Suwnice

A technical device subject to technical supervision may be operated on the basis of: a) a verbal or written authorization issued by an authorized maintenance technician. b) a valid decision authorizing operation issued by the competent technical supervision authority. c) the CE marking affixed to the device. d) a declaration of conformity issued by the manufacturer.

2. Which of the following activities does not belong to the scope of duties of a UTB operator?. a) performing minor repairs of the device within the scope of the operator’s education and skills. b) complying with the operating instructions regarding the operation of the UTB. c) becoming familiar with the work plan and the weight of the loads being transported. d) all answers are correct.

3. The deadlines for maintenance inspections of technical devices: a) are included in the device’s operating instructions. b) are determined by the maintenance technician. c) are determined by the inspector performing the inspection in the report. d) all answers are correct.

4. Technical supervision is defined as: a) actions specified by law aimed at ensuring the safe operation of technical devices and fuel vapor recovery devices, as well as actions aimed at ensuring public safety in these areas. b) institutions controlling the technical condition of devices. c) the Office of Technical Supervision. d) UDT, WDT, TDT.

5. Technical supervision over technical devices is carried out by: a) the Office of Technical Supervision and specialized technical supervision units. b) the Office of Technical Supervision and organizations authorized by the UDT. c) the Office of Technical Supervision and foreign technical supervision units. d) all answers are correct.

6. A change in technical parameters or a change in the structure of a technical device is treated as: a) modernization of the technical device. b) repair of the technical device. c) removal of faults and other irregularities of the technical device. d) manufacture of a new device.

7. An agreed repair or modernization of technical devices may be carried out by: a) a repairer or modernizer who holds an authorization issued by the competent technical supervision authority. b) the operator of the technical device who has appropriate experience in the field of repairs or modernization. c) a maintenance technician who has appropriate experience in the field of repairs or modernization. d) to a limited extent, a competent operator.

8. The Technical Supervision Act defines the following forms of technical supervision: a) total, partial, limited. b) full, limited, simplified. c) full, cyclical, sporadic. d) UDT, WDT, TDT.

9. The decision authorizing the operation of a technical device is issued by: a) the maintenance technician after performing an inspection with a positive result. b) the competent technical supervision authority or the operator of the technical device with authorization from the competent technical supervision authority. c) the competent technical supervision authority or a public administration authority with authorization from the competent technical supervision authority. d) the competent technical supervision authority.

10. An operator of a technical device may commence work when: a) the device has a valid decision authorizing its operation, if required by relevant regulations. b) the operator holds a qualification certificate of the appropriate category. c) the device has a current positive result of a maintenance inspection. d) all of the above conditions must be met simultaneously.

11. An operator of a technical device may commence work when: a) the device has a current entry in the maintenance log confirming its operability. b) the operator has completed appropriate workplace training. c) the device has a valid decision authorizing its operation. d) all of the above conditions must be met simultaneously.

12. In the event of non-compliance by the operator with technical supervision regulations, the operator: a) receives a written warning. b) receives post-inspection recommendations. c) is subject to a fine or a penalty of restriction of liberty. d) answers a and b are correct.

13. In the event that a threat to human life or health, as well as to property and the environment, is identified, the inspector: a) issues a decision suspending the operation of the technical device. b) issues a penal fine. c) provides written instructions to the operator. d) all answers are correct.

14. In the event of a dangerous damage to a technical device or an accident, the operator: a) immediately notifies the UDT of the incident. b) informs the manufacturer of the device about the causes of the incident. c) immediately repairs the device and hands it over for further operation. d) reports the device for repair.

15. A qualification certificate for operation may be revoked by: a) the competent technical supervision authority. b) the operator of the technical device. c) the occupational health and safety inspector. d) the State Labour Inspectorate.

16. Technical devices not subject to technical supervision are: a) cranes with a lifting capacity of up to 3.2 t. b) hoists and winches as well as overhead cranes. c) forklift trucks and mobile platforms. d) transport slings.

17. Technical devices subject to technical supervision are: a) cable conveyors and chairlifts. b) warehouse stacker cranes and devices for persons with disabilities. c) freight lifts and ship lifts. d) all answers are correct.

18. Dangerous damage to a technical device is: a) any failure of a UTB. b) unforeseen damage as a result of which the device is suitable for partial operation. c) unforeseen damage as a result of which it is suitable for operation only with reduced parameters. d) unforeseen damage as a result of which the device is not suitable for operation or its continued operation constitutes a hazard.

19. An accident is: a) a sudden event that caused bodily injury or death. b) a sudden event that caused a work interruption. c) a sudden event resulting in the withdrawal of the technical device from operation. d) any failure of a UTB caused by a random cause.

20. Lifting and transporting persons using a technical device intended exclusively for the transport of loads requires: a) approval from the competent technical supervision authority. b) approval from the supervisor. c) approval from the occupational health and safety service. d) it is possible provided that special caution is exercised and under the supervision of an inspector.

21. The person responsible for ensuring proper operation and maintenance of a technical device is: a) the operator of the technical device. b) the competent technical supervision authority. c) the State Labour Inspectorate. d) the UDT inspector.

22. Maintenance inspections required by law are carried out by: a) a person holding a qualification certificate for maintenance. b) an employee of the manufacturer’s authorized service (provided they hold qualification certificates for maintenance). c) the company’s internal maintenance services. d) answers a and b are correct.

23. The maintenance log of a technical device is kept by: a) a UDT inspector in the device’s inspection book. b) an authorized operator. c) an employee designated by the operator. d) the maintenance technician of the technical device.

24. Acceptance inspections are carried out for technical devices: a) within the deadlines specified in the regulation on technical supervision conditions. b) before issuing the first decision authorizing operation. c) after repair of the technical device. d) after each change of the operator.

25. Periodic inspections are carried out for technical devices subject to supervision: a) limited. b) full. c) simplified. d) all answers are correct.

26. The absence of the maintenance technician during the inspection of a technical device requires at least: a) prior notification of this fact to the competent technical supervision authority. b) submission of a written justification for the maintenance technician’s absence. c) submission of a medical certificate confirming the maintenance technician’s inability to work. d) all answers are correct.

27. A candidate for operating a technical device must: a) be at least 18 years old. b) have at least vocational education. c) have at least 1 year of work experience. d) all answers are correct.

28. An operator of a technical device is obliged to stop work when: a) their physical and mental condition on the working day is inappropriate. b) they determine that continued operation of the device poses a hazard. c) the device is malfunctioning. d) all answers are correct.

29. The deadlines for maintenance inspections of a device may be specified: a) in the device’s operating instructions. b) in the Technical Supervision Act. c) in the regulation defining the technical conditions of technical supervision. d) answers a and c are correct.

30. The deadlines for periodic and ad hoc control inspections of UTB are specified: a) in the Technical Supervision Act. b) in the regulation defining the technical conditions of technical supervision. c) in the device’s design documentation. d) in the maintenance log.

