 8-byte header. It consists of 8 fields in a 10-byte header.

Which two applications would use the UDP transport layer protocol? (Choose two.). TFTP. VolP. FTP. HTTP. ICMP.

Which two fields are the same in a TCP and UDP header? (Choose two.). Source port number. Destination port number. Control bits. Sequence number. Well-known port number.

Assume a host with IP address 10.1.1.10 wants to request web services from a server at 10.1.1.254. Which of the following would display the correct socket pair?. 80:10.1.1.10, 1099:10.1.1.254. 10.1.1.10:1099, 10.1.1.254:80. 1099:10.1.1.10, 80:10.1.1.254. 10.1.1.10:80, 10.1.1.254:1099.

Which port group includes port numbers for FTP, HTTP, and TFTP applications?. Well-known ports. Registered ports. Private ports. Dynamic ports.

Which Windows command would display the protocols in use, the local address and port numbers, the foreign address and port numbers, and the connection state?. Ipconfig /all. Netstat. Traceroute. Ping.

Which of the following would be valid source and destination ports for a host connecting to an email server?. Source: 49152, Destination: 25. Source: 80, Destination: 49152. Source: 25, Destination: 49152. Source: 49152, Destination: 80.

Which control bit flags are used during the three-way handshake?. SYN and ACK. FIN and RESET. RESET and SYN. ACK and FIN.

How many exchanges are needed to end both sessions between two hosts?. Five exchanges. Three exchanges. Four exchanges. One exchange. Two exchanges.

What field is used by the destination host to reassemble segments into the original order?. Control Bits. Destination Port. Source Port. Window Size. Sequence Number.

What field is used to provide flow control?. Control Bits. Source Port. Destination Port. Window Size. Sequence Number.

What happens when a sending host senses there is congestion?. The sending host increases the number of bytes it sends before receiving an acknowledgment from the destination host. The sending host reduces the number of bytes it sends before receiving an acknowledgment from the destination host. The receiving host increases the number of bytes it sends before receiving an acknowledgment from the sending host. The receiving host reduces the number of bytes it sends before receiving an acknowledgment from the sending host.

Why is UDP desirable for protocols that make a simple request and reply transactions?. Flow Control. Low overhead. Reliability. Same-order delivery.

Which UDP datagram reassembly statement is true?. UDP reassembles the data using control bits. UDP reassembles the data using sequence numbers. UDP reassembles the data in the order that it was received. UDP does not reassemble the data.

Which of the following would be valid source and destination ports for a host connecting to a DNS server?. Source: 1812, Destination: 49152. Source: 49152, Destination: 53. Source: 49152, Destination: 1812. Source: 53, Destination: 49152.

Which transport layer feature is used to establish a connection-oriented session?. TCP port number. TCP 3-way handshake. UDP sequence number. UDP ACK flag.

What is the complete range of TCP and UDP well-known ports?. 1024 - 49151. 0 to 255. 0 to 1023. 256 - 1023.

What is a socket?. The combination of a source IP address and port number or a destination IP address and port number. The combination of the source and destination sequence numbers and port numbers. The combination of the source and destination IP address and source and destination Ethernet address. The combination of the source and destination sequence and acknowledgment numbers.

How does a networked server manage requests from multiple clients for different services?. Each request is tracked through the physical address of the client. Each request has a combination of source and destination port numbers, coming from a unique IP address. The server sends all requests through a default gateway. The server uses IP addresses to identify different services.

What happens if part of an FTP message is not delivered to the destination?. The entire FTP message is re-sent. The message is lost because FTP does not use a reliable delivery method. The FTP source host sends a query to the destination host. The part of the FTP message that was lost is re-sent.

What type of applications are best suited for using UDP?. Applications that are sensitive to packet loss. Applications that need reliable delivery. Applications that are sensitive to delay. Applications that require retransmission of lost segments.

Network congestion has resulted in the source learning of the loss of TCP segments that were sent to the destination. What is one way that the TCP protocol addresses this?. The destination sends fewer acknowledgement messages in order to conserve bandwidth. The destination decreases the window size. The source decreases the amount of data that it transmits before it receives an acknowledgement from the destination. The source decreases the window size to decrease the rate of transmission from the destination.

Which two operations are provided by TCP but not by UDP? (Choose two.). Retransmitting any unacknowledged data. Identifying the applications. Reconstructing data in the order received. Acknowledging received data. Identifying individual conversations.

