switching routing and wireless essentials

Which command will display a summary of all IPv6-enabled interfaces on a router that includes the IPv6 address and operational status?. show running-config interface. show ipv6 interface brief. show ip interface brief. show ipv6 route.

When verifying routes, what code is used to identify directly connected routes in the routing table?. R. D. C. L.

Which command will display packet flow counts, collisions, and buffer failures on an interface?. show ip interface. show interface. show running-config interface.

An IPv6-enabled interface is required to have which type of address?. Static. Global unicast. Link-local. Loopback.

What character is used to enable the filtering of commands?. Semi colon ;. Comma ,. Colon :. Pipe |.

Which filtering expression will show all output lines starting from the line matching the filtering expression?. Section. Begin. Include.

Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.). Recall up to 15 command lines by default. Set the command history buffer size. Recall previously entered commands. Save command lines in a log file for future reference. View a list of commands entered in a previous session.

Which statement describes the system LED operation on Cisco Catalyst switches? (Choose two.). If the LED is amber, the system is not powered on. If the LED is blinking green, the system is operating normally. If the LED is blinking amber, the switch is performing POST. If the LED is amber, the system is receiving power but it is not functioning properly.

What type of Ethernet cable would be used to connect one switch to another switch when neither switch supports the auto-MDIX feature?. Rollover. Straight-through. Crossover. Coaxial.

What advantage does SSH offer over Telnet?. Username and password authentication. Encryption. Connection-oriented services. More connection lines.

A network administrator has configured VLAN 99 as the management VLAN and has configured it with an IP address and subnet mask. The administrator issues the show interface vlan 99 command and notices that the line protocol is down. Which action can change the state of the line protocol to up?. Remove all access ports from VLAN 99. Configure a transport input method on the vty lines. Connect a host to an interface associated with VLAN 99. Configure a default gateway.

Which statement describes SVIs?. Creating an SVI automatically creates an associated VLAN. An SVI is created automatically for each VLAN on a multilayer switch. An SVI can only be created for the management VLAN. A default SVI is created for VLAN 1 for switch administration.

Which prompt is displayed when a network administrator successfully accesses the boot loader on a switch to recover from a system crash?. System:. Switch#. Switch:. System#.

Which router bootup sequence is correct?. 1 - perform the POST and load the bootstrap program 2 - locate and load the startup configuration file or enter setup mode 3 - locate and load the Cisco IOS software. 1 - perform the POST and load the Cisco IOS software 2 - locate and load the startup configuration file or enter setup mode 3 - locate and load the bootstrap program. 1 - perform the POST and load the bootstrap program 2 - locate and load the Cisco IOS software 3 - locate and load the startup configuration file or enter setup mode. 1 - perform the POST and load the startup configuration file 2 - locate and load the bootstrap program 3 - locate and load the Cisco IOS software.

What is the first action in the boot sequence when a switch is powered on?. Low-level CPU initialization. Load the default Cisco IOS software. Load a power-on self-test program. Load boot loader software.

What must an administrator have in order to reset a lost password on a router?. Physical access to the router. A TFTP server. Access to another router. A crossover cable.

When configuring a switch for SSH access, what other command that is associated with the login local command is required to be entered on the switch?. enable secret password. login block-for seconds attempts number within seconds. password password. username username secret secret.

Which command will provide information about the status of all interfaces including the number of giants, runts, and collisions on the interface?. show running-config. show history. show ip interface brief. show interfaces.

Where will the switch forward the frame?. Fa1. Fa2. Fa3. Fa4. Fa5. Fa6. Fa7. Fa8. Fa9. Fa10.

Question 2 - When the switch forwards the frame, which statement(s) are true?. Switch adds the source MAC address which is currently not in the MAC address table. Frame is a broadcast frame and will be forwarded to all ports. Frame is a unicast frame and will be sent to specific port only. Frame is a unicast frame and will be flooded to all ports. Frame is a unicast frame but it will be dropped at the switch.

Which port speed will be autonegotiated between a host with a 1 Gbps NIC connecting to a Cisco Catalyst 2960 switch with a 100 Mbps port?. 1 Gbps. 10 Gbps. 100 Mbps. 10 Mbps.

Which device separates broadcast domains?. Switch. Hub. Access point. Router.

Which two special characteristics do LAN switches use to alleviate network congestion? (Choose two.). Fast port speeds. Small frame buffers. Low port densities. Fast internal switching.

Which statement is true about broadcast and collision domains?. The more interfaces a router has the larger the resulting broadcast domain. Adding a router to a network will increase the size of the collision domain. Adding a switch to a network will increase the size of the broadcast domain. The size of the collision domain can be reduced by adding hubs to a network.

What is one function of a Layer 2 switch?. Duplicates the electrical signal of each frame to every port. Learns the port assigned to a host by examining the destination MAC address. Forwards data based on logical addressing. Determines which interface is used to forward a frame based on the destination MAC address.

What is the significant difference between a hub and a Layer 2 LAN switch?. A switch creates many smaller collision domains, and a hub increases the size of a single collision domain. A hub forwards frames, and a switch forwards only packets. A hub divides collision domains, and a switch divides broadcast domains. Each port of a hub is a collision domain, and each port of a switch is a broadcast domain.

What will a Cisco LAN switch do if it receives an incoming frame and the destination MAC address is not listed in the MAC address table?. Forward the frame out all ports except the port where the frame is received. Use ARP to resolve the port that is related to the frame. Send the frame to the default gateway address. Drop the frame.

Which switch characteristic helps alleviate network congestion when a 10 Gbps port is forwarding data to a 1 Gbps port?. High port density. Fast internal switching. Fast port speed. Frame buffering.

Which switching method makes use of the FCS value?. Cut-through. Store-and-forward. Large frame buffer. Broadcast.

What does the term "port density" represent for an Ethernet switch?. The numbers of hosts that are connected to each switch port. The number of available ports. The speed of each port. The memory space that is allocated to each switch port.

Which information does a switch use to keep the MAC address table information current?. The source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port. The source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port. The source MAC address and the incoming port. The destination MAC address and the incoming port. The source MAC address and the outgoing port. The destination MAC address and the outgoing port.

Which two statements are true about half-duplex and full-duplex communications? (Choose two.). Full duplex increases the effective bandwidth. All modern NICs support both half-duplex and full-duplex communication. Full duplex offers 100 percent potential use of the bandwidth. Full duplex allows both ends to transmit and receive simultaneously. Half duplex has only one channel.

Which type of address does a switch use to build the MAC address table?. Source MAC address. Destination MAC address. Destination IP address. Source IP address.

Which option correctly describes a switching method?. Cut-through: makes a forwarding decision after receiving the entire frame. Store-and-forward: ensures that the frame is free of physical and data-link errors. Store-and-forward: forwards the frame immediately after examining its destination MAC address. Cut-through: provides the flexibility to support any mix of Ethernet speeds.

Which network device can serve as a boundary to divide a Layer 2 broadcast domain?. Ethernet bridge. Access port. Router. Ethernet hub.

What is the purpose of frame buffers on a switch?. They hold traffic, thus alleviating network congestion. They provide a basic security scan on received frames. They execute checksum values before transmission. They provide temporary storage of the frame checksum.

Which network device can be used to eliminate collisions on an Ethernet network?. Router. Hub. Firewall. Switch.

True or False? VLANs improve network performance by segmenting broadcast domains. True. False.

True or False? VLANs can improve security by isolating sensitive data from the rest of the network. False. True.

Which type of VLAN is assigned to 802.1Q trunk ports to carry untagged traffic?. Data. Default. Native. Management.

True or False? It is a best practice to configure the native VLAN as VLAN 1. True. False.

Which is true of VLAN 1? (Choose all that apply.). The native VLAN is VLAN 1 by default. All switch ports are assigned to VLAN 1 by default. The management VLAN is VLAN 1 by default. VLAN 1 cannot be renamed or deleted.

Refer to the exhibit PC1 sends an ARP broadcast frame. Which PC will receive the ARP broadcast frame?. PC4. PC5. PC2. PC3. PC6.

Refer to the exhibit PC2 sends an ARP broadcast frame. Which PCs will receive the ARP broadcast frame? (Choose all that apply.). PC4. PC6. PC3. PC5. PC1.

Refer to the exhibit Question 3 Topology. PC3 sends an ARP broadcast frame. Which PC will receive the ARP broadcast frame?. PC6. PC5. PC4. PC2. PC1.

True or false? DTP is an open standard IEEE protocol that specifies auto negotiation of switch trunk links. True. False.

What is the default switchport mode for Cisco Catalyst switches?. Trunk. Dynamic desirable. Dynamic auto. Access.

True or false? Two switchports on a link both configured as dynamic auto will successfully negotiate a trunk. False. True.

Which two DTP modes will form a trunk with an interface that is configured as dynamic auto? (Choose two.). Trunk. Access. Dynamic desirable. Dynamic auto.

What happens to a port that is associated with VLAN 10 when the administrator deletes VLAN 10 from the switch?. The port becomes inactive. The port creates the VLAN again. The port automatically associates itself with the native VLAN. The port goes back to the default VLAN.