31. The duty of an operator of a technical device is: a) to comply with the operating instructions regarding the operation of the device. b) to comply with the operating instructions regarding the maintenance of the device. c) to carry out repairs of the device. d) all answers are correct.

32. A technical device may be operated on the basis of: a) a current sticker from the competent technical supervision authority indicating the date of the next inspection. b) a current entry by the device’s maintenance technician in the maintenance log. c) a valid decision authorizing operation issued by the competent technical supervision authority. d) a positive report from a periodic or acceptance inspection.

33. After carrying out activities on a technical device, the inspector prepares: a) the operating instructions for the device. b) a decision and a report of the activities carried out. c) a CE declaration of conformity. d) all answers are correct.

34. Repair and modernization of a technical device are carried out by: a) the operator within the scope of their skills. b) the maintenance technician. c) an authorized workshop. d) the operator (user) of the device.

35. The person directly responsible for the safe operation of a technical device is: a) the device operator. b) the device manufacturer. c) the company’s Health and Safety inspector. d) the UDT inspector.

36. Information regarding the rules of safe operation of the device is contained in: a) the device operating manual. b) the Technical Inspection Act. c) the maintenance logbook. d) the inspection report prepared by the UDT inspector.

37. As part of the activities before starting work, the operator: a) checks the technical condition of the device by visual inspection. b) performs static and dynamic tests. c) performs functional tests of the device. d) answers a and c are correct.

38. Qualification certificates for operating technical devices subject to technical inspection are issued by: a) a training company after passing a verification exam. b) a Health and Safety inspector based on a course completion certificate. c) the employer based on a passed exam. d) the competent authority of the technical inspection unit.

39. Overloading UTB during operation: a) is prohibited. b) is permitted. c) is permitted but only up to 125% of the nominal load capacity. d) is permitted but only up to 110% of the nominal load capacity.

40. Extraordinary operational inspections are carried out, among others: a) after each fault removal by the maintenance technician. b) after replacement of load-bearing elements. c) once a year. d) after an accident involving the device.

41. The duties of the operator are defined in: a) the device operating manual. b) the maintenance logbook. c) the Technical Inspection Act. d) all answers are correct.

42. Periodic inspections of a technical device are carried out by: a) a maintenance technician holding the appropriate qualification certificate. b) an inspector of the competent technical inspection authority. c) an employee of the manufacturer’s service department. d) the operator.

43. A technical inspection authority is: a) the Office of Technical Inspection (UDT). b) the Military Technical Inspection. c) the Transport Technical Inspection. d) all answers are correct.

44. Qualification certificates authorizing the operation of technical devices are valid within: a) the territory of the Republic of Poland. b) the European Union. c) they have no defined area of validity. d) the Schengen Area countries.

45. The obligation for operators of technical devices to use personal protective equipment results from: a) the manufacturer’s operating instructions. b) occupational health and safety regulations. c) internal company regulations. d) all answers are correct.

46. According to the Regulation of the Council of Ministers on the types of technical devices subject to technical inspection, the following are subject to technical inspection: a) lifts, cranes, overhead cranes, winches and hoists. b) powered industrial trucks with mechanical lifting drive, mobile platforms. c) cableway cranes, cable cars and chairlifts. d) all answers are correct.

47. The operating manual may not contain: a) information on the dates and scope of UTB maintenance inspections. b) basic parameters and intended use of UTB. c) dates of technical inspections carried out by the inspection authority. d) information on how to operate the device.

48. The device inspection logbook must contain: a) a set of reports from inspections carried out by the inspection authority. b) a document in which maintenance inspections are recorded. c) the content of current legal acts. d) a list of authorized operators.

49. A decision issued by the UDT: a) is not subject to appeal. b) may be modified by an inspector of the National Labour Inspectorate (PIP). c) may be appealed by the operator. d) all answers are incorrect.

50. A person may take the qualification verification exam if they: a) have submitted an application for qualification verification. b) are at least 18 years old. c) have no medical contraindications for operating technical devices. d) all answers are correct.

51. After completing a technical inspection with a positive result, the UDT inspector: a) extends the validity of the operator’s qualification certificate. b) labels the device with a sticker that constitutes permission to use the device. c) informs the user in writing in the maintenance logbook that consent for operation is granted. d) prepares a report of the performed activities and issues an administrative decision authorizing operation.

52. Qualification certificates: a) are valid indefinitely. b) are time-limited, with the validity period depending on the number of points obtained in the exam. c) are time-limited, with the validity period in accordance with the provisions of the regulation on the procedure for qualification verification. d) are valid for a period of 15 years.

53. A person who carries out modifications to a technical device without agreement with the competent technical inspection authority: a) is subject to a fine or a penalty of restriction of liberty. b) is subject to a penal fine. c) is not subject to a penalty. d) all answers are incorrect.

54. Anyone who allows a technical device to be put into operation without a valid decision authorizing operation: a) is subject to a fine or a penalty of restriction of liberty. b) is not subject to a penalty if no accident occurs. c) is subject exclusively to a fine. d) is subject to imprisonment.

55. The operating manual is: a) a set of information necessary for the safe operation of the device, provided by the manufacturer. b) a set of recommendations issued by the Office of Technical Inspection. c) an instruction that must be prepared by the user of the device. d) all answers are correct.

56. A qualification certificate for operation is not required: a) if the device is operated by its owner. b) if all mechanisms of the device are manually driven. c) if the device is used for private, non-commercial purposes. d) for persons over 60 years of age.

57. A person holding qualification certificates may operate: a) only the devices listed within the scope of the authorization. b) all devices subject to technical inspection. c) other devices subject to technical inspection with the employer’s consent. d) all UTB with a load capacity of up to 3.2 t.

58. It is the duty of the operator of a technical device to: a) refuse to operate the device if the decision authorizing its operation has expired. b) always comply with the superior’s orders requiring operation of the device. c) comply with the provisions contained in the operating manual. d) answers a and c are correct.

59. Qualification certificates for operating technical devices are: a) valid within the European Union. b) valid when accompanied by an identity document. c) valid indefinitely. d) all answers are correct.

60. An operator who witnesses an accident is obliged to: a) provide assistance to the accident victim(s). b) secure the accident site. c) notify the superior. d) all answers are correct.

61. An operator is not allowed to: a) lift loads whose weight they cannot determine. b) check the technical condition of the device. c) comply with the provisions contained in the operating manual. d) carry out external visual inspections of the device.

62. The forms of technical inspection are: a) full inspection, simplified inspection, limited inspection. b) acceptance inspection, periodic inspection and ad hoc inspection. c) UDT, TDT, WDT. d) all answers are correct.

63. Lifting persons using devices designed and manufactured exclusively for lifting loads: a) is permitted, provided an appropriate level of safety is ensured. b) is prohibited. c) is permitted after agreement with the competent technical inspection authority on detailed operating conditions. d) is permitted exceptionally on the basis of a written order from a superior.