What is the purpose of using a source port number in a TCP communication?. To assemble the segments that arrived out of order. To keep track of multiple conversations between devices. To inquire for a nonreceived segment. To notify the remote device that the conversation is over.

Which two flags in the TCP header are used in a TCP three-way handshake to establish connectivity between two network devices? (Choose two.). FIN. PSH. RST. SYN. ACK. URG.

What TCP mechanism is used to enhance performance by allowing a device to continuously send a steady stream of segments as long as the device is also receiving necessary acknowledgements?. Sliding window. Two-way handshake. Socket pair. Three-way handshake.

Which action is performed by a client when establishing communication with a server via the use of UDP at the transport layer?. The client sets the window size for the session. The client sends a synchronization segment to begin the session. The client sends an ISN to the server to start the 3-way handshake. The client randomly selects a source port number.

Which two services or protocols use the preferred UDP protocol for fast transmission and low overhead? (Choose two). DNS. VolP. HTTP. FTP. POP3.

Which number or set of numbers represents a socket?. 10.1.1.15. 21. 192.168.1.1:80. 01-23-45-67-89-AB.

What is a responsibility of transport layer protocols?. Tracking individual conversations. Translating private IP addresses to public IP addresses. Providing network access. Determining the best path to forward a packet.

This layer of the OSI model is concerned with the protocols that exchange data between programs running on hosts. Network. Application. Physical. Transport.

MKV, GIF, and JPG standards are associated with which OSI layer?. Transport. Session. Application. Presentation.

These three OSI layers define the same functions as the TCP/IP model application layer. Presentation. Data link. Application. Session. Transport. Network.

Which two are protocols that belong in the OSI application layer?. DNS. SMTP. QuickTime. PNG.

This is a function of the OSI session layer. Exchange of information to initiate dialog between peers. Provide an interface between applications. Format data for the application layer. Compress and decompress data.

True or false? The peer-to-peer networking model requires the implementation of a dedicated server for data access. True. False.

True or false? In a peer-to-peer network environment every peer can function as both a client and a server. False. True.

Which peer-to-peer application allows users to share pieces of many files with each other at the same time?. Hybrid. Gnutella. BitTorrent.

Which of the following is a feature of the Gnutella protocol?. Users can share pieces of files with other users. Users can access an index server to get the location of resources shared by other users. Users can share whole files with other users.

This message type is used when uploading data files to a web server. POST. PUT. GET.

This protocol is used by a web browser to establish a connection to a web server. SSL. HTTP. IMAP. SMTP.

This protocol is used by a client to send email to a mail server. IMAP. HTTP. SMTP. POP.

Which is a feature of IMAP?. It downloads a copy of email messages leaving the original on the server. It uploads email messages to a server. It listens passively on port 110 for client requests.

True or false? HTTP is a secure protocol. False. True.

Which of the following DNS record types is used to resolve IPv6 addresses?. A. AAAA. MX. NS.

True or false? A DNS server that receives a request for a name resolution that is not within its DNS zone will send a failure message to the requesting client. False. True.

Which of the following is displayed by the nslookup utility?. The IP address of the end device. All cached DNS entries. The configured default DNS server.

Which of the following DNS resource record types resolves authoritative name servers?. NS. AAAA. MX. A.

How many connections are required by FTP between client and server?. 1. 2. 3. 4.

True or false? FTP data transfers take place from client to server (push) and from server to client (pull). True. False.

Which of these ports are used by FTP? (Choose two.). 21. 110. 25. 20.

True or false? Resource sharing over SMB is only supported on Microsoft operating systems. False. True.

On a home network, which device is most likely to provide dynamic IPv4 addressing to clients on the home network?. A dedicated file server. A home router. An ISP DHCP server. A DNS server.

What part of the URL, http://www.cisco.com/index.html, represents the top-level DNS domain?. .com. Www. Http. Index.

What are two characteristics of the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.). Responsibility for logical addressing. Responsibility for physical addressing. The creation and maintenance of dialogue between source and destination applications. Closest to the end user.

What message type is used by an HTTP client to request data from a web server?. GET. POST. PUT. ACK.

Which protocol can be used to transfer messages from an email server to an email client?. SMTP. POP3. SNMP. HTTP.

Which application layer protocol is used to provide file-sharing and print services to Microsoft applications?. HTTP. SMTP. DHCP. SMB.

Which three protocols or standards are used at the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.). TCP. HTTP. MPEG. GIF. IP. UDP.