In which memory location are the VLAN configurations of normal range VLANs stored on a Catalyst switch?. ROM. Flash. NVRAM. RAM.

An administrator is investigating a failure on a trunk link between a Cisco switch and a switch from another vendor. After a few show commands, the administrator notices that the switches are not negotiating a trunk. What is a probable cause for this issue?. Both switches are in nonegotiate mode. Switches from other vendors do not support DTP. DTP frames are flooding the entire network. Both switches are in trunk mode.

What is the purpose of the vlan.dat file on a switch?. It holds the operating system. It holds the saved configuration. It holds the running configuration. It holds the VLAN database.

What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs?. A separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth contention on data VLANs. The security of management frames that are carried in the native VLAN can be enhanced. The native VLAN is for routers and switches to exchange their management information, so it should be different from data VLANs. The native VLAN is for carrying VLAN management traffic only.

When a Cisco switch receives untagged frames on a 802.1Q trunk port, which VLAN ID is the traffic switched to by default?. Data VLAN ID. Unused VLAN ID. Management VLAN ID. Native VLAN ID.

A network administrator is determining the best placement of VLAN trunk links. Which two types of point-to-point connections utilize VLAN trunking? (Choose two.). Between a switch and a network printer. Between two switches that utilize multiple VLANs. Between a switch and a server that has an 802.1Q NIC. Between two switches that share a common VLAN. Between a switch and a client PC.

What are three primary benefits of using VLANs? (Choose three.). End user satisfaction. Cost reduction. A reduction in the number of trunk links. Security. Improved IT Staff efficiency.

On a Cisco switch, where is extended range VLAN information stored?. Startup configuration file. Running configuration file. Flash. NVRAM.

In which location are the normal range VLANs stored on a Cisco switch by default?. Startup-config. Flash memory. Running-config. RAM.

Which distinct type of VLAN is used by an administrator to access and configure a switch?. Management VLAN. Data VLAN. Default VLAN. Native VLAN.

For what reason would a network administrator use the show interfaces trunk command on a switch?. To verify port association with a particular VLAN. To view the native VLAN. To examine DTP negotiation as it occurs. To display an IP address for any existing VLAN.

Where is the vlan.dat file stored on a switch?. In RAM. In NVRAM. On the externally attached storage media or internal hard drive. In flash memory.

If an organization is changing to include Cisco IP phones in its network, what design feature must be considered to ensure voice quality?. Voice traffic and data traffic require separate trunk links between switches. Voice traffic needs to be tagged with the native VLAN. A separate VLAN is needed for voice traffic. Additional switch ports that are dedicated to Cisco IP phones are required.

A Cisco switch currently allows traffic tagged with VLANs 10 and 20 across trunk port Fa0/5. What is the effect of issuing a switchport trunk allowed vlan 30 command on Fa0/5?. It allows a native VLAN of 30 to be implemented on Fa0/5. It allows only VLAN 30 on Fa0/5. It allows VLANs 1 to 30 on Fa0/5. It allows VLANs 10, 20, and 30 on Fa0/5.

You are troubleshooting an inter-VLAN issue on a switch and need to verify that the subinterfaces are in the routing table. Which inter-VLAN routing troubleshooting command would you use to do this?. show interfaces. show vlan. show ip interface brief. show ip route. show interfaces interface-id switchport.

You are troubleshooting an inter-VLAN issue on a switch and need to check the list of VLANs and their assigned ports. Which inter-VLAN routing troubleshooting command would you use to do this?. show interfaces interface-id switchport. show interfaces. show vlan. show ip interface brief. show ip route.

You are troubleshooting an inter-VLAN issue on a switch and need to verify the status of an access port and its access mode VLAN. Which troubleshooting command would you use to do this?. show vlan. show ip interface brief. show interfaces. show ip route. show interfaces interface-id switchport.

You are troubleshooting an inter-VLAN issue on a switch and need to verify the status and IP address of all interfaces in a condensed format. Which inter-VLAN routing troubleshooting command would you use to do this?. show interfaces interface-id switchport. show interfaces. show vlan. show ip route. show ip interface brief.

A PC is to access a web server on another network. Which inter-VLAN method will provide the highest bandwidth at Layer 3 and also provide a default gateway for the PC?. Router on a stick. Multilayer switch with routing enabled. Trunked interface between the router and the switch. Multiple physical interfaces on the router, all connected to a Layer 2 switch.

Which scalable method must be implemented in order to provide inter-VLAN routing on a switched network with more than 1000 VLANs?. Configuring static routes on a Layer 2 switch device. Routing traffic internally to a Layer 3 switch device. Connecting each physical router interface to a different physical switch port, with each switch port assigned to a different VLAN. Connecting a router interface to a switch port that is configured in trunk mode to route packets between VLANs, with each VLAN assigned to a router subinterface.

When configuring a router as part of a router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing topology, where should the IP address be assigned?. To the interface. To the subinterface. To the SVI. To the VLAN.

A small college uses VLAN 10 for the classroom network and VLAN 20 for the office network. What is needed to enable communication between these two VLANs while using legacy inter-VLAN routing?. A router with at least two LAN interfaces should be used. Two groups of switches are needed, each with ports that are configured for one VLAN. A router with one VLAN interface is needed to connect to the SVI on a switch. A switch with a port that is configured as trunk is needed to connect to a router.

What is a disadvantage of using multilayer switches for inter-VLAN routing?. Multilayer switches have higher latency for Layer 3 routing. Multilayer switches are more expensive than router-on-a-stick implementations. Spanning tree must be disabled in order to implement routing on a multilayer switch. Multilayer switches are limited to using trunk links for Layer 3 routing.

Which type of inter-VLAN communication design requires the configuration of multiple subinterfaces?. Router on a stick. Routing via a multilayer switch. Routing for the management VLAN. Legacy inter-VLAN routing.

What is a disadvantage of using router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing?. Requires the use of more physical interfaces than legacy inter-VLAN routing. Requires the use of more physical interfaces than legacy inter-VLAN routing. Does not scale well beyond 50 VLANs. Requires the use of multiple router interfaces configured to operate as access links.

What is the meaning of the number 10 in the encapsulation dot1Q 10 native router subinterface command?. The interface number. The subinterface number. The subnet number. The VLAN ID.

While configuring inter-VLAN routing on a multilayer switch, a network administrator issues the no switchport command on an interface that is connected to another switch. What is the purpose of this command?. To create a routed port for a single network. To provide a static trunk link. To create a switched virtual interface. To provide an access link that tags VLAN traffic.

A network administrator enters the following command sequence on a Cisco 3560 switch. What is the purpose of these commands? Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 0/1 Switch(config-if)# no switchport. To shut down the Gi0/1 port. To make the Gi0/1 port a routed port. To enable the Gi0/1 port as a switch virtual interface. To enable the Gi0/1 port as a bridge virtual interface.

What operational mode should be used on a switch port to connect it to a router for router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing?. Trunk. Access. Dynamic auto. Dynamic desirable.

Which sentence correctly describes the SVI inter-VLAN routing method?. Subinterfaces have to be created. The encapsulation type must be configured on the SVI. An SVI is needed for each VLAN. A physical interface is needed for every VLAN that is created.

How is traffic routed between multiple VLANs on a multilayer switch?. Traffic is routed via physical interfaces. Traffic is routed via internal VLAN interfaces. Traffic is broadcast out all physical interfaces. Traffic is routed via subinterfaces.

What is required to perform router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing?. A Layer 2 switch that is configured with multiple trunk ports. A router with multiple physical interfaces. A multilayer switch. A router that is configured with multiple subinterfaces.

An administrator was troubleshooting a router-on-a-stick topology and concluded that the problem was related to the configuration of VLANs on the router subinterfaces. Which two commands can the administrator use in the router to identify the problem? (Choose two.). show controllers. show ip interface. show ip protocols. show running-config. show vlan.

Switchl(config)# ip ssh version 2 Switchl (config) # ip domain-name cisco.com Switchl (config)# crypto key generate rsa Switchl(config)# line vty 0-15 Switchl (config-line)# transport input all Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to configure Switch1 to allow SSH connections and prohibit Telnet connections. How should the network administrator change the displayed configuration to satisfy the requirement?. Reconfigure the RSA key. Modify the transport input command. Configure SSH on a different line. Use SSH version 1.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring inter-VLAN routing on a network. For now, only one VLAN is being used, but more will be added soon. What is the missing parameter that is shown as the highlighted question mark in the graphic?. It identifies the VLAN number. It identifies the number of hosts that are allowed on the interface. It identifies the subinterface. It identifies the type of encapsulation that is used. It identifies the native VLAN number.

A network administrator issues the show vlan brief command while troubleshooting a user support ticket. What output will be displayed?. the VLAN assignment and membership for device MAC addresses. the VLAN assignment and membership for all switch ports. the VLAN assignment and native VLAN. the VLAN assignment and trunking encapsulation.