64. Lifting loads using two or more UTB: a) is permitted provided that the operator prepares detailed operating conditions describing organizational and technical measures minimizing risk. b) is always permitted if the load weight does not exceed the sum of the capacities of the devices used. c) is permitted if the load weight does not exceed half of the capacity of each device used. d) is never permitted.

65. The presence of persons under a suspended load is: a) always prohibited. b) permitted for persons inspecting the underside of the load. c) permitted if the safety factor of the lifting elements is at least 5. d) permitted if the safety factor of the lifting elements is at least 7.

66. Transporting loads over people is: a) permitted provided written authorization is obtained from the person supervising the transport. b) permitted after ensuring safety factors for lifting elements and gripping devices greater than 10. c) permitted provided persons are informed and equipped with personal protective equipment. d) all answers are incorrect.

67. Qualification certificates for operating technical devices subject to technical inspection are issued by: a) the owner of the device. b) UDT, TDT, WDT. c) the National Labour Inspectorate (PIP). d) all answers are incorrect.

68. The examination committee informs the interested person about the exam result: a) within 7 days after the exam, in written form. b) immediately after the exam. c) within 14 days after the exam, in electronic form. d) by registered letter or email after 30 working days from the exam date.

69. The maintenance logbook should be kept: a) only in paper form. b) in electronic or paper form. c) only in electronic form. d) by the operator.

70. The workplace instruction: a) is always provided together with the operating manual by the device manufacturer. b) constitutes an unwritten set of customs adopted in the workplace. c) is issued by the employer and contains detailed guidelines on occupational health and safety at the workplace. d) does not apply to operators of mobile devices.

71. After the expiry of the qualification certificate for operating a device, the operator: a) may operate UTB provided they continue working for the same employer. b) may operate UTB provided they submit an application for a new certificate. c) may operate UTB only after obtaining a new qualification certificate. d) submits an application for extension of the validity period of the qualification certificate.

72. Extension of the validity of a qualification certificate takes place: a) upon written application by the operator. b) automatically after the expiry of the certificate validity period. c) upon written notification by the operator’s employer. d) after prior telephone notification.

73. The load capacity of a UTB is a device parameter directly related to: a) the maximum lifting height of the load. b) the maximum volume of the lifted load. c) the maximum mass of the lifted load. d) the product of the mass and volume of the lifted load.

74. The net mass of 1000 liters of water is approximately: a) 800 kg. b) 900 kg. c) 1000 kg. d) 1100 kg.

75. The mass of a load consisting of 40 packages of 25 kg each is: a) 800 kg. b) 1000 kg. c) 1100 kg. d) 900 kg.

76. The mass of 60 cartons weighing 20 kg each is: a) 800 kg. b) 1000 kg. c) 1100 kg. d) 1200 kg.

77. The mass of the lifted load can be determined based on: a) the collective label attached to the transported load. b) calculation taking into account specific weight and volume. c) transport and warehouse documentation. d) all answers are correct.

78. Information about the load capacity of the device may be included: a) in the operating manual. b) on the nameplate. c) on the technical device itself. d) all answers are correct.

79. The correct unit for load capacity is: a) kg. b) Pa. c) mth. d) mm.

80. The crane switch: a) should be located on the crane bridge. b) may be replaced by an emergency stop switch “STOP”. c) should have the possibility of being locked in the ON position. d) should have the possibility of being locked in the OFF position.

81. Safety supports are: a) elements used to prevent foreign objects from getting under the crane wheels. b) elements protecting against the consequences of a break of the crane traveling wheel or its axle. c) elements used to prevent unintentional movement of the crane. d) elements protecting the structure of the trackway.

82. Scrapers are: a) elements used to prevent foreign objects from getting under the crane wheels. b) elements protecting against the consequences of a break of the crane traveling wheel. c) elements used to prevent unintentional movement of the crane. d) elements protecting the structure of the trackway.

83. Rail clamps are: a) elements used to prevent foreign objects from getting under the crane wheels. b) elements protecting against the consequences of a break of the crane traveling wheel. c) elements used to prevent unintentional movement of the crane. d) elements protecting the structure of the trackway.

84. What are the differences between a hoist and a winch?. a) hoist: compact design; winch: mounted on a frame with visible components. b) hoist: mounted on a frame with visible components; winch: compact design. c) there is no difference, they are the same devices. d) all answers are incorrect.

85. Electrical safety devices used in the construction of overhead cranes include: a) rail scrapers. b) safety supports. c) crane mechanism motors. d) limit switches.

86. Mechanical safety devices used in the construction of overhead cranes include: a) safety supports. b) starting resistors. c) STOP switches. d) safety brakes.

87. Which load-bearing structural element connects the end carriages?. a) gearbox. b) hoist. c) winch. d) girder.

88. Where are safety supports installed?. a) on the crane platform. b) on the lower flange of the end carriage. c) at the ends of the runway. d) on the starting resistors.

89. How many rope-pressing elements should be installed on the rope drum?. a) according to the manufacturer’s documentation. b) minimum 4. c) more than 3. d) 4 over a section of at least 1.5 rope turns on the drum.

90. The main switch should not disconnect the circuits of: a) power supply of the travel motors. b) crane control system. c) power supply of the crane. d) crane lighting.

91. The main elements of the load-bearing structure of an overhead crane are: a) end carriages and girders. b) buffers and girders. c) load-bearing ropes and hook block. d) none of the above answers is correct.

92. What is the purpose of the zero-position interlock?. a) it prevents switching on the main contactor when at least one controller is not in the neutral position. b) it cuts off the crane power supply in an emergency situation. c) it prevents changing the control lever position when the main contactor is not switched on. d) it ensures proper zeroing of the crane’s steel structure.

93. In the lifting mechanisms of general-purpose overhead cranes, the following brakes should be used: a) automatic. b) band brakes. c) three drum brakes. d) at least two disc brakes.

94. The STOP switch: a) completely disconnects the crane power supply. b) is a safety switch. c) disconnects the electromagnetic gripping circuit. d) must automatically return to the initial position after being released.

95. The “crane switch” should be located: a) on the crane bridge. b) in the control cabin. c) in a generally accessible place, at working level. d) in the immediate vicinity of the control cabinet.

96. Mechanical-type safety elements are: a) bumpers, buffers, wind clamps. b) bumpers, buffers, rail scrapers. c) bumpers, buffers, protective railings. d) all answers are correct.

97. Which of the following elements are mechanical-type safety devices?. a) bumpers, buffers, wind clamps, support shoes, hook throat safety latch, load limiter. b) bumpers, buffers, wind clamps, main switch, hook throat safety latch, guards. c) bumpers, buffers, wind clamps, support shoes, hook throat safety latch, guards. d) bumpers, buffers, wind clamps, end and limit switches.

98. Unless otherwise specified by the manufacturer, what is the permissible wear of the hook throat of a general-purpose overhead crane?. a) 5%. b) 3%. c) 10%. d) 7%.