Why is DHCP for IPv4 preferred for use on large networks?. Large networks send more requests for domain to IP address resolution than do smaller networks. DHCP uses a reliable transport layer protocol. It prevents sharing of files that are copyrighted. It is a more efficient way to manage IPv4 addresses than static address assignment is. Hosts on large networks require more IPv4 addressing configuration settings than do hosts on small networks.

An author is uploading one chapter document from a personal computer to a file server of a book publisher. What role is the personal computer assuming in this network model?. Client. Master. Server. Slave. Transient.

Which statement is true about FTP?. The client can choose if FTP is going to establish one or two connections with the server. The client can download data from or upload data to the server. FTP is a peer-to-peer application. FTP does not provide reliability during data transmission.

A wireless host needs to request an IPv4 address. What protocol would be used to process the request?. FTP. HTTP. DHCP. ICMP. SNMP.

Which TCP/IP model layer is closest to the end user?. Application. Internet. Network access. Transport.

When retrieving email messages, which protocol allows for easy, centralized storage and backup of emails that would be desirable for a small- to medium-sized business?. IMAP. POP. SMTP. HTTPS.

Which protocol uses encryption?. DHCP. DNS. FTP. HTTPS.

Which two tasks can be performed by a local DNS server? (Choose two.). Providing IP addresses to local hosts. Allowing data transfer between two network devices. Mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts. Forwarding name resolution requests between servers. Retrieving email messages.

Why does HTTP use TCP as the transport layer protocol?. because HTTP requires reliable delivery. because HTTP is a best-effort protocol. because transmission errors can be tolerated easily. to ensure the fastest possible download speed.

What is a characteristic of UDP?. UDP datagrams take the same path and arrive in the correct order at the destination. Applications that use UDP are always considered unreliable. UDP reassembles the received datagrams in the order they were received. UDP only passes data to the network when the destination is ready to receive the data.

How are port numbers used in the TCP/IP encapsulation process?. Destination port numbers are assigned automatically and cannot be changed. Source port numbers and destination port numbers are not necessary when UDP is the transport layer protocol being used for the communication. Source port and destination port numbers are randomly generated. If multiple conversations occur that are using the same service, the source port number is used to track the separate conversations.

Which three statements characterize UDP? (Choose three.). UDP provides connection-oriented, fast transport of data at Layer 3. UDP relies on IP for error detection and recovery. UDP is a low overhead protocol that does not provide sequencing or flow control mechanisms. UDP provides sophisticated flow control mechanisms. UDP provides basic connectionless transport layer functions. UDP relies on application layer protocols for error detection.

Which two types of applications are best suited for UDP? (Choose two.). applications that can tolerate some data loss, but require little or no delay. applications that need the reordering of segments. applications that need data flow control. applications that require reliable delivery. applications that handle reliability themselves.

What are two roles of the transport layer in data communication on a network? (Choose two.). providing frame delimiting to identify bits making up a frame. tracking the individual communication between applications on the source and destination hosts. identifying the proper application for each communication stream. providing the interface between applications and the underlying network over which messages are transmitted. performing a cyclic redundancy check on the frame for errors.

What kind of port must be requested from IANA in order to be used with a specific application?. source port. private port. dynamic port. registered port.

Which two fields are included in the TCP header but not in the UDP header? (Choose two.). sequence number. window. checksum. source port. destination port.

Which protocol or service uses UDP for a client-to-server communication and TCP for server-to-server communication?. HTTP. FTP. DNS. SMTP.

Which three application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.). HTTP. FTP. TFTP. SNMP. SMTP. DHCP.

What information is used by TCP to reassemble and reorder received segments?. port numbers. sequence numbers. acknowledgment numbers. fragment numbers.

What are three responsibilities of the transport layer? (Choose three.). directing packets towards the destination network. multiplexing multiple communication streams from many users or applications on the same network. meeting the reliability requirements of applications, if any. identifying the applications and services on the client and server that should handle transmitted data. conducting error detection of the contents in frames. formatting data into a compatible form for receipt by the destination devices.

What does a client do when it has UDP datagrams to send?. It just sends the datagrams. It sends a simplified three-way handshake to the server. It sends to the server a segment with the SYN flag set to synchronize the conversation. It queries the server to see if it is ready to receive data.

Which factor determines TCP window size?. the amount of data the source is capable of sending at one time. the number of services included in the TCP segment. the amount of data to be transmitted. the amount of data the destination can process at one time.

What is a common protocol that is used with peer-to-peer applications such as WireShare, Bearshare, and Shareaza?. POP. Ethernet. Gnutella. SMTP.