Which two statements are correct with respect to SVI inter-VLAN routing? (Choose two.). Virtual interfaces support subinterfaces. SVIs can be bundled into EtherChannels. SVIs eliminate the need for a default gateway in the hosts. There is no need for a connection to a router. Switching packets is faster with SVI.

Which solution would help a college alleviate network congestion due to collisions?. a high port density switch. a firewall that connects to two Internet providers. a router with three Ethernet ports. a router with two Ethernet ports.

Which type of VLAN is used to designate which traffic is untagged when crossing a trunk port?. data. management. native. default.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown. When the administrator checks the status of the serial interface, the interface is shown as being administratively down. What additional command must be entered on the serial interface of R1 to bring the interface up?. no shutdown. clockrate 128000. end. IPv6 enable.

What does a switch use to locate and load the IOS image?. startup-config. BOOT environment variable. IOS image file. POST. NVRAM.

Which command displays information about the auto-MDIX setting for a specific interface?. show processes. show interfaces. show controllers. show running-config.

If one end of an Ethernet connection is configured for full duplex and the other end of the connection is configured for half duplex, where would late collisions be observed?. only on serial interfaces. on the full-duplex end of the connection. on the half-duplex end of the connection. on both ends of the connection.

Which statement is correct about Ethernet switch frame forwarding decisions?. Unicast frames are always forwarded regardless of the destination MAC address. Frame forwarding decisions are based on MAC address and port mappings in the CAM table. Only frames with a broadcast destination address are forwarded out all active switch ports. Cut-through frame forwarding ensures that invalid frames are always dropped.

Which switch characteristic helps keep traffic local and alleviates network congestion?. fast port speed. fast internal switching. high port density. large frame buffers.

Which switch component reduces the amount of packet handling time inside the switch?. store-and-forward RAM. dual processors. ASIC. large buffer size.

What information is added to the switch table from incoming frames?. source MAC address and incoming port number. destination IP address and incoming port number. destination MAC address and incoming port number. source IP address and incoming port number.

What is the significant difference between a hub and a Layer 2 LAN switch?. A hub divides collision domains, and a switch divides broadcast domains. A hub forwards frames, and a switch forwards only packets. Each port of a hub is a collision domain, and each port of a switch is a broadcast domain. A hub extends a collision domain, and a switch divides collision domains.

How do switch buffers affect network performance?. They store frames received, thus preventing premature frame discarding when network congestion occurs. They provide error checking on the data received. They hold data temporarily when a collision occurs until normal data transmission resumes. They provide extra memory for a particular port if autonegotiation of speed or duplex fails.

Match the IEEE 802.1Q standard VLAN tag field with the description. Canonical Format Identifier. Type. VLAN ID. User Priority.

Which command displays the encapsulation type, the voice VLAN ID, and the access mode VLAN for the Fa0/1 interface?. show interfaces trunk. show mac address-table interface Fa0/1. show interfaces Fa0/1 switchport. show vlan brief.

Refer to the exhibit. All workstations are configured correctly in VLAN 20. Workstations that are connected to switch SW1 are not able to send traffic to workstations on SW2. What could be done to remedy the problem?. Configure all workstations on SW1 to be part of the default VLAN. Allow VLAN 20 on the trunk link. Enable DTP on both ends of the trunk. Configure all workstations on SW2 to be part of the native VLAN.

A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens when a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame?. Only devices in VLAN 20 see the frame. All devices in all VLANs see the frame. Devices in VLAN 20 and the management VLAN see the frame. Only devices that are connected to the local switch see the frame.

Which command displays the encapsulation type, the voice VLAN ID, and the access mode VLAN for the Fa0/1 interface?. Port Fa0/11 will be returned to VLAN 1. VLAN 30 will be deleted. An error message would be displayed. Port Fa0/11 will be shutdown.

Match the DTP mode with its function. Dynamic desirable. Trunk. Nonegotiate. Dynamic auto.

Which four steps are needed to configure a voice VLAN on a switch port? (Choose four.). Configure the switch port in access mode. Assign a data VLAN to the switch port. Add a voice VLAN. Activate spanning-tree PortFast on the interface. Assign the voice VLAN to the switch port. Configure the interface as an IEEE 802.1Q trunk. Ensure that voice traffic is trusted and tagged with a CoS priority value. Configure the switch port interface with subinterfaces.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is reviewing port and VLAN assignments on switch S2 and notices that interfaces Gi0/1 and Gi0/2 are not included in the output. Why would the interfaces be missing from the output?. They are administratively shut down. There is a native VLAN mismatch between the switches. They are configured as trunk interfaces. There is no media connected to the interfaces.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is verifying the configuration of inter-VLAN routing. Users complain that PC2 cannot communicate with PC1. Based on the output, what is the possible cause of the problem?. There is no IP address configured on the interface Gi0/0. The command interface GigabitEthernet0/0.5 was entered incorrectly. Gi0/0 is not configured as a trunk port. The encapsulation dot1Q 5 command contains the wrong VLAN. The no shutdown command is not entered on subinterfaces.

What is a characteristic of a routed port on a Layer 3 switch?. It is commonly used as a WAN link. It supports trunking. It cannot have an IP address assigned to it. It is not assigned to a VLAN.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is verifying the configuration of inter-VLAN routing. Users complain that PCs on different VLANs cannot communicate. Based on the output, what are two configuration errors on switch interface Gi1/1? (Choose two.). Negotiation of trunking is turned on on Gi1/1. Gi1/1 is in the default VLAN. Gi1/1 is configured as trunk mode. The trunking encapsulation protocol is configured wrong. Voice VLAN is not assigned to Gi1/1.

CiscoVille# configure terminal Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z. CiscoVille (config) # interface gigabitethernet 0/0 CiscoVille (config-if) # no ip address CiscoVille (config-if)# interface gigabitethernet 0/0.10 CiscoVille (config-subif) # encapsulation dot1Q 10 CiscoVille (config-subif) # ip address 192.168.10.254 255.255.255.0 CiscoVille (config-subif) # interface gigabitethernet 0/0.20 CiscoVille (config-subif) # encapsulation dot1Q 20 CiscoVille (config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.254 255.255.255.0 CiscoVille (config-subif) # exit CiscoVille (config) # interface gigabitethernet 0/0 CiscoVille (config-if) # no shutdown Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured router CiscoVille with the above commands to provide inter-VLAN routing. What type of port will be required on a switch that is connected to Gi0/0 on router CiscoVille to allow inter-VLAN routing?. access port. routed port. trunk port. SVI.

CiscoVille# configure terminal Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z. CiscoVille (config) # interface gigabitethernet 0/0 CiscoVille (config-if) # no ip address CiscoVille(config-if)# interface gigabitethernet 0/0.10 CiscoVille (config-subif) # encapsulation dot1Q 10 CiscoVille (config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.254 255.255.255.0 CiscoVille (config-subif) # interface gigabitethernet 0/0.20 CiscoVille (config-subif) # encapsulation dot1Q 20 CiscoVille (config-subif) # ip address 192.168.20.254 255.255.255.0 CiscoVille (config-subif) # exit CiscoVille (config) # interface gigabitethernet 0/0 CiscoVille (config-if) # no shutdown Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured router CiscoVille with the above commands to provide inter-VLAN routing. What command will be required on a switch that is connected to the Gi0/0 interface on router CiscoVille to allow inter-VLAN routing?. switchport mode dynamic desirable. switchport mode access. no switchport. switchport mode trunk.

A technician is configuring a new Cisco 2960 switch. What is the effect of issuing the BranchSw# configure terminal command?. It saves the running configuration to NVRAM. It enters the global configuration mode. It updates the MAC address table for the associated port. It saves the startup configuration to the running configuration. It disables a virtual or physical switch interface.

What type of VLAN is configured specifically for network traffic such as SSH, Telnet, HTTPS, HHTP, and SNMP?. native VLAN. security VLAN. voice VLAN. management VLAN.

Which statement describes STP?. STP is a Layer 3 loop prevention protocol for IP networks. STP is a Layer 3 routing protocol for Ethernet LANs. STP is a Layer 2 routing protocol. STP is a Layer 2 loop prevention protocol for Ethernet LANs.

Without STP on the Ethernet LAN, which three types of frames could cause a catastrophic loop in the network? (Choose three.). Unknown unicast. Broadcast. Multicast. Unicast.

What device is elected by the Spanning Tree Algorithm? All other switches determine a single least-cost path to this device. Default gateway. Core switch. Dedicated bridge. Root bridge.

By default (without any configuration on a switch), what will determine which switch is the root bridge?. The MAC address of the switch. The bridge priority. The extended system ID. The bridge ID.

The root bridge will be the switch with the: Highest port priority. Lowest port priority. Highest bridge ID. Lowest bridge ID.

The port closest to the root bridge in terms of least overall cost (best path) to the root bridge is the: Designated port. Blocked port or non-designated port. Routed Port. Root port.

The port on the segment (with two switches) that has the lowest path cost to the root bridge is the: Routed Port. Designated port. Blocked port or non-designated port. Root port.

Which of the following ports will forward Ethernet frames? (Choose two.). Root port. Blocked port or non-dedicated port. Designated port.