99. Unless otherwise specified by the manufacturer, what is the permissible opening of the hook throat?. a) 2%. b) 5%. c) 7%. d) 10%.

100. What mechanical safety devices are installed on the end carriage?. a) bumpers, wind clamps, support shoes. b) buffers, wind clamps, support shoes. c) bumpers, support shoes, brakes. d) bumpers, buffers, support shoes, rail clamps.

101. Unless otherwise specified by the manufacturer, what is the permissible reduction of the rope diameter due to wear of the outer wire layer?. a) up to 3%. b) 10% but not more than 5 mm. c) up to 15%. d) up to 7%.

102. Should every overhead crane operating outdoors be equipped with a wind speed indicator (anemometer)?. a) yes. b) no. c) it depends on the type of control (from a cabin or from working level). d) no, if it is equipped with wind clamps.

103. Should every overhead crane operating outdoors be equipped with wind clamps?. a) yes. b) no. c) yes, if its span exceeds 25 m. d) only gantry and semi-gantry cranes are equipped with wind clamps.

104. Must every overhead crane operated from a cabin be equipped with a zero-position interlock?. a) always when controllers or control devices are used. b) the zero-position interlock is not required if, after a power failure, the main contactor disconnects automatically. c) always when controllers or control devices without return springs are used. d) only when all crane mechanisms are driven by frequency inverters.

105. The safety switch “STOP” is used for: a) protecting the crane against unauthorized use after work is completed. b) immediately stopping the operation of the device in emergency situations. c) activating emergency brakes in the event of failure of the main brake. d) all of the above answers are correct.

106. Crane buffers are: a) fixed safety elements located at the end of the runway. b) mechanical safety elements installed on the crane end carriages. c) both elements located at the ends of the runways and those installed on the end carriages. d) none of the above answers is correct.

107. A complete check of the lifting mechanism brake consists of: a) lifting a load not exceeding the rated capacity to a height of 2 m, then lowering it and stopping it abruptly. b) lifting a load not exceeding the rated capacity to a small height so that it loses contact with the ground, observing whether it does not descend on its own, and then lifting, lowering and stopping it abruptly. c) operating the lowering mechanism without load in the downward direction and observing whether the block stops before reaching the working level. d) operating the lowering mechanism without load in the upward direction and observing whether the block stops before reaching the working level.

108. The function of the support lug is to: a) stop the crane if the bridge travel limit switch fails. b) protect the gantry crane against the effects of strong wind gusts. c) protect the hoist or winch from falling in the event of rope failure. d) protect the crane against the effects of a running wheel failure.

109. The zero-position interlock of overhead cranes operated from a cabin prevents: a) starting the device by unauthorized persons. b) automatic start-up of the device after voltage appears in the control system. c) disconnection of the crane control system when wind clamps are activated. d) operation of the crane if a lack of zeroing is detected.

110. What are wind protection devices used for?. a) they protect against the effects of a lightning strike on the crane structure. b) they protect against unintended movement of the crane. c) they are used for intentional braking of the crane travel mechanism during operation. d) they are used to immobilize the bridge structure in order to safely operate the crane during strong winds.

111. The picture shows a crane: a) cantilever crane. b) gantry crane. c) rail-mounted crane with jib. d) semi-gantry crane.

112. The upper limit switch of the lifting mechanism: a) is responsible for braking the load during the lifting cycle. b) facilitates the operator’s work, as the operator does not need to observe the load in the upper position because the limit switch automatically stops lifting at the appropriate moment. c) serves to protect the crane against damage and rope breakage. d) all of the above answers are correct.

113. What does the marking on the crane bridge Q = 10 t + 10 t mean?. a) the crane has a nominal lifting capacity of 10 t. b) the crane has a mass of 10 t and a nominal lifting capacity of 10 t. c) the crane has two lifting mechanisms. d) depending on the number of rope falls, the crane’s lifting capacity is 10 t or 20 t.

114. What is a cross interlock in a control pendant?. a) this interlock prevents simultaneous activation of opposite movement directions of the mechanism. b) this interlock means that the “X” button must be pressed before operating the pendant. c) an interlock that prevents controlling the crane from two locations at the same time. d) the cross interlock in the control pendant is equivalent to the zero interlock in a cab-operated crane.

115. Controllers (control levers) are crane elements used to: a) align the crane parallel on the runway. b) remotely control the crane mechanisms. c) indirectly control the crane mechanisms. d) directly control the crane mechanisms.

116. The mechanical travel limiter of a crane mounted on the runway is: a) buffer stop claw. b) limit switch. c) buffer. d) bumper.

117. What is the nominal lifting capacity of a crane marked Q = 10/3.2 t?. a) 10 t. b) 13.2 t. c) 3.2 t. d) in star connection 10 t, and in delta connection 3.2 t.

118. Activation of the load limiter will result in: a) shutdown of all crane mechanisms. b) shutdown of the hoisting mechanism in both directions. c) shutdown of the hoisting mechanism in the “up” direction. d) none of the above answers is correct.

119. The end carriage (czołownica) is a component of: a) the crane. b) the hoist. c) the winch. d) the hook block.

120. Unless otherwise specified by the manufacturer, the travel limit switches of the crane are intended to: a) stop the crane before colliding with an obstacle or another crane. b) prevent crane overload. c) prevent impact with buffers at a speed greater than 1.5 m/s. d) prevent the crane from hitting the buffer at nominal speed.

121. The STOP switch at the crane operator’s station is used to: a) switch off crane movements at end positions. b) switch off the crane during maintenance work. c) immediately stop the crane in dangerous situations. d) activate the emergency brake.

122. In the case of operation of two or more cranes on the same runway, the electrical protections preventing cranes from colliding with each other are: a) limit switches. b) anti-collision system. c) load limiters. d) motion deceleration limiters.

123. Travel directions in a radio-controlled crane should be marked: a) on the crane structure in a place visible to the operator and on the radio control transmitter. b) in the crane cabin. c) at the entrance to the hall where the crane operates. d) on every visible runway support column.

124. The abbreviation GNP means: a) Maximum Nominal Speed. b) (eng.) Safe Working Load. c) Low Current Socket. d) Duty Group.

125. Protection against the load falling out of the hook throat is provided by: a) tying the slings to the hook. b) a safety latch. c) if the slings are correctly positioned in the throat, no protection is required. d) a rigid sling, i.e. a spreader beam.

126. What color should the immediate STOP emergency switch be marked with?. a) yellow. b) any color. c) red. d) black and yellow.

127. A crane girder is: a) the maximum load mass the crane can lift. b) a beam that is part of the crane’s load-bearing structure. c) a set of levers for controlling the hoisting mechanism in a gantry crane. d) a supporting element of the substructure or runway.