A manufacturing company subscribes to certain hosted services from its ISP. The services that are required include hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail. Which protocols represent these three key applications? (Choose three.). DHCP. HTTP. SMTP. SNMP. DNS. FTP.

What is true about the Server Message Block protocol?. SMB uses the FTP protocol for communication. SMB messages cannot authenticate a session. Clients establish a long term connection to servers. Different SMB message types have a different format.

What is a key characteristic of the peer-to-peer networking model?. social networking without the Internet. resource sharing without a dedicated server. network printing using a print server. wireless networking.

Which protocol is used by a client to communicate securely with a web server?. SMB. IMAP. SMTP. HTTPS.

What is the function of the HTTP GET message?. to request an HTML page from a web server. to upload content to a web server from a web client. to send error information from a web server to a web client. to retrieve client email from an email server using TCP port 110.

Which applications or services allow hosts to act as client and server at the same time?. email applications. authentication services. P2P applications. client/server applications.

What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.). scalability. one way data flow. resource sharing without a dedicated server. decentralized resources. centralized user accounts.

In what networking model would eDonkey, eMule, BitTorrent, Bitcoin, and LionShare be used?. client-based. peer-to-peer. point-to-point. master-slave.

Which two protocols may devices use in the application process that sends email? (Choose two.). IMAP. POP3. DNS. SMTP. POP. HTTP.

Which networking model is being used when an author uploads one chapter document to a file server of a book publisher?. point-to-point. peer-to-peer. client/server. master-slave.

Which layer in the TCP/IP model is used for formatting, compressing, and encrypting data?. session. presentation. network access. application. internetwork.

What do the client/server and peer-to-peer network models have in common?. Both models support devices in server and client roles. Both models have dedicated servers. Both models are used only in the wired network environment. Both models require the use of TCP/IP-based protocols.

What type of information is contained in a DNS MX record?. the IP address for an FQDN entry. the IP address of an authoritative name server. the FQDN of the alias used to identify a service. the domain name mapped to mail exchange servers.

Which three layers of the OSI model provide similar network services to those provided by the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.). presentation layer. application layer. data link layer. session layer. transport layer. physical layer.

Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?. A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two web sites. The transport layer ensures the correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window. A student is playing a short web-based movie with sound. The movie and sound are encoded within the transport layer header. A student is using a classroom VolP phone to call home. The unique identifier burned into the phone is a transport layer address used to contact another network device on the same network. A corporate worker is accessing a web server located on a corporate network. The transport layer formats the screen so the web page appears properly no matter what device is being used to view the web site.

A PC that is communicating with a web server has a TCP window size of 6,000 bytes when sending data and a packet size of 1,500 bytes. Which byte of information will the web server acknowledge after it has received two packets of data from the PC?. 6001. 3001. 4500. 6000.

A client creates a packet to send to a server. The client is requesting telnet service. What number will be used as the destination port number in the sending packet?. 443. 110. 23. 161.

What kind of threat is described when a threat actor sends you a virus that can reformat your hard drive?. Data loss or manipulation. Information theft. Disruption of service. Identify theft.

What kind of threat is described when a threat actor makes illegal online purchases using stolen credit information?. Identify theft. Data loss or manipulation. Information theft. Disruption of service.

What kind of threat is described when a threat actor prevents legal users from accessing data services?. Data loss or manipulation. Disruption of service. Information theft. Identify theft.

What kind of threat is described when a threat actor steals scientific research data?. Information theft. Identify theft. Disruption of service. Data loss or manipulation.

What kind of threat is described when a threat actor overloads a network to deny other users network access?. Data loss or manipulation. Information theft. Disruption of service. Identify theft.

What kind of threat is described when a threat actor alters data records?. Identify theft. Data loss or manipulation. Information theft. Disruption of service.

What kind of threat is described when a threat actor is stealing the user database of a company?. Data loss or manipulation. Disruption of service. Information theft. Identify theft.

What kind of threat is described when a threat actor impersonates another person to obtain credit information about that person?. Information theft. Data loss or manipulation. Disruption of service. Identify theft.

Angela, an IT staff member at ACME Inc., notices that communication with the company's web server is very slow. After investigating, she determines that the cause of the slow response is a computer on the internet sending a very large number of malformed web requests to ACME'S web server. What type of attack is described in this scenario?. Reconnaissance attack. Access attack. Malware attack. Denial of service (DoS) attack.