The sum of individual port costs along the path from the switch to the root bridge is known as the: Best path cost. Root path cost. Least cost path. Shortest path cost.

How often does a switch send a BPDU?. Every 2 seconds. Only when there is a change in the topology. Every 20 seconds. Every 15 seconds.

Which three STP port states are merged into the RSTP discarding port state? (Choose three.). Forwarding. Blocking. Disabled. Learning. Listening.

Which protocol was designed to bring faster convergence to STP?. PortFast. PVST. MSTP. RSTP.

Which technology solves the problem of a device being unable to get an IPv4 address from a DHCP server due to STP forwarding delay timers?. PortFast. MSTP. BPUD guard. PVST.

Which port state will switch ports immediately transition to when configured for PortFast?. Listening. Learning. Forwarding. Blocking.

After the election of the root bridge has been completed, how will switches find the best paths to the root bridge?. Each switch will analyze the sum of the hops to reach the root and use the path with the fewest hops. Each switch will analyze the BID of all neighbors to reach the root and use the path through the lowest BID neighbors. Each switch will analyze the port states of all neighbors and use the designated ports to forward traffic to the root. Each switch will analyze the sum of all port costs to reach the root and use the path with the lowest cost.

Which is the default STP operation mode on Cisco Catalyst switches?. RSTP. PVST+. MST. MSTP. Rapid PVST+.

What value determines the root bridge when all switches connected by trunk links have default STP configurations?. VLAN ID. MAC address. Extended system ID. Bridge priority.

During the implementation of Spanning Tree Protocol, all switches are rebooted by the network administrator. What is the first step of the spanning-tree election process?. Each switch with a lower root ID than its neighbor will not send BPDUs. All the switches send out BPDUs advertising themselves as the root bridge. Each switch determines the best path to forward traffic. Each switch determines what port to block to prevent a loop from occurring.

Which two concepts relate to a switch port that is intended to have only end devices attached and intended never to be used to connect to another switch? (Choose two.). Bridge ID. Edge port. Extended system ID. PortFast. PVST+.

Which three port states are used by Rapid PVST+? (Choose three.). Discarding. Blocking. Trunking. Listening. Learning. Forwarding.

When PVST is running over a switched network, which port state can participate in BPDU frame forwarding based on BPDUs received, but does not forward data frames?. Blocking. Listening. Forwarding. Disabled.

Which STP port role is adopted by a switch port if there is no other port with a lower cost to the root bridge?. Designated port. Root port. Alternate. Disabled port.

Which two statements describe a switch port that is configured with PortFast? (Choose two.). The switch port immediately transitions from the listening to the forwarding state. The switch port immediately transitions from blocking to the forwarding state. The switch port should never receive BPDUs. The switch port immediately processes any BPDUs before transitioning to the forwarding state. The switch port sends DHCP requests before transitioning to the forwarding state.

What is one way to correct a spanning tree failure?. Replace all instances of STP with RSTP. Insert redundant links to replace the failed STP links. Replace the cables on failed STP links. Manually remove redundant links in the switched network.

What additional information is contained in the 12-bit extended system ID of a BPDU?. MAC address. VLAN ID. IP address. Port ID.

What is an accurate description of redundancy?. Configuring a router with a complete MAC address database to ensure that all frames can be forwarded to the correct destination. Configuring a switch with proper security to ensure that all traffic forwarded through an interface is filtered. Designing a network to use multiple virtual devices to ensure that all traffic uses the best path through the internetwork. Designing a network to use multiple paths between switches to ensure there is no single point of failure.

An administrator is troubleshooting a switch and wants to verify if it is a root bridge. What command can be used to do this?. show spanning-tree. show running-config. show startup-config. show vlan.

Which are benefits of EtherChannel technology? (Choose all that apply.). Fault-tolerance. Increased bandwidth. Link redundancy. Load sharing.

True or False? FastEthernet and GigabitEthernet links can be combined into a single EtherChannel. True. False.

True or False? PAgP and LACP are both Cisco-proprietary link aggregation protocols. False. True.

Which three are PAgP interface modes? (Choose three.). Passive. On. Active. Desirable. Auto.

Which PAgP interface mode will initiate negotiation with other interfaces?. Auto. On. Desirable.

Which combinations of PAgP modes will form an EtherChannel? (Choose all that apply.). On > active. Auto > on. Auto > desirable. Active > passive. Desirable > on. On > on.

An EtherChannel link using LACP was formed between two switches, S1 and S2. While verifying the configuration, which mode combination could be utilized on both switches?. S1-on and S2-passive. S1-passive and S2-passive. S1-on and S2-active. S1-passive and S2-active.

When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which mode will configure PAgP so that it initiates the EtherChannel negotiation?. Active. Auto. Desirable. Passive.

Which three interface parameters must match for an EtherChannel to form? (Choose three.). Allowed VLANs. EtherChannel mode. Native VLAN. PortFast mode. Spanning-tree state. Trunking mode.

What are three advantages of using EtherChannel technology? (Choose three.). EtherChannel uses multiple logical links to provide redundancy. Configuration tasks can be done on the EtherChannel interface. There is no need to upgrade links to faster connections to increase bandwidth. Load balancing is not needed with EtherChannel. The Spanning Tree Protocol shuts down the unused interfaces in the bundle to avoid loops. A spanning tree recalculation is not required when a single link within the channel goes down.

A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel link between two physical ports on a switch. Which statement describes the result when one of the physical ports fails?. The EtherChannel link fails. An STP recalculation is needed. The EtherChannel stops transmitting data until it is restarted. The EtherChannel continues transmitting data with reduced bandwidth.

When EtherChannel is implemented, multiple physical interfaces are bundled into which type of logical connection?. Interface range. Loopback. VLAN interface. Port channel.

When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel by the use of PAgP, which mode will form the bundled channel only if the port receives PAgP packets from another device. Active. Auto. Desirable. Passive.

Which two load balancing methods can be implemented with EtherChannel technology? (Choose two.). Destination MAC to destination IP. Destination IP to destination MAC. Source MAC to destination MAC. Source IP to destination IP. Destination MAC to source MAC. Destination IP to source IP.

Which function is provided by EtherChannel?. Spreading traffic across multiple physical WAN links. Dividing the bandwidth of a single link into separate time slots. Enabling traffic from multiple VLANs to travel over a single Layer 2 link. Creating one logical link by using multiple physical links between two LAN switches.

Which statement is true about EtherChannel technology?. All configuration tasks must be done on the individual ports in the EtherChannel link. EtherChannel uses existing switch ports. Links must be upgraded to support EtherChannel. STP does not run on redundant EtherChannel links.

Which two mode combinations would result in the successful negotiation of an EtherChannel? (Choose two.). Active; passive. Passive; auto. Desirable; active. Auto; auto. Desirable; desirable. Active; on.

Which two protocols are link aggregation protocols? (Choose two.). 802.3ad. PAgP. STP. EtherChannel. RSTP.

When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which mode will configure LACP so that it initiates the EtherChannel negotiation?. Active. Auto. Desirable. Passive.

What will happen if a network administrator puts a port that is part of an EtherChannel bundle into a different VLAN than the other ports in that bundle?. The EtherChannel bundle will stay up only if PAgP is used. The EtherChannel bundle will stay up only if LACP is used. The EtherChannel bundle will stay up if either PAgP or LACP is used. The EtherChannel bundle will stay up if the ports were configured with no negotiation between the switches to form the EtherChannel. The EtherChannel will fail.

When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which mode will configure LACP on a port only if the port receives LACP packets from another device?. Active. Auto. Desirable. Passive.

Refer to the exhibit. Which switching technology would allow each access layer switch link to be aggregated to provide more bandwidth between each Layer 2 switch and the Layer 3 switch?. HSRP. PortFast. Trunking. EtherChannel.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to form an EtherChannel between the two switches by using the Port Aggregation Protocol. If switch S1 is configured to be in auto mode, which mode should be configured on S2 to form the EtherChannel?. on. auto. desirable. off.

Refer to the exhibit. What are the possible port roles for ports A, B, C, and D in this RSTP-enabled network?. alternate, root, designated, root. designated, root, alternate, root. alternate, designated, root, root. designated, alternate, root, root.

What is the value used to determine which port on a non-root bridge will become a root port in a STP network?. the highest MAC address of all the ports in the switch. the lowest MAC address of all the ports in the switch. the VTP revision number. the path cost.

Which port role is assigned to the switch port that has the lowest cost to reach the root bridge?. root port. non-designated port. designated port. disabled port.

Which protocol provides up to 16 instances of RSTP, combines many VLANs with the same physical and logical topology into a common RSTP instance, and provides support for PortFast, BPDU guard, BPDU filter, root guard, and loop guard?. STP. Rapid PVST+. PVST+. MST.

A set of switches is being connected in a LAN topology. Which STP bridge priority value will make it least likely for the switch to be selected as the root?. 4096. 32768. 61440. 65535.

Which three components are combined to form a bridge ID?. Port ID. IP address. Extended system ID. MAC address. Bridge priority. Cost.