128. What type of hooks can be used in pulley blocks?. a) hooks may be made of plastic. b) hooks should be forged or plate-type. c) hooks may be made of any material. d) lifting hooks should be made of cast steel.

129. In which cranes is it not required to use an upper limit switch for the hoisting mechanism?. a) in cranes with a wire rope hoist. b) in cranes with a chain hoist equipped with a friction clutch. c) the upper limit switch of the hoisting mechanism must be used in all cranes without exception. d) in wire rope and chain hoists with a lifting capacity of up to 1000 kg.

130. Unless otherwise specified by the manufacturer, the minimum distance at which the hook block must stop, measured from the lowest parts of the crane, is: a) 5 cm. b) 10 cm. c) 20 cm. d) 15 cm.

131. Crane buffers are mounted: a) at the end of the runway. b) on the end carriages. c) on the main girders. d) on the longitudinal beams.

132. What is the permissible number of visible cracks in a crane hook?. a) 0. b) 1. c) 2. d) 10%.

133. A safety element that may be installed in the hoisting mechanism of cranes is: a) load limiter. b) hoisting mechanism limit switch. c) overload friction clutch. d) all answers are correct.

134. The crane load capacity designation 8 t + 8 t means that: a) the crane can lift a 16 t load with one of the two hoisting mechanisms. b) the crane can lift a load of up to 16 t provided that both hoisting mechanisms are used simultaneously and neither is overloaded. c) each hoisting mechanism of the crane can lift a 16 t load. d) the nominal load capacity of the crane is 8 t.

135. The basic parameters of a hoist include: a) lifting capacity. b) lifting height. c) speed of operating movements. d) all answers are correct.

136. Checking the zero-position interlock: a) is carried out with the STOP button pressed. b) is carried out with the rated load. c) does not require moving the control levers – the interlock is checked with the lever in the neutral position. d) requires moving all controllers in all directions.

137. During the checking of the zero-position interlock: a) the main switch of the overhead crane must be switched on. b) the ON button in the cabin must be pressed and locked. c) the load is lifted above the working level. d) the STOP button must be pressed.

138. Is the operator allowed, in certain situations, to overload the overhead crane during operation?. a) yes, during tests before starting work. b) yes, on written order of a supervisor. c) yes, but only occasionally. d) no, it is prohibited.

139. Can a sling be attached to the end of the hook (on the tip of the hook)?. a) yes, after making sure the sling will not slip off. b) no, never. c) yes, if it does not pose a danger. d) only in the case of hooks fitted with a safety latch.

140. Lifting loads through an opening in the ceiling from a lower floor: a) is permitted after meeting appropriate conditions. b) is absolutely prohibited. c) is permitted only for overhead cranes with a capacity below 250 kg. d) does not ensure kinematic continuity and is therefore not allowed.

141. During loading of a truck using an overhead crane, the vehicle driver should be located: a) in the vehicle cab. b) on the vehicle’s loading platform. c) anywhere in the workplace. d) outside the crane’s working zone.

142. In the event that the load starts to sway, one should: a) wait until the load stops swaying, warning people nearby about the risk of being struck. b) stop the load manually at all costs; if it is a large-size load, ask other workers for help. c) dampen the load’s sway by properly moving the overhead crane or hoist. d) place it immediately on the ground.

143. One cubic meter of steel weighs approximately: a) 1000 kg. b) 4.5 – 5.0 t. c) 1.0 t. d) 7.5 – 7.9 t.

144. A load of steel sheets with a volume of 0.5 cubic meters: a) can be lifted with a crane with a minimum capacity of 0.5 t. b) can be lifted with a crane with a capacity of not less than 4 tons. c) must be lifted using a special-purpose crane with any lifting capacity. d) none of the above answers is correct.

145. When lifting a large load and several slingers/signallers give instructions to the crane operator, it is required to: a) not allow more than one signaller to participate during the lifting operation. b) follow the instructions of one previously designated signaller, except for the STOP signal, which may be given by any signaller. c) follow the instructions of all signallers, except the STOP signal, which may only be given by one previously designated signaller. d) follow the instructions in the order in which they are given.

146. Loads may be stored: a) in any place, provided the load dimensions allow it. b) on transport routes. c) only in designated storage areas. d) in places designated by the UDT inspector.

147. A crane equipped with a pneumatic gripping device may be used to lift: a) only ferromagnetic sheets. b) only glass panes. c) sheets made of any material as well as glass panes. d) exclusively plastic materials with a smooth external surface.

148. The hoisting mechanism brake test is considered negative if: a) the brake shoes and brake disc are not lubricated. b) after releasing the brake, the distance between the friction linings and the brake disc is uniform and does not exceed the value specified in the documentation. c) with the brake shoes applied, the stroke of the brake release armature is used to 80%. d) a load with a mass equal to or less than the rated capacity is not held at the set height.

149. Unless otherwise specified by the manufacturer, the lower limit switch of the hoisting mechanism should be set so that: a) at least 1.5 m of rope remains on the drum. b) at least 2.5 m of rope remains on the drum, including the section used for fastening. c) at least 1.5 rope turns remain on the drum, excluding the section used for fastening. d) at least half of the rope length remains on the drum.

150. An important criterion for hook wear is: a) cracking. b) widening of the hook throat. c) reduction of the cross-section in the gripping area. d) all answers are correct.

151. Checking the upper limit switch of the hoisting mechanism is carried out: a) with nominal load. b) without load. c) with a 110% load. d) with the largest load available at the moment that does not exceed the crane’s rated capacity.

152. A broken strand of the crane’s load-bearing rope results in: a) work may continue until the end of the current loading/unloading operation or until the end of the shift. b) work may continue only until the rope is replaced with a new one. c) work may continue only if the remaining strands and the core are not damaged. d) work must be stopped immediately.

153. The drawing below shows a characteristic of: a) a chain sling. b) a wire rope sling. c) a webbing sling. d) a specialized spreader beam.

154. The drawing below shows a characteristic of: a) a chain sling. b) a wire rope sling. c) a webbing (belt) sling. d) a specialized spreader beam.

155. The drawing below shows a characteristic of: a) a chain sling. b) a wire rope sling. c) a webbing (belt) sling. d) a specialized spreader beam.

156. A spreader beam is used to: a) lift special loads, e.g. sheet metal. b) lift long loads for which the use of standard slings is impossible or difficult. c) lift loads exceeding the rated capacity of the lifting device. d) all answers are correct.

157. The minimum lifting capacity of a lifting device raising a 24 t load using the presented spreader beam is: a) 20.0 t. b) 25.2 t. c) 30.0 t. d) all answers are incorrect.

158. The abbreviation DOR stands for: a) permissible working load. b) permissible working load of the sling at a vertex angle alpha of 120°. c) permitted manual operation. d) technical and operational documentation.

159. The load on a double-hook should be suspended: a) so that both hooks are equally loaded. b) so that the difference in load between the hook arms does not exceed 30%. c) exclusively using a special sling for a double-hook. d) only using chain slings.