George needed to share a video with a co-worker. Because of the large size of the video file, he decided to run a simple FTP server on his workstation to serve the video file to his co-worker. To make things easier, George created an account with the simple password of "file" and provided it to his co-worker on Friday. Without the proper security measures or a strong password, the IT staff was not surprised to learn on Monday that George's workstation had been compromised and was trying to upload work related documents to the internet. What type of attack is described in this scenario?. Denial of service (DoS) attack. Access attack. Malware attack. Reconnaissance attack.

Jeremiah was browsing the internet from his personal computer when a random website offered a free program to clean his system. After the executable was downloaded and running, the operating system crashed. Crucial operating system related files had been corrupted and Jeremiah's computer required a full disk format and operating system re-installation. What type of attack is described in this scenario?. Access attack. Malware attack. Denial of service (DoS) attack. Reconnaissance attack.

Arianna found a flash drive lying on the pavement of a mall parking lot. She asked around but could not find the owner. She decided to keep it and plugged it into her laptop, only to find a photo folder. Feeling curious, Arianna opened a few photos before formatting the flash drive for her own use. Afterwards, Arianna noticed that her laptop camera was active. What type of attack is described in this scenario?. Access attack. Denial of service (DoS) attack. Malware attack. Reconnaissance attack.

A computer is used as a print server for ACME Inc. The IT staff failed to apply security updates to this computer for over 60 days. Now the print server is operating slowly, and sending a high number of malicious packets to its NIC. What type of attack is described in this scenario?. Malware attack. Denial of service (DoS) attack. Access attack. Reconnaissance attack.

Sharon, an IT intern at ACME Inc., noticed some strange packets while revising the security logs generated by the firewall. A handful of IP addresses on the internet were sending malformed packets to several different IP addresses, at several different random port numbers inside ACME Inc. What type of attack is described in this scenario?. Malware attack. Access attack. Denial of service (DoS) attack. Reconnaissance attack.

Which device controls traffic between two or more networks to help prevent unauthorized access?. AAA Server. ESA/WSA. IPS. Firewall.

Which device is used by other network devices to authenticate and authorize management access?. AAA Server. ESA/WSA. Firewall. IPS.

Which backup policy consideration is concerned with using strong passwords to protect the backups and for restoring data?. Security. Storage. Validation. Frequency.

This zone is used to house servers that should be accessible to outside users. Outside. DMZ. Inside. Internet.

Which is appropriate for providing endpoint security?. A AAA server. Antivirus software. A server-based firewall. An ESA/WSA.

Which component is designed to protect against unauthorized communications to and from a computer?. Security center. Port scanner. Antimalware. Antivirus. Firewall.

Which command will block login attempts on RouterA for a period of 30 seconds if there are 2 failed login attempts within 10 seconds?. RouterA(config)# login block-for 10 attempts 2 within 30. RouterA(config)# login block-for 30 attempts 2 within 10. RouterA(config)# login block-for 2 attempts 30 within 10. RouterA(config)# login block-for 30 attempts 10 within 2.

What is the purpose of the network security accounting function?. To require users to prove who they are. To determine which resources a user can access. To keep track of the actions of a user. To provide challenge and response questions.

What type of attack may involve the use of tools such as nslookup and fping?. Access attack. Reconnaissance attack. Denial of service attack. Worm attack.

Which benefit does SSH offer over Telnet for remotely managing a router?. Encryption. TCP usage. Authorization. Connections via multiple VTY lines.

What is one of the most effective security tools available for protecting users from external threats?. Firewalls. Router that run AAA services. Patch servers. Password encryption techniques.

Which type of network threat is intended to prevent authorized users from accessing resources?. DoS attacks. Access attacks. Reconnaissance attacks. Trust exploitation.

Which three services are provided by the AAA framework? (Choose three.). Accounting. Automation. Authorization. Authentication. Autobalancing. Autoconfiguration.

Which malicious code attack is self-contained and tries to exploit a specific vulnerability in a system being attacked?. Virus. Worm. Trojan horse. Social engineering.

Some routers and switches in a wiring closet malfunctioned after an air conditioning unit failed. What type of threat does this situation describe?. Configuration. Environmental. Electrical. Maintenance.

What does the term vulnerability mean?. A weakness that makes a target susceptible to an attack. A computer that contains sensitive information. A method of attack to exploit a target. A known target or victim machine. A potential threat that a hacker creates.

What three configuration steps must be performed to implement SSH access to a router? (Choose three.). A password on the console line. An IP domain name. A user account. An enable mode password. A unique hostname. An encrypted password.