When the show spanning-tree vlan 33 command is issued on a switch, three ports are shown in the forwarding state. In which two port roles could these interfaces function while in the forwarding state? (Choose two.). disabled. designated. root. alternate. blocked.

If no bridge priority is configured in PVST, which criteria is considered when electing the root bridge?. lowest IP address. lowest MAC address. highest IP address. highest MAC address.

What are two drawbacks to turning spanning tree off and having multiple paths through the Layer 2 switch network? (Choose two.). The switch acts like a hub. Port security becomes unstable. The MAC address table becomes unstable. Broadcast frames are transmitted indefinitely. Port security shuts down all of the ports that have attached devices.

What is the outcome of a Layer 2 broadcast storm?. Routers will take over the forwarding of frames as switches become congested. New traffic is discarded by the switch because it is unable to be processed. CSMA/CD will cause each host to continue transmitting frames. ARP broadcast requests are returned to the transmitting host.

What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?. prevents Layer 2 loops. prevents routing loops on a router. creates smaller collision domains. creates smaller broadcast domains. allows Cisco devices to exchange routing table updates.

In which two port states does a switch learn MAC addresses and process BPDUs in a PVST network? (Choose two.). blocking. disabled. forwarding. learning. listening.

Which two network design features require Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to ensure correct network operation? (Choose two.). static default routes. implementing VLANs to contain broadcasts. redundant links between Layer 2 switches. link-state dynamic routing that provides redundant routes. removing single points of failure with multiple Layer 2 switches.

What is the function of STP in a scalable network?. It decreases the size of the failure domain to contain the impact of failures. It protects the edge of the enterprise network from malicious activity. It disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops. It combines multiple switch trunk links to act as one logical link for increased bandwidth.

What is a characteristic of spanning tree?. It is enabled by default on Cisco switches. It has a TTL mechanism that works at Layer 2. It prevents propagation of Layer 2 broadcast frames. It is used to discover information about an adjacent Cisco device.

Which statement describes an EtherChannel implementation?. EtherChannel operates only at Layer 2. PAgP cannot be used in conjunction with EtherChannel. A trunked port can be part of an EtherChannel bundle. EtherChannel can support up to a maximum of ten separate links.

Which statement is true regarding the use of PAgP to create EtherChannels?. It requires full duplex. It is Cisco proprietary. It requires more physical links than LACP does. It increases the number of ports that are participating in spanning tree. It mandates that an even number of ports (2, 4, 6, etc.) be used for aggregation.

What are two load-balancing methods in the EtherChannel technology? (Choose two.). combination of source port and IP to destination port and IP. source IP to destination IP. source port to destination port. combination of source MAC and IP to destination MAC and I. source MAC to destination MAC.

Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output that is shown, what can be determined about the EtherChannel bundle?. The EtherChannel bundle is down. The EtherChannel bundle is operating at both Layer 2 and Layer 3. Two Gigabit Ethernet ports are used to form the EtherChannel. A Cisco proprietary protocol was used to negotiate the EtherChannel link.

What are two requirements to be able to configure an EtherChannel between two switches? (Choose two.). The interfaces that are involved need to be contiguous on the switch. All the interfaces need to work at the same speed. All the interfaces need to be working in the same duplex mode. All interfaces need to be assigned to different VLANs. Different allowed ranges of VLANs must exist on each end.

A network administrator configured an EtherChannel link with three interfaces between two switches. What is the result if one of the three interfaces is down?. The EtherChannel fails. The remaining two interfaces continue to load balance traffic. The remaining two interfaces become separate links between the two switches. One interface becomes an active link for data traffic and the other becomes a backup link.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel link between two switches, SW1 and SW2. However, the EtherChannel link fails to establish. What change in configuration would correct the problem?. Configure SW1 EtherChannel mode to on. Configure SW2 EtherChannel mode to on. Configure SW2 EtherChannel mode to auto. Configure SW2 EtherChannel mode to desirable.

When EtherChannel is configured, which mode will force an interface into a port channel without exchanging aggregation protocol packets?. active. auto. on. desirable.

Which technology is an open protocol standard that allows switches to automatically bundle physical ports into a single logical link?. Multilink PPP. DTP. LACP. PAgP.

What are two advantages of EtherChannel? (Choose two.). Configuring the EtherChannel interface provides consistency in the configuration of the physical links. Load balancing occurs between links configured as different EtherChannels. EtherChannel uses upgraded physical links to provide increased bandwidth. Spanning Tree Protocol views the physical links in an EtherChannel as one logical connection. Spanning Tree Protocol ensures redundancy by transitioning failed interfaces in an EtherChannel to a forwarding state.

What are two advantages of using LACP? (Choose two.). LACP allows Fast Ethernet and Gigabit Ethernet interfaces to be mixed within a single EtherChannel. It eliminates the need for configuring trunk interfaces when deploying VLANs on multiple switches. It allows directly connected switches to negotiate an EtherChannel link. It provides a simulated environment for testing link aggregation. It decreases the amount of configuration that is needed on a switch. It allows the use of multivendor devices.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel link between two switches, SW1 and SW2. Which statement describes the effect after the commands are issued on SW1 and SW2?. The EtherChannel fails to establish. The EtherChannel is established without negotiation. The EtherChannel is established after SW1 initiates the link request. The EtherChannel is established after SW2 initiates the link request.

Which two parameters must match on the ports of two switches to create a PAgP EtherChannel between the switches? (Choose two.). MAC address. Speed. VLAN information. PAgP mode. Port ID.

A switch is configured to run STP. What term describes the switch port closest, in terms of overall cost, to the root bridge?. root port. designated port. alternate port. disabled.

Which message is sent by a DHCPv4 client to initiate the lease obtaining process?. DHCPREQUEST. DCHPOFFER. DHCPDISCOVER. DHCPACK.

Which two DHCPv4 messages are sent by the server in the lease obtaining process? (Choose two.). DHCPREQUEST. DCHPOFFER. DHCPACK. DHCPDISCOVER.

Which two DHCPv4 messages are used in the lease renewal process? (Choose two.). DHCPDISCOVER. DHCPREQUEST. DHCPACK. DCHPOFFER.

A DHCP-enabled client PC has just booted. During which two steps will the client PC use broadcast messages when communicating with a DHCP server? (Choose two.). DHCPNAK. DHCPDISCOVER. DHCPREQUEST. DHCPACK. DHCPOFFER.

An administrator issues the commands: Router(config)# interface g0/1 Router(config-if)# ip address dhcp What is the administrator trying to achieve?. Configuring the router to act as a relay agent. Configuring the router to resolve IP address conflicts. Configuring the router to act as a DHCPv4 server. Configuring the router to obtain IP parameters from a DHCPv4 server.

When a client is requesting an initial address lease from a DHCP server, why is the DHCPREQUEST message sent as a broadcast?. The DHCP server may be on a different subnet, so the request must be sent as a broadcast. The client does not yet know the IP address of the DHCP server that sent the offer. The client may have received offers from multiple servers, and the broadcast serves to implicitly decline those other offers. The client does not have a MAC address assigned yet, so it cannot send a unicast message at Layer 2.

Which DHCP IPv4 message contains the following information? Destination address: 255.255.255.255 Client IPv4 address: 0.0.0.0 Default gateway address: 0.0.0.0 Subnet mask: 0.0.0.0. DHCPACK. DHCPDISCOVER. DHCPREQUEST. DHCPOFFER.

What kind of message is sent by a DHCPv4 client requesting an IP address?. DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message. DHCPDISCOVER unicast message. DHCPACK unicast message. DHCPOFFER unicast message.

As a DHCPv4 client lease is about to expire, what is the message that the client sends the DHCP server?. DHCPREQUEST. DHCPDISCOVER. DHCPOFFER. DHCPACK.

What is the destination IP address when an IPv4 host sends a DHCPDISCOVER message?. 224.0.0.1. 0.0.0.0. 255.255.255.255. 192.168.1.1.

If more than one DHCP server is available on the local network, in which order will DHCP messages be sent between a host and a DHCP server?. Acknowledgment, request, offer, discover. Discover, offer, request, acknowledgment. Request, discover, offer, acknowledgment. Request, acknowledgment, discover, offer.

What is the most likely scenario in which the WAN interface of a router would be configured as a DHCP client to be assigned a dynamic IP address from an ISP?. The router is also the gateway for a LAN. It is a SOHO or home broadband router. The router is configured as a DHCP server. There is a web server for public access on the LAN that is attached to the router.

Which is a DHCPv4 address allocation method that assigns IPv4 addresses for a limited lease period?. Pre-allocation. Manual allocation. Automatic allocation. Dynamic allocation.

What is the reason why the DHCPREQUEST message is sent as a broadcast during the DHCPv4 process?. To notify other hosts not to request the same IP address. For hosts on other subnets to receive the information. To notify other DHCP servers on the subnet that the IP address was leased. For routers to fill their routing tables with this new information.