160. The reduction of the WLL (DOR) of a multi-leg sling is influenced by: a) the number of legs used. b) additional operating restrictions included in the sling instructions. c) the opening angle of the sling legs. d) all answers are correct.

161. Based on the presented drawing, indicate the value A for the wire rope sling: a) 6.0 t. b) 5.0 t. c) 7.0 t. d) 3.5 t.

162. Based on the presented drawing, indicate the value A for the wire rope sling: a) 2.0 t. b) 5.0 t. c) 7.0 t. d) 10.0 t.

163. The drawing shows: a) the nameplate of a two-leg chain sling. b) the nameplate of a chain sling with a maximum capacity of 2,500 kg. c) the nameplate of a chain sling with a maximum capacity of 3,550 kg. d) answers a and c are correct.

164. Based on the presented drawing, indicate the value A (angle α) for the two-leg sling: a) 100°. b) 90°. c) 70°. d) 50°.

165. Based on the presented drawing, indicate the value A (angle α) for the two-leg sling: a) 120°. b) 90°. c) 70°. d) 50°.

166. Based on the presented drawing, indicate the value A (WLL based on angle α) for the two-leg sling: a) 70%. b) 90%. c) 110%. d) 50%.

167. Based on the presented drawing, indicate the value A (WLL based on angle α) for the two-leg sling: a) 70%. b) 90%. c) 110%. d) 50%.

168. Based on the presented drawing, indicate the value A (WLL depending on the slinging method) for the webbing sling: a) 1. b) 1.4. c) 0.8. d) 2.

169. Based on the presented drawing, indicate the value A (WLL depending on the slinging method) for the webbing sling: a) 1. b) 1.4. c) 0.8. d) 2.

170. Based on the presented drawing, indicate the value A (WLL depending on the slinging method) for the webbing sling: a) 1. b) 1.4. c) 0.8. d) 2.

171. Indicate which method of suspending the load is correct: a) Drawing A. b) Drawing B. c) Both methods are correct. d) Both methods are incorrect.

172. Indicate which method of suspending the load using a wire rope sling is correct: a) Drawing A. b) Drawing B. c) Both methods are correct. d) Both methods are incorrect.

173. The drawing below shows: a) interchangeable equipment mounted on the heads of lifting devices. b) a component of the lifting system of industrial trucks. c) a specialized sling for transporting loads placed on transport pallets. d) all answers are incorrect.

174. The drawing below shows: a) a specialized sling for transporting steel and concrete pipes. b) a clamshell-type grab for scrap handling. c) a specialized sling for transporting loads placed on transport pallets. d) a component of rail clamps.

175. The specialized sling shown in the drawing is used for: a) lifting steel sheets. b) lifting steel bars. c) lifting concrete elements. d) lifting plastic elements.

176. The specialized sling shown in the drawing is used for: a) lifting concrete elements. b) lifting plastic elements. c) lifting steel sheets. d) lifting steel bars.

177. Responsibility for correct sling selection lies with: a) the slinger. b) the operator (when the operator is responsible for attaching the load). c) the company’s occupational health and safety services. d) answers a and b are correct.

178. Slings are subject to periodic inspections at intervals: a) every 30 days. b) every 2 months. c) they are not subject to periodic inspections. d) in accordance with the provisions of the sling operating instructions.

179. The choice of the type of sling used depends on: a) the type of material being transported. b) the availability of the sling and the distance between the workplace and its storage location. c) environmental conditions at the sling’s workplace, such as temperature, UV radiation, and air humidity. d) answers a and c are correct.

180. Before starting work, the operator is obliged to: a) select a sling with an appropriate WLL based on the mass of the lifted loads. b) select a sling with a suitable construction according to the type of lifted load. c) assess the technical condition of the sling with regard to its wear. d) all answers are correct.

181. A sling is: a) an element enabling load transportation. b) an element located between the lifting device and the load. c) an element whose mass must be taken into account when lifting a load. d) all answers are correct.

182. Slings can be classified: a) according to the material from which they are made. b) according to the number of load-bearing legs. c) according to the type of legs. d) all answers are correct.

183. The WLL of a webbing sling can be determined by: a) testing its strength with a test load. b) measuring the thickness of the webbing. c) checking the information on the identification label/tag. d) all answers are correct.

184. Working with a sling without a nameplate: a) is prohibited. b) is permitted provided special caution is exercised. c) is permitted provided the sling capacity is determined based on the hook number. d) is permitted with the consent of the maintenance technician.

185. Chain slings: a) may only be terminated with a hook. b) may have terminations other than a hook, e.g. a shackle. c) may be used at any ambient temperature. d) do not require maintenance.

186. The maximum permissible vertex angle α used in a sling may be: a) 120°. b) 100°. c) there is no limit, as it is sufficient to reduce the sling’s working load limit. d) 90°.

187. The maximum angle β in a sling may be: a) 120°. b) 60°. c) only angle γ is taken into account. d) there is no limit, as it is sufficient to reduce the sling’s working load limit.

188. Indicate which method of suspending the load using a wire rope sling is incorrect: a) Drawing A. b) Drawing B. c) Drawing C. d) Drawing D.

189. Indicate which method of hook attachment is correct: a) Drawing A. b) Drawing B. c) Drawing C. d) Drawing D.

190. Indicate which method of hook attachment is incorrect: a) Drawings A, B, C. b) Drawings A, B, D. c) Drawings A, C, D. d) Drawings A, B, C, D.

191. Based on the presented drawing, indicate the value A for the two-leg sling: a) 120%. b) 90%. c) 70%. d) 10%.

192. Based on the presented drawing, indicate the value A for the two-leg sling: a) 120%. b) 90%. c) 70%. d) 50%.

193. Unless otherwise specified by the manufacturer, the permissible wear criteria for hooks used with slings are: a) 5% opening and 10% throat wear. b) 20% opening and 10% throat wear. c) 1% opening and throat wear. d) hook dimensions do not change during operation.

194. Unless otherwise specified by the manufacturer, the permissible number of broken wires in a wire rope sling is: a) 1% of wires in a strand over a length of 6 diameters and 10% over a length of 30 diameters. b) 5 wires in a strand over a length of 6 diameters and 10 over a length of 30 diameters. c) 10% of strands. d) all answers are incorrect.

195. Which of the following damages disqualify a wire rope sling from further use?. a) breakage of a strand in the rope. b) local reduction of diameter due to failure of the rope core. c) birdcage-type deformation. d) all answers are correct.

196. As the vertex angle α increases: a) the permissible working load increases. b) the permissible working load decreases. c) the permissible working load remains unchanged, as the angle only affects the crane’s lifting capacity. d) the vertex angle is only relevant at α = 120°.

197. Angles α and β in relation to slings: a) are always equal. b) angle α is half of angle β. c) angle β is half of angle α. d) all answers are incorrect.