What is the objective of a network reconnaissance attack?. Discovery and mapping of systems. Unauthorized manipulation of data. Disabling network systems or services. Denying access to resources by legitimate users.

For security reasons a network administrator needs to ensure that local computers cannot ping each other. Which settings can accomplish this task?. Smartcard settings. Firewall settings. MAC address settings. File system settings.

A network administrator establishes a connection to a switch via SSH. What characteristic uniquely describes the SSH connection?. Out-of-band access to a switch through the use of a virtual terminal with password authentication. Remote access to the switch through the use of a telephone dialup connection. On-site access to a switch through the use of a directly connected PC and a console cable. Remote access to a switch where data is encrypted during the session. Direct access to the switch through the use of a terminal emulation program.

Which statement correctly relates to a small network?. The majority of businesses are small. Small networks are complex. Small networks require an IT department to maintain.

Which factor must be considered when selecting network devices?. Cost. Color. Console connections. Elasticity.

What is necessary to plan and use when implementing a network?. Device names. Printer location. IP addressing scheme. MAC addressing scheme.

What is required to maintain a high degree of reliability and eliminate single points of failure?. Redundancy. Expandability. Integrity. Accessibility.

What is required to classify traffic according to priority?. Switching. IP addressing scheme. Quality of service (QoS). Routing.

What are two forms of software programs or processes that provide access to the network? (Choose two.). Application layer services. Gaming software. Network applications. Virtual machine software. Productivity software. Antivirus software.

Which two network protocols are used to establish a remote access network connection to a device? (Choose two.). Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). Secure Shell (SSH). File Transfer Protocol (FTP). Telnet. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP). Remote Connect (RC).

Which elements are required to scale to a larger network? (Choose two.). Windows hosts. Network documentation. Budget. Device configurations. Increased bandwidth.

Which software installed on key hosts can reveal the types of network traffic flowing through the network?. Windows. MacOS. Linux. Wireshark. SSH.

What Windows 10 tool is useful to determine which applications are using network services on a host?. Control panel. File Manager. Data Usage. Windows Explorer. Windows Defender Firewall.

A technician is troubleshooting a network problem and has just established a theory of probable causes. What would be the next step in the troubleshooting process?. Document findings, actions, and outcomes. Test the theory to determine cause. Identify the problem. Establish a plan of action and implement the solution. Verify solution and implement preventive measures.

A technician is troubleshooting a network problem. After troubleshooting, the technician concludes that a switch should be replaced. What should the technician do next?. Purchase a new switch and replace the defective one. Resolve the problem. Escalate the trouble ticket to the manager to approve the change. Email all users to let them know they are replacing a switch.

A technician is using the debug ip icmp privileged EXEC command to capture live router output. Which commands would stop this debug command on a Cisco router? (Choose two.). debug ip icmp off. undebug all. no debug debug ip icmp. undebug debug ip icmp. no debug ip icmp.

A technician has established a remote connection to router R1 to observe debug output. The technician enters the debug ip icmp command then pings a remote destination. However, no output is displayed. Which command would the technician have to enter to display log messages on a remote connection?. terminal monitor. terminal monitor debug. monitor debug output. monitor terminal.

Which network design consideration would be more important to a large corporation than to a small business?. Redundancy. Low port density switch. Internet router. Firewall.

A newly hired network technician is given the task of ordering new hardware for a small business with a large growth forecast. Which primary factor should the technician be concerned with when choosing the new devices?. Devices that have support for network monitoring. Devices with a fixed number and type of interfaces. Devices with support for modularity. Redundant devices.

What type of traffic would most likely have the highest priority through the network?. FTP. Instant messaging. Voice. SNMP.

A network technician is investigating network connectivity from a PC to a remote host with the address 10.1.1.5. Which command, when issued on a Windows PC, will display the path to the remote host?. trace 10.1.1.5. traceroute 10.1.1.5. tracert 10.1.1.5. ping 10.1.1.5.

A user is unable to reach the website when typing http://www.cisco.com in a web browser, but can reach the same site by typing http://72.163.4.161. What is the issue?. Default gateway. DHCP. DNS. TCP/IP protocol stack.

Where are Cisco IOS debug output messages sent by default?. Memory buffers. Vty lines. Syslog server. Console line.

Which element of scaling a network involves identifying the physical and logical topologies?. Traffic analysis. Network documentation. Device inventory. Cost analysis.

What mechanism can be implemented in a small network to help minimize network latency for real-time streaming applications?. QoS. PoE. AAA. ICMP.