How is a DHCPDISCOVER transmitted on a network to reach a DHCP server?. A DHCPDISCOVER message is sent with a multicast IP address that all DHCP servers listen to as the destination address. A DHCPDISCOVER message is sent with the IP address of the DHCP server as the destination address. A DHCPDISCOVER message is sent with the broadcast IP address as the destination address. A DHCPDISCOVER message is sent with the IP address of the default gateway as the destination address.

Which destination IPv4 address does a DHCPv4 client use to send the initial DHCP Discover packet when the client is looking for a DHCP server?. 255.255.255.255. 127.0.0.1. 224.0.0.1. The IP address of the default gateway.

Under which two circumstances would a router usually be configured as a DHCPv4 client? (Choose two.). This is an ISP requirement. The router has a fixed IP address. The administrator needs the router to act as a relay agent. The router is intended to be used as a SOHO gateway. The router is meant to provide IP addresses to the hosts.

Which address does a DHCPv4 server target when sending a DHCPOFFER message to a client that makes an address request?. Client IP address. Broadcast MAC address. Client hardware address. Gateway IP address.

Which address type is automatically created by default on a host interface when no RAs are received?. Global unicast address. MAC address. Link-local address.

Which method best describes stateless DHCP?. SLAAC only. Stateful DHCPv6 Server. SLAAC with stateless DHCPv6 Server.

Which two ICMPv6 messages are used in the SLAAC process? (Choose two.). Router Advertisements (RA). Router Solicitation (RS). Neighbor Solicitation (NS). Neighbor Advertisements (NA).

Which command must be configured on a router to enable it to join the IPv6 all-routers multicast address ff02 :: 2?. ip routing. ipv6 address ipv6-address link-local. ipv6 unicast-routing. ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length.

What are the flag settings when a host should use the SLAAC only option?. A=1, M=1, O=0. A=1, M=0, O=1. A=1, M=0, O=0. A=0, M=1, O=1.

Which ICMPv6 message is sent by a host in an attempt to locate an online IPv6 enabled router to obtain IPv6 addressing information?. Neighbor Advertisements (NA). Router Advertisements (RA). Neighbor Solicitation (NS). Router Solicitation (RS).

What method is used by a host to verify an IPv6 address is unique on the local network before assigning that address to an interface?. DAD. SLAAC. PING. ARP.

What destination UDP port do DHCPv6 clients use to send DHCPv6 messages?. 68. 546. 67. 547.

What DHCPv6 message does a host send to look for a DHCPv6 server?. ADVERTISE. INFORMATION-REQUEST. REQUEST. SOLICIT.

What DHCPv6 message does a host send to the DHCPv6 server if it is using stateful DHCPv6?. ADVERTISE. REQUEST. SOLICIT. INFORMATION-REQUEST.

What flag settings combination is used for stateless DHCP?. A=1, M=0, O=0. A=0, M=1, O=1. A=0, M=1, O=0. A=1, M=0, O=1.

What M flag setting indicates that stateful DHCPv6 is used?. M=1. M=0.

Which three DHCPv6 roles can a router perform? (Choose all that apply.). DHCPv6 server. DHCPv6 relay agent. DHCPv6 client. DHCPv6 pool.

Which command is not configured in stateless DHCPv6?. domain-name name. ipv6 dhcp server pool-name. dns-server server-address. address prefix ipv6-address/prefix.

An IPv6-enabled router is to acquire its IPv6 GUA from another IPv6 router using SLAAC. Which interface configuration command should be configured on the client router?. ipv6 address autoconfig. ipv6 address auto config. ipv6 address dhcpv6. ipv6 address dhcp.

A router is to provide DHCPv6 server services. Which command should be configured on the client facing interface?. ipv6 enable. ipv6 dhcp server POOL-NAME. ipv6 dhcp pool POOL-NAME. ipv6 nd other-config-flag.

An IPv6-enabled router is to acquire its IPv6 GUA from a DHCPv6 server. Which interface configuration command should be configured on client router?. ipv6 address autoconfig. ipv6 address auto config. ipv6 address dhcpv6. ipv6 address dhcp.

Which DHCPv6 verification command would display the link-local and GUA assigned address for each active client?. show ip dhcp pool. show ipv6 dhcp interface. show ipv6 dhcp pool. show ipv6 dhcp binding.

Which command is configured on the client LAN interface of the DHCPv6 relay agent?. ipv6 enable. ipv6 dhcp relay destination. ipv6 helper-address. ip helper-address.

How does an IPv6 client ensure that it has a unique address after it configures its IPv6 address using the SLAAC allocation method?. It checks with the IPv6 address database that is hosted by the SLAAC server. It sends an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message with the IPv6 address as the target IPv6 address. It contacts the DHCPv6 server via a special formed ICMPv6 message. It sends an ARP message with the IPv6 address as the destination IPv6 address.

Which method would an IPv6-enabled host using SLAAC employ to learn the address of the default gateway?. Advertise messages that are received from the DHCPv6 server. Neighbor advertisements that are eceived from link neighbors. Reply messages that are received from the DHCPv6 server. Router advertisements that are received from the link router.

What two methods can be used to generate an interface ID by an IPv6 host that is using SLAAC? (Choose two.). DAD. Random generation. ARP. Stateful DHCPv6. EUI-64.

Which command should be configured on a router interface to set the router as a stateful DHCPv6 client?. ipv6 address autoconfigure. ipv6 dhcp server stateful. ipv6 enable. ipv6 address dhcp.

A client is using SLAAC to obtain an IPv6 address for its interface. After an address has been generated and applied to the interface, what must the client do before it can begin to use this IPv6 address?. It must send a DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST message to request the address of the DNS server. It must send a DHCPv6 REQUEST message to the DHCPv6 server to request permission to use this address. It must send an ICMPv6 Router Solicitation message to determine what default gateway it should use. It must send an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message to ensure that the address is not already in use on the network.

What message informs IPv6 enabled interfaces to use stateful DHCPv6 for obtaining an IPv6 address?. The ICMPv6 Router Advertisement. The DHCPv6 Reply message. The ICMPv6 Router Solicitation. The DHCPv6 Advertise message.

Which destination IP address is used when an IPv6 host sends a DHCPv6 SOLICIT message to locate a DHCPv6 server?. FF02 :: 1:2. FF02 :: 1. FE80 :: 1. FF02 :: 2.

In which alternative to DHCPv6 does a router dynamically provide IPv6 configuration information to hosts?. ICMPv6. ARP. EUI-64. SLAAC.

A company implements the stateless DHCPv6 method for configuring IPv6 addresses on employee workstations. After a workstation receives messages from multiple DHCPv6 servers to indicate their availability for DHCPv6 service, which message does it send to a server for configuration information?. DHCPv6 SOLICIT. DHCPv6 ADVERTISE. DHCPv6 REQUEST. DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST.

What process is used in ICMPv6 for a host to verify that an IPv6 address is unique before configuring it on an interface?. EUI-64. DAD. SLAAC. ARP.

What are two characteristics of the SLAAC method for IPv6 address configuration? (Choose two.). This stateful method of acquiring an IPv6 address requires at least one DHCPv6 server. Clients send router advertisement messages to routers to request IPv6 addressing. The default gateway of an IPv6 client on a LAN will be the link-local address of the router interface attached to the LAN. IPv6 addressing is dynamically assigned to clients through the use of ICMPv6. Router solicitation messages are sent by the router to offer IPv6 addressing to clients.

After booting, a client receives an ICMPv6 RA message with the M flag set to 0 and the O flag set to 1. What does this indicate?. The client should automatically configure an IPv6 address and then contact a DHCPv6 server for more information. The client should request an IPv6 address directly from a DHCPv6 server. The client should be statically configured with an IPv6 address because the local router does not support autoconfiguration. The client should automatically configure an IPv6 address without contacting a DHCPv6 server.

A network administrator is entering the command ipv6 unicast-routing to start configuring DHCPv6 operation on a router. Which statement describes the function of this command?. It is required for enabling DNS service in DHCPv6 configurations. It is required to configure stateful DHCPv6 server on the router. It is required to configure stateless DHCPv6 server on the router. It is required for sending ICMPv6 RA messages.

What type of device routes traffic destined to network segments beyond the source network segment for which the sending node may not have explicit routing information?. Virtual router. Layer 3 switch. Default gateway. Standby router.

What device presents the illusion of a single router to hosts on a LAN segment but actually represents a set of routers working together?. Layer 3 switch. Forwarding router. Default gateway. Virtual router.

What device is part of a virtual router group assigned the role of alternate default gateway?. Virtual router. Layer 3 switch. Standby router. Default gateway.

What device that is part of a virtual router group assigned to the role of default gateway?. Virtual router. Layer 3 switch. Default gateway. Forwarding router.

Which FHRPs are Cisco-proprietary? (Choose two.). VRRPv2. HSRP. HSRP for IPv6. IRDP.

What is the default HSRP priority?. 255. 100. 50. 150.

True or False? If a router with a higher HSRP priority joins the network, it will take over the active router roll from an existing active router which has a lower priority. True. False.

During which HSRP state does an interface begin sending periodic hello messages?. Speak. Active. Listen. Initial.