198. When lifting loads with sharp edges using a webbing sling, one should: a) use special protective pads to protect the sling from sharp edges. b) webbing slings must not be used. c) wrap the load twice to prevent wear of the sling. d) use only polyester webbing slings.

199. The WLL (DOR) value of a multi-leg sling is: a) dependent on the crane’s lifting capacity. b) variable and depends on the angle between the sling legs. c) dependent on the mass of the transported load. d) a constant value.

200. Using slings at temperatures above 100 °C is: a) permitted, but only for a short period of time. b) permitted provided it is allowed by the sling instructions. c) prohibited. d) permitted only when using chain slings.

201. The drawing below shows: a) a feature of a four-leg chain sling. b) a feature of a wire rope sling with 10 m leg length. c) a feature of a special sling. d) all answers are correct.

202. The maximum WLL (DOR) of the presented sling is: a) 8.4 t. b) 6.0 t. 10.0. d) 8.0 t.

203. The maximum WLL (DOR) of the presented sling at a vertex angle β of 60° is: a) 10.0 t. b) 8.4 t. c) 6.0 t. d) 4.0 t.

204. The maximum WLL (DOR) of the presented sling at a vertex angle β of 45° is: a) 8.4 t. b) 8.0 t. c) 6.0 t. d) 4.0 t.

205. Based on the presented drawing, indicate the correct method of hook attachment: a) A. b) B. c) C. d) D.

206. The maximum mass of the lifted load at an angle β of 55° must not exceed: a) 12,000 kg. b) 9,000 kg. c) 6,000 kg. d) all answers are incorrect.

207. The maximum mass of the lifted load at an angle β of 40° must not exceed: a) 12,000 kg. b) 9,000 kg. c) 6,000 kg. d) all answers are incorrect.

208. The maximum mass of the lifted load at an angle β of 50° must not exceed: a) 12,000 kg. b) 9,000 kg. c) 6,000 kg. d) all answers are incorrect.

209. The maximum mass of the lifted load at an angle β of 65° must not exceed: a) 12,000 kg. b) 9,000 kg. c) 6,000 kg. d) lifting is not permitted.

210. Based on the presented drawing, determine the maximum load mass that can be lifted using a four-leg sling: a) 6 t. b) 8.4 t. c) 12 t. d) all answers are incorrect.

211. Based on the presented drawing, determine the maximum load mass that can be lifted using a four-leg sling: a) 6 t. b) 8.4 t. c) 12 t. d) answers a and b are correct.

212. Based on the presented drawing, determine the maximum load mass that can be lifted using a four-leg sling: a) 7 t. b) 8.4 t. c) 12 t. d) all answers are incorrect.

213. Which of the presented special slings can be used to lift steel sheets in a vertical position?. a) FIG. 1. b) FIG. 2. c) FIG. 3. d) FIG. 4.

214. Which of the presented lifting accessories can be used to lift steel sheets in a horizontal position?. a) FIG. 1. b) FIG. 2. c) FIG. 3. d) FIG. 4.

215. Which of the presented lifting accessories can be used to lift double-T (I-beam) steel girders?. a) FIG. 1. b) FIG. 2. c) FIG. 3. d) FIG. 4.

216. Which of the presented lifting accessories can be used to lift long steel bars?. a) FIG. 1. b) FIG. 2. c) FIG. 3. d) FIG. 4.

217. Which of the presented lifting accessories can be used to lift loads stored on transport pallets?. a) FIG. 1. b) FIG. 2. c) FIG. 3. d) FIG. 4.

218. Which of the presented lifting accessories can be used to lift a steel sheet in a horizontal position?. a) FIG. 1 and FIG. 2. b) FIG. 2 and FIG. 3. c) FIG. 3 and FIG. 4. d) FIG. 4 and FIG. 1.

219. In the image below, the symbol α denotes: a) the opening angle of the sling legs. b) the maximum vertex angle. c) the value defining the sling’s load capacity. d) the sling’s WLL (DOR).

220. In the image below, the symbol β denotes: a) the length of the sling. b) the angle of deviation of the sling legs from the vertical. c) a two-leg chain sling. d) all answers are incorrect.

221. Which of the following conditions must a sling absolutely meet for load handling?. a) the sling’s load capacity must not be lower than the mass of the lifted load. b) the sling length must ensure that the opening angle does not exceed 120°. c) the sling must have a legible identification marking/nameplate. d) all answers are correct.

222. Before starting work with an overhead crane, the operator should: a) carry out a dynamic test with a load of 110% of the rated capacity. b) check the brake release stroke. c) measure the hook throat opening. d) check the operation of the brakes with the load that will be transported.

223. In the event of a crane failure with a load suspended on the hook, the operator should perform the following actions: a) secure the area. b) notify the supervisor. c) switch off the crane power supply. d) both methods are incorrect.

224. The operator is prohibited from: a) using the maximum travelling speed of the crane. b) transporting loads over people. c) working during rainfall. d) combining working movements provided for in the operating instructions.

225. Checking the operation of limit switches: a) is exclusively the responsibility of the maintenance technician. b) should be carried out only at the highest travelling speeds. c) is performed only during inspections by the UDT. d) must be carried out before starting work.

226. The brake test is carried out: a) before starting work with the overhead crane. b) only during inspections conducted by the UDT. c) only after replacing the rope. d) only in the presence of the maintenance technician.

227. If a strand in the rope becomes displaced or squeezed out: a) work with the crane must be stopped immediately. b) the rope may be secured with additional elements. c) it may be used, but sudden movements should be avoided. d) it may be operated with the lifting capacity reduced by half.

228. When an overhead crane becomes damaged: a) work must be stopped. b) work may be continued with special caution. c) work may be continued, but the lifting capacity must be reduced by half. d) it may be operated upon written instruction from a supervisor.

229. The test of the upper limit switch of the hoisting mechanism is carried out: a) with a load equal to 50% of the rated capacity. b) with a load equal to 100% of the rated capacity. c) without load. d) with the largest currently available load not exceeding the rated capacity.

230. The device that limits the working movements of crane mechanisms is: a) the load limiter. b) the emergency stop switch “STOP”. c) the buffer stop. d) the limit switch.

231. After finishing work, the hook block: a) is left in the upper extreme position. b) is left without load and slings on the hook, at a safe height. c) may be left with slings suspended on the hook. d) is hung on a dedicated holder at the crane parking position.

232. What does the marking 20/5 t placed on an overhead crane mean?. a) the crane’s lifting capacity is 5 t and the lifting height is 20 m. b) the crane’s lifting capacity is 20 t with the possibility of a short-term overload of 5 t. c) the crane’s total lifting capacity is 25 t. d) none of the above answers is correct.

233. What does the marking 25 t + 5 t on an overhead crane mean?. a) the crane has two hoisting mechanisms, one rated at 25 t and the other at 5 t, and they can be used simultaneously. b) the crane has one hoisting mechanism rated at 25 t, which may be overloaded by up to 5 t. c) the crane has two hoisting mechanisms, one rated at 25 t and the other at 5 t, and they cannot be used simultaneously. d) none of the above answers is correct.

234. At what height above people may a load be transported using an overhead crane?. a) up to 1.0 m, provided the person is wearing a helmet. b) it is not permitted. c) as high as possible so as not to hit the head of a person underneath. d) according to the provisions of the operating instructions.

235. At what height above obstacles (e.g. machines) is it recommended to transport a load using an overhead crane?. a) at a safe height, provided there are no people along the travel path. b) it is not permitted. c) 200 cm. d) in all cases, at the maximum lifting height.

236. For what purpose is the zero-position interlock of controllers used?. a) it protects the crane against unauthorized use. b) it is used to protect the crane against overload. c) it protects the crane against strong wind. d) it prevents unintended start-up of mechanisms when power is restored if the control levers are not in the zero position after a previous power loss.

237. How should swinging of large-size loads be prevented?. a) the slinger holds the load by hand. b) the operator holds the load by hand. c) by means of a tag line attached to the load. d) all answers are correct.

238. When should a spreader beam be used?. a) when transporting very long loads. b) when, using a multi-leg sling, the angle between sling legs exceeds 120°. c) when only slings that are too short are available. d) all answers are correct.

239. Is it allowed to lift loads embedded in the ground or frozen to it?. a) yes, with the consent of the plant manager. b) no, it is not allowed. c) yes, after consultation with the slinger. d) yes, but first the load must be dragged horizontally.

240. During operation, is it allowed to leave a load suspended on the crane hook without supervision?. a) yes, because the load will never fall. b) yes, if the slinger gives consent and designates an appropriate danger zone. c) no, it is not allowed. d) it should be done for economically justified reasons.

241. Is it possible to lift one load using two or more overhead cranes?. a) it is never allowed. b) yes, after the operator prepares detailed operating conditions. c) yes, after agreement with the operator of the other crane. d) yes, but only using special-purpose cranes.

242. Transporting people together with a load: a) is prohibited. b) is allowed with the consent and order of the plant manager. c) is prohibited if the combined weight of the load and the person exceeds the crane’s rated capacity. d) is allowed only if the remaining lifting capacity exceeds 1 ton and the crane has two independent hoisting brakes.

243. The “STOP” signal, which must be obeyed immediately, may be given by: a) only the slinger. b) only the signalman. c) any person. d) only the plant or construction manager.

244. How should a load be suspended on a double-hook?. a) the method of suspension does not matter. b) so that only one throat is loaded. c) so that neither throat is loaded. d) so that both throats are evenly loaded.

245. To drag a load located outside the crane’s working area, one may use: a) the bridge travel mechanism. b) the trolley travel mechanism. c) the hoisting mechanism. d) none of the above answers is correct.

246. When the overhead crane operator sees people on the path of the transported load, he should: a) raise the load to such a height that it does not strike bystanders during transport. b) raise the load until the upper limit switch is activated and check whether the people are wearing helmets. c) warn people in the danger zone with an audible signal and continue work. d) stop the ongoing operation until the bystanders leave the danger zone.

247. If an incorrect setting of the upper limit switch of the hoisting mechanism is detected, the operator should: a) consult the manufacturer’s documentation and make the adjustment. b) stop work and inform the supervisor about the need for adjustment. c) continue work; the adjustment will be made during maintenance inspection. d) continue work to maintain continuity of the plant’s technological process.

248. After finishing work with an overhead crane, one should: a) lower the hook until it touches the ground. b) raise the hook until the limit switch is activated. c) position the crane at its designated parking place and raise the hook to a height that does not interfere with transport routes, below the activation point of the limit switch. d) raise the hook block to a height ensuring proper tension of the load-bearing rope strands.

249. If during load transport with an overhead crane the operator notices a slow, spontaneous lowering of the load, then: a) it indicates a failure of the hoisting mechanism brake. b) it indicates a temporary drop in supply voltage that will resolve itself. c) it is the effect of the load limiter being activated. d) in controller-based systems this is a completely normal situation.

250. Combining crane movements means: a) attempting to activate hoisting and lowering of the hook at the same time. b) the skill of damping a swinging load. c) a basic mistake of beginner overhead crane operators. d) simultaneous activation of two mechanisms.

251. To lift a load of unknown mass, one should: a) check the correct operation of the load limiter and then lift the load. b) carry out transport work at a safe speed, moving the load as close to the ground as possible. c) estimate the mass of the load. d) ask for assistance, e.g. from a forklift operator.

252. The hoisting mechanism brake test is carried out: a) only after finishing work. b) before the first lifting operation and when lifting a load heavier than the previous one. c) every time a load is lifted. d) once before starting the shift.

253. How should the operation of limit switches in two-speed cranes be correctly checked?. a) once at high speed. b) twice (once at low speed and once at high speed). c) there is no need to check limit switches. d) cranes are not equipped with limit switches.

254. After finishing work, may the operator of an overhead crane, hoist, or winch leave slings on the hoist hook?. a) yes, but only chain or webbing slings. b) no. c) yes, but only if the hook block is raised sufficiently high. d) in continuous-operation plants this is recommended.

255. May the operator operate equipment with a damaged hoisting mechanism brake?. a) yes, but only if the lifted load has a small mass. b) yes, but only if the load does not exceed the rated capacity of the equipment. c) yes, using the emergency brake activated by the STOP button. d) no, he may not.

256. May the operator lift a load when the hoisting ropes of a hoist, winch, or crane are not vertical?. a) yes, provided the rope deviation angle does not exceed 45°. b) yes, provided the rope deviation angle does not exceed 60°. c) yes, because the maximum permissible angle is 120°. d) no, the load must not be lifted.

257. The crane operator is required to activate wind protection devices: a) only when informed by a supervisor about strong winds or an approaching storm. b) always before starting work in strong wind conditions. c) should not activate them, as this is the responsibility of maintenance personnel. d) always after finishing work and/or leaving the control position.

258. Above containers in which people may be present: a) loads may be transported, provided a vertical distance of 0.5 m from the container is maintained. b) loads must not be transported. c) loads may be transported without stopping above the containers and maintaining a vertical distance of 1 m from the container. d) none of the above answers is correct.

259. In the case of limited visibility of the load storage area, one should: a) refuse to perform the task. b) use the assistance of a slinger/signaller. c) first try to place the load without assistance and only ask for help if unsuccessful. d) estimate the transport route and place the load independently.

260. The zero-position interlock will prevent the crane from being switched on in the event of: a) all controllers being set to the zero position. b) any controller being set outside the zero position. c) a faulty electrical shock protection system. d) poor condition of electrical cable insulation.

261. The safety zone of a moving crane depends on: a) the height at which the load is being transported. b) the speed at which the load is being transported. c) both the height and the speed at which the load is being transported. d) the height and speed of the transported load do not affect the safety zone.