Which process failed if a computer cannot access the internet and received an IP address of 169.254.142.5?. IP. DNS. DHCP. HTTP.

A small company has only one router as the exit point to its ISP. Which solution could be adopted to maintain connectivity if the router itself, or its connection to the ISP, fails?. Activate another router interface that is connected to the ISP, so the traffic can flow through it. Have a second router that is connected to another ISP. Purchase a second least-cost link from another ISP to connect to this router. Add more interfaces to the router that is connected to the internal network.

When should an administrator establish a network baseline?. When the traffic is at peak in the network. When there is a sudden drop in traffic. At the lowest point of traffic in the network. At regular intervals over a period of time.

Which two traffic types require delay sensitive delivery? (Choose two.). Email. Web. FTP. Voice. Video.

A network technician suspects that a particular network connection between two Cisco switches is having a duplex mismatch. Which command would the technician use to see the Layer 1 and Layer 2 details of a switch port?. show interfaces. show running-config. show ip interface brief. show mac-address-table.

Which statement is true about CDP on a Cisco device?. The show cdp neighbor detail command will reveal the IP address of a neighbor only if there is Layer 3 connectivity. To disable CDP globally, the no cdp enable command in interface configuration mode must be used. CDP can be disabled globally or on a specific interface. Because it runs at the data link layer, the CDP protocol can only be implemented in switches.

What factor should be considered in the design of a small network when devices are being chosen?. Cost of devices. Redundancy. Traffic analysis. ISP.

Identify the steps needed to configure a switch for SSH. The answer order does not matter. Create a local user. Generate RSA keys. Configure a domain name. Use the login local command. Use the transport input ssh command.

Match the description to the type of firewall filtering. packet filtering. URL filtering. application filtering. stateful packet inspection.

Match each weakness with an example. configuration weakness. technological weakness. security policy weakness.

What is the difference between a virus and a worm?. Viruses hide in legitimate programs but worms do not. Worms self-replicate but viruses do not. Viruses self-replicate but worms do not. Worms require a host file but viruses do not.

What is the role of an IPS?. detecting and blocking of attacks in real time. filtering of nefarious websites. authenticating and validating traffic. connecting global threat information to Cisco network security devices.

What is the purpose of the network security authentication function?. to determine which resources a user can access. to require users to prove who they are. to provide challenge and response questions. to keep track of the actions of a user.

A user is redesigning a network for a small company and wants to ensure security at a reasonable price. The user deploys a new application-aware firewall with intrusion detection capabilities on the ISP connection. The user installs a second firewall to separate the company network from the public network. Additionally, the user installs an IPS on the internal network of the company. What approach is the user implementing?. structured. risk based. layered. attack based.

What is the advantage of using SSH over Telnet?. SSH operates faster than Telnet. SSH provides secure communications to access hosts. SSH is easier to use. SSH supports authentication for a connection request.

Match the type of information security threat to the scenario. information theft. data loss. disruption of service. identity theft.

What feature of SSH makes it more secure than Telnet for a device management connection?. random one-time port connection. confidentiality with IPsec. login information and data encryption. stronger password requirement.

Which example of malicious code would be classified as a Trojan horse?. malware that was written to look like a video game. malware that attaches itself to a legitimate program and spreads to other programs when launched. malware that requires manual user intervention to spread between systems. malware that can automatically spread from one system to another by exploiting a vulnerability in the target.

A network technician issues the C:> tracert -6 www.cisco.com command on a Windows PC. What is the purpose of the -6 command option?. It limits the trace to only 6 hops. It sends 6 probes within each TTL time period. It forces the trace to use IPv6. It sets a 6 milliseconds timeout for each replay.

What is the purpose of a small company using a protocol analyzer utility to capture network traffic on the network segments where the company is considering a network upgrade?. to identify the source and destination of local network traffic. to capture the Internet connection bandwidth requirement. to document and analyze network traffic requirements on each network segment. to establish a baseline for security analysis after the network is upgraded.

What information about a Cisco router can be verified using the show version command?. the operational status of serial interfaces. the routing protocol version that is enabled. the value of the configuration register. the administrative distance used to reach networks.

Refer to the exhibit. Host H3 is having trouble communicating with host H1. The network administrator suspects a problem exists with the H3 workstation and wants to prove that there is no problem with the R2 configuration. What tool could the network administrator use on router R2 to prove that communication exists to host H1 from the interface on R2, which is the interface that H3 uses when communicating with remote networks?. an extended ping. traceroute. show cdp neighbors. telnet.