Which is a characteristic of the HSRP learn state?. The router sends periodic hello messages. The router actively participates in the active/standby election process. The router knows the virtual IP address. The router has not determined the virtual IP address.

What is the purpose of HSRP?. It provides a continuous network connection when a router fails. It enables an access port to immediately transition to the forwarding state. It prevents malicious hosts from connecting to trunk ports. It prevents a rogue switch from becoming the STP root.

Which nonproprietary protocol provides router redundancy for a group of routers which support IPv4 LANs?. SLB. GLBP. HSRP. VRRPv2.

A network administrator is analyzing first-hop router redundancy protocols. What is a characteristic of VRRPv3?. VRRPv3 is Cisco proprietary. It supports IPv6 and IPv4 addressing. It works together with HSRP. It allows load balancing between routers.

What is a potential disadvantage when implementing HSRP as compared to GLBP?. HSRP does not have the capability to support IPv6 addresses. HSRP does not function in a multivendor environment. HSRP provides default gateway failover only when the active router fails. HSRP does not provide load balancing with multiple active routers.

A network engineer is configuring a LAN with a redundant first hop to make better use of the available network resources. Which protocol should the engineer implement?. GLBP. VRRP. HSRP. FHRP.

When first hop redundancy protocols are used, which two items will be shared by a set of routers that are presenting the illusion of being a single router? (Choose two.). IP address. Hostname. Static route. MAC address. BIC.

In FHRP terminology, what represents a set of routers that present the illusion of a single router to hosts?. Virtual router. Default gateway. Standby router. Forwarding router.

A user needs to add redundancy to the routers in a company. What are the three options the user can use? (Choose three.). STP. HSRP. IPFIX. VRRP. GLBP. RAID.

Which two protocols provide gateway redundancy at Layer 3? (Choose two.). STP. RSTP. PVST. HSRP. VRRP.

A network administrator is overseeing the implementation of first hop redundancy protocols. Which two protocols are Cisco proprietary? (Choose two.). VRRPv2. VRRP. IRDP. HSRP. GLBP.

Which statement describes a characteristic of GLBP?. It provides automatic rerouting if any router in the group fails. It provides load balancing for a maximum of four gateways. It provides multiple virtual IP addresses and multiple virtual MAC addresses. It does not provide support for IPv6.

A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement is a feature that is associated with GLBP?. It is nonproprietary. It works together with VRRP. GLBP allows load balancing between routers. It uses a virtual router master.

Which statement describes HSRP?. It is used within a group of routers for selecting an active device and a standby device to provide gateway services to a LAN. It is an open standard protocol. It uses ICMP to allow IPv4 hosts to locate routers that provide IPv4 connectivity to remote IP networks. If the virtual router master fails, one router is elected as the virtual router master with the other routers acting as backups.

Match the DHCP message types to the order of the DHCPv4 process. Step 3. Step 1. Step 4. Step 2.

After a host has generated an IPv6 address by using the DHCPv6 or SLAAC process, how does the host verify that the address is unique and therefore usable?. The host checks the local neighbor cache for the learned address and if the address is not cached, it it considered unique. The host sends an ICMPv6 echo request message to the DHCPv6 or SLAAC-learned address and if no reply is returned, the address is considered unique. The host sends an ARP broadcast to the local link and if no hosts send a reply, the address is considered unique. The host sends an ICMPv6 neighbor solicitation message to the DHCP or SLAAC-learned address and if no neighbor advertisement is returned, the address is considered unique.

A small coffee shop is offering free Wi-Fi to customers. The network includes a wireless router and a DSL modem that is connected to the local phone company. What method is typically used to configure the connection to the phone company?. Set the connection between the wireless router and the DSL modem as a private IP network. Set the WAN connection in the wireless router as a DHCP client. Set the DSL modem as a DHCP client to the phone company and a DHCP server for the internal connection. Set the DSL modem as a DHCP client to get a public IP address from the wireless router.

A host PC is attempting to lease an address through DHCP. What message is sent by the server to let the client know it is able to use the provided IP information?. DHCPREQUEST. DHCPOFFER. DHCPNACK. DHCPACK. DHCPDISCOVER.

What is an advantage of configuring a Cisco router as a relay agent?. It can provide relay services for multiple UDP services. It will allow DHCPDISCOVER messages to pass without alteration. It can forward both broadcast and multicast messages on behalf of clients. It reduces the response time from a DHCP server.

What information can be verified through the show ip dhcp binding command?. the IPv4 addresses that are assigned to hosts by the DHCP server. the number of IP addresses remaining in the DHCP pool. that DHCPv4 discover messages are still being received by the DHCP server. the IPv4 addresses that have been excluded from the DHCPv4 pool.

What is a result when the DHCP servers are not operational in a network?. Workstations are assigned with the IP address 0.0.0.0. Workstations are assigned with IP addresses in the 169.254.0.0/16 network. Workstations are assigned with IP addresses in the 10.0.0.0/8 network. Workstations are assigned with the IP address 127.0.0.1.

Which message does an IPv4 host use to reply when it receives a DHCPOFFER message from a DHCP server?. DHCPACK. DHCPOFFER. DHCPREQUEST. DHCPDISCOVER.

Match the purpose with its DHCP message type. A message that is used to identify the explicit server and lease offer to accept. A message that is used to acknowledge that the lease is successful. A message that is used to locate any available DHCP server on a network. A message that is used to suggest a lease to a client.

Which protocol automates assignment of IP addresses on a network, and which port number does it use? (Choose two.). 53. DNS. 67. DHCP. SMB. 80.

What is the result of a network technician issuing the command ip dhcp excluded-address 10.0.15.1 10.0.15.15 on a Cisco router?. The Cisco router will exclude only the 10.0.15.1 and 10.0.15.15 IP addresses from being leased to DHCP clients. The Cisco router will allow only the specified IP addresses to be leased to clients. The Cisco router will exclude 15 IP addresses from being leased to DHCP clients. The Cisco router will automatically create a DHCP pool using a /28 mask.

Match each DHCP message type with its description. DHCPACK. DHCPREQUEST. DHCPOFFER. DHCPDISCOVER.

Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP address lease has expired?. a DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message. a DHCPREQUEST broadcast message. a DHCPDISCOVER unicast message. a DHCPREQUEST unicast message.

What is one indication that a Windows computer did not receive an IPv4 address from a DHCP server?. The computer cannot ping 127.0.0.1. The computer receives an IP address that starts with 169.254. The computer cannot ping other devices on the same network with IP addresses in the 169.254.0.0/16 range. Windows displays a DHCP timeout message.

Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?. ip dhcp pool. service dhcp. ip helper-address. ip address dhcp.

A client device on an Ethernet segment needs an IP address in order to communicate on the network. A DHCP server with IP address 192.168.1.1 has been configured and enabled on the network. How will a client device obtain a usable IP address for this network?. Send a DHCPREQUEST packet to IP address 255.255.255.255. Send a DHCPACK packet to the default gateway address. Use a statically configured IP address from the pool of IP addresses that is offered by the DHCP server. Send a DHCPDISCOVER message to physical address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF.

Which set of commands will configure a router as a DHCP server that will assign IPv4 addresses to the 192.168.100.0/23 LAN while reserving the first 10 and the last addresses for static assignment?. ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9 ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254 ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100 ip network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0 ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1. ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10 ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254 ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100 network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0 default-router 192.168.100.1. dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100 ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9 ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254 network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0 default-router 192.168.101.1. ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10 ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254 ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100 network 192.168.100.0 255.255.255.0 ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1.

R1# configure terminal Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z. R1 (config) # ipv6 unicast-routing R1 (config) # ipv6 dhep pool ACAD_NET R1 (config-dhcp)# dns-server 2001:db8 :acad:a1 :: 10 R1 (config-dhcp) # domain-name netacad.net R1 (config-dhcp)# exit R1 (config) # interface gigabitEthernet 0/0 R1 (config-if)# ipv6 address 2001:db8 :acad:1 :: 1/64 R1 (config-if)# ipv6 dhop server ACAD_NET R1 (config-if) # end R1# R1# show ipv6 dhcp pool DHCPv6 pool: ACAD_NET DNS server: 2001:DB8:ACAD:A1 :: 10 Domain name: netacad.net Active clients: 0 R1# Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is implementing the stateless DHCPv6 operation for the company. Clients are configuring IPv6 addresses as expected. However, the clients are not getting the DNS server address and the domain name information configured in the DHCP pool. What could be the cause of the problem?. The GigabitEthernet interface is not activated. The clients cannot communicate with the DHCPv6 server, evidenced by the number of active clients being 0. The router is configured for SLAAC operation. The DNS server address is not on the same network as the clients are on.

Match the descriptions to the corresponding DHCPv6 server type. Enabled in RA messages with the ipv6 nd other-config-flag command. Clients send only DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST messages to the server. Enabled on the client with the ipv6 address autoconfig command. The M flag is set to 1 in RA messages. Uses the address command to create a pool of addresses for clients.

Refer to the exhibit. PC-A is unable to receive an IPv6 address from the stateful DHCPv6 server. What is the problem?. The ipv6 dhcp relay command should use the link-local address of the DHCP server. The ipv6 dhcp relay command should be applied to interface Gig0/0. The ipv6 nd managed-config-flag should be applied to interface Gig0/1. The ipv6 nd managed-config-flag command should be ipv6 nd other-config-flag.

A company uses the SLAAC method to configure IPv6 addresses for the employee workstations. Which address will a client use as its default gateway?. the global unicast address of the router interface that is attached to the network. the link-local address of the router interface that is attached to the network. the unique local address of the router interface that is attached to the network. the all-routers multicast address.

R1# configure terminal Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z. R1 (config) # ipv6 unicast-routing R1 (config) # ipv6 dhcp pool ACAD_CLASS R1 (config-dhcp)# dns-server 2001:db8 : acad:a1 :: 10 R1 (config-dhcp) # domain-name netacad.net R1 (config-dhcp)# exit R1 (config) # interface gigabitEthernet 0/0 R1 (config-if) # ipv6 address 2001:db8: acad:1 :: 1/64 R1 (config-if) # ipv6 dhcp server ACAD_CLASS R1 (config-if)# ipv6 nd other-config-flag R1 (config-if)# end R1# Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router for DHCPv6 operation. Which conclusion can be drawn based on the commands?. Clients would configure the interface IDs above 0010. The router is configured for stateful DHCPv6 operation, but the DHCP pool configuration is incomplete. The DHCPv6 server name is ACAD_CLASS. The router is configured for stateless DHCPv6 operation.

Match the DHCP message types to the order of the stateful DHCPv6 process when a client first connects to an IPv6 network. Step 2. Step 1. Step 4. Step 3.

A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement describes a feature that is associated with HSRP?. HSRP is nonproprietary. It allows load balancing between a group of redundant routers. It uses ICMP messages in order to assign the default gateway to hosts. HSRP uses active and standby routers.

Refer to the exhibit. What protocol can be configured on gateway routers R1 and R2 that will allow traffic from the internal LAN to be load balanced across the two gateways to the Internet?. PVST+. PVST. GLBP. STP.

Refer to the exhibit. Which destination MAC address is used when frames are sent from the workstation to the default gateway?. MAC addresses of both the forwarding and standby routers. MAC address of the standby router. MAC address of the forwarding router. MAC address of the virtual router.

Match the step number to the sequence of stages that occur during the HSRP failover process. Step 4. Step 3. Step 1. Step 2.

FastEthernet0/1 - Group 1 State is Active 1 state change, last state change 00:02:34 Virtual IP address is 192.168.2.100 Hello time 3 sec, hold time 10 sec Next hello sent in 0.288 secs Redirect time 600 sec, forwarder timeout 14400 sec Preemption disabled Active is local Standby is 192.168.2.2, priority 100 (expires in 8.640 sec) Priority 100 (default) Weighting 100 (default 100), thresholds: lower 1, upper 100 Load balancing: round-robin Group members: 001e.7aa3.5e71 (192.168.2.1) local 001e.7aa3.5f31 (192.168.2.2) There are 2 forwarders (1 active) Forwarder 1 State is Active 1 state change, last state change 00:02:23 MAC address is 0007.b400.0101 (default) Owner ID is 001e.7aa3.5e71 Redirection enabled Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is troubleshooting host connectivity on a LAN that uses a first hop redundancy protocol. Which IPv4 gateway address should be configured on the host?. 192.168.2.2. 192.168.2.100. 192.168.2.0. 192.168.2.1.

Match the FHRP protocols to the appropriate description. GLBP. HSRP. VRRP.

Which FHRP implementation is a Cisco-proprietary protocol that suppports IPv4 load sharing?. VRRPv3. IRDP. GLBP. GLBP for IPv6.

The address pool of a DHCP server is configured with 10.7.30.0/24. The network administrator reserves 5 IP addresses for printers. How many IP addresses are left in the pool to be assigned to other hosts?. 247. 253. 249. 250. 239.

Which attack encrypts the data on hosts in an attempt to extract a monetary payment from the victim?. DDoS. Malware. Data breach. Ransomware.

Which devices are specifically designed for network security? (Choose three). WLC. NGFW. VPN-enabled router. Switch. NAC.

Which device monitors SMTP traffic to block threats and encrypt outgoing messages to prevent data loss?. NGFW. ESA. WSA. NAC.

Which device monitors HTTP traffic to block access to risky sites and encrypt outgoing messages?. WSA. NGFW. ESA. NAC.

Which AAA component is responsible for collecting and reporting usage data for auditing and billing purposes?. Accounting. Authorization. Authentication.

Which AAA component is responsible for controlling who is permitted to access the network?. Authentication. Authorization. Accounting.

Which AAA component is responsible for determining what the user can access?. Authentication. Authorization. Accounting.

In an 802.1X implementation, which device is responsible for relaying responses?. Authentication server. Router. Client. Supplicant. Authenticator.

Which of the following mitigation techniques are used to protect Layer 3 through Layer 7 of the OSI Model? (Choose three.). VPN. IPS devices. DHCP snooping. IPSG. Firewalls.

Which of the following mitigation techniques prevents many types of attacks including MAC address table overflow and DHCP starvation attacks?. DAI. DHCP snooping. IPSG. Port security.

Which of the following mitigation techniques prevents MAC and IP address spoofing?. IPSG. Port security. DHCP snooping. DAI.

Which of the following mitigation techniques prevents ARP spoofing and ARP poisoning attacks?. DAI. Port security. DHCP snooping. IPSG.

Which of the following mitigation techniques prevents DHCP starvation and DHCP spoofing attacks?. DAI. Port security. IPSG. DHCP snooping.

What is the behavior of a switch as a result of a successful MAC address table attack?. The switch interfaces will transition to the error-disabled state. The switch will forward all received frames to all other ports within the VLAN. The switch will drop all received frames. The switch will shut down.

What would be the primary reason a threat actor would launch a MAC address overflow attack?. So that the threat actor can see frames that are destined for other devices. So that the threat actor can execute arbitrary code on the switch. So that legitimate hosts cannot obtain a MAC address. So that the switch stops forwarding traffic.

What mitigation technique must be implemented to prevent MAC address overflow attacks?. DAI. IPSG. DHCP snooping. Port security.

A threat actor changes the MAC address of the threat actor's device to the MAC address of the default gateway. What type of attack is this?. DHCP starvation. ARP spoofing. Address spoofing. VLAN hopping. CDP reconnaissance. STP attack.

A threat actor sends a BPDU message with priority 0. What type of attack is this?. ARP spoofing. STP attack. Address spoofing. VLAN hopping. CDP reconnaissance. DHCP starvation.

A threat actor leases all the available IP addresses on a subnet. What type of attack is this?. ARP spoofing. STP attack. DHCP starvation. VLAN hopping. Address spoofing. CDP reconnaissance.

A threat actor sends a message that causes all other devices to believe the MAC address of the threat actor's device is the default gateway. What type of attack is this?. VLAN hopping. ARP spoofing. CDP reconnaissance. DHCP starvation. Address spoofing. STP attack.

A threat actor configures a host with the 802.1Q protocol and forms a trunk with the connected switch. What type of attack is this?. DHCP starvation. VLAN hopping. Address spoofing. STP attack. CDP reconnaissance. ARP spoofing.

A threat actor discovers the IOS version and IP addresses of the local switch. What type of attack is this?. CDP reconnaissance. Address spoofing. VLAN hopping. STP attack. DHCP starvation. ARP spoofing.

What two protocols are supported on Cisco devices for AAA communications? (Choose two.). LLDP. RADIUS. VTP. TACACS+. HSRP.

Which service is enabled on a Cisco router by default that can reveal significant information about the router and potentially make it more vulnerable to attack?. HTTP. LLDP. FTP. CDP.

When security is a concern, which OSI Layer is considered to be the weakest link in a network system?. Layer 4. Layer 2. Layer 7. Layer 3.

Which Layer 2 attack will result in a switch flooding incoming frames to all ports?. IP address spoofing. ARP poisoning. Spanning Tree Protocol manipulation. MAC address overflow.

Why is authentication with AAA preferred over a local database method?. It uses less network bandwidth. It specifies a different password for each line or port. It provides a fallback authentication method if the administrator forgets the username or password. It requires a login and password combination on the console, vty lines, and aux ports.

In a server-based AAA implementation, which protocol will allow the router to successfully communicate with the AAA server?. TACACS. SSH. 802.1x. RADIUS.

Which Cisco solution helps prevent MAC and IP address spoofing attacks?. DHCP Snooping. Port Security. IP Source Guard. Dynamic ARP Inspection.

What is the purpose of AAA accounting?. To collect and report application usage. To determine which operations the user can perform. To determine which resources the user can access. To prove users are who they say they are.

Which Layer 2 attack will result in legitimate users not getting valid IP addresses?. IP address spoofing. ARP spoofing. MAC address flooding. DHCP starvation.

Which three Cisco products focus on endpoint security solutions? (Choose three