Which command can an administrator execute to determine what interface a router will use to reach remote networks?. show ip route. show interfaces. show arp. show protocols.

A user reports a lack of network connectivity. The technician takes control of the user machine and attempts to ping other computers on the network and these pings fail. The technician pings the default gateway and that also fails. What can be determined for sure by the results of these tests?. The NIC in the PC is bad. The router that is attached to the same network as the workstation is down. The TCP/IP protocol is not enabled. Nothing can be determined for sure at this point.

Users are complaining that they are unable to browse certain websites on the Internet. An administrator can successfully ping a web server via its IP address, but cannot browse to the domain name of the website. Which troubleshooting tool would be most useful in determining where the problem is?. ipconfig. tracert. nslookup. netstat.

Which command can an administrator issue on a Cisco router to send debug messages to the vty lines?. logging buffered. logging console. terminal monitor. logging synchronous.

Which network service automatically assigns IP addresses to devices on the network?. Traceroute. Telnet. DNS. DHCP.

A network engineer is analyzing reports from a recently performed network baseline. Which situation would depict a possible latency issue?. an increase in host-to-host ping response times. a change in the bandwidth according to the show interfaces output. a next-hop timeout from a traceroute. a change in the amount of RAM according to the show version output.

Switch# ping 10.1.1.1 Type escape sequence to abort. Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 10.1.1.1, timeout is 2 seconds: UUUUU Success rate is 0 percent (0/5) Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is testing connectivity to a remote device with the IP address 10.1.1.1. What does the output of this command indicate?. Connectivity to the remote device was successful. A ping packet is being blocked by a security device along the path. A router along the path did not have a route to the destination. The connection timed out while waiting for a reply from the remote device.

A network administrator is upgrading a small business network to give high priority to real-time applications traffic. What two types of network services is the network administrator trying to accommodate? (Choose two.). FTP. Instant messaging. Vided. SNMP. Voice.

Why would a network administrator use the tracert utility?. to determine the active TCP connections on a PC. to check information about a DNS name in the DNS server. to identify where a packet was lost or delayed on a network. to display the IP address, default gateway, and DNS server address for a PC.

Which command should be used on a Cisco router or switch to allow log messages to be displayed on remotely connected sessions using Telnet or SSH?. logging synchronous. show running-config. debug all. terminal monitor.

By following a structured troubleshooting approach, a network administrator identified a network issue after a conversation with the user. What is the next step that the administrator should take?. Establish a theory of probable causes. Verify full system functionality. Establish a plan of action to resolve the issue. Test the theory to determine cause.

A network engineer is troubleshooting connectivity issues among interconnected Cisco routers and switches. Which command should the engineer use to find the IP address information, host name, and IOS version of neighboring network devices?. show interfaces. show ip route. show cdp neighbors detail. show version.

What is considered the most effective way to mitigate a worm attack?. Ensure that all systems have the most current virus definitions. Ensure that AAA is configured in the network. Change system passwords every 30 days. Download security updates from the operating system vendor and patch all vulnerable systems.

On which two interfaces or ports can security be improved by configuring executive timeouts? (Choose two.). vty ports. serial interfaces. loopback interfaces. fast Ethernet interfaces. console ports.

Which statement describes the ping and tracert commands?. Tracert uses IP addresses; ping does not. Ping shows whether the transmission is successful; tracert does not. Tracert shows each hop, while ping shows a destination reply only. Both ping and tracert can show results in a graphical display.

When configuring SSH on a router to implement secure network management, a network engineer has issued the login local and transport input ssh line vty commands. What three additional configuration actions have to be performed to complete the SSH configuration? (Choose three.). Generate the asymmetric RSA keys. Create a valid local username and password database. Manually enable SSH after the RSA keys are generated. Configure the correct IP domain name. Configure role-based CLI access. Set the user privilege levels.

A technician is to document the current configurations of all network devices in a college, including those in off-site buildings. Which protocol would be best to use to securely access the network devices?. Telnet. SSH. HTTP. FTP.

An administrator decides to use "12345678!" as the password on a newly installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?. It is weak since it is a word that is easily found in the dictionary. It is strong because it uses a passphrase. It is weak because it uses a series of numbers or letters. It is strong because it uses a minimum of 10 numbers, letters and special characters.

A student wants to save a router configuration to NVRAM. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?. show ip nat translations. show interfaces. copy running-config startup-config. show ip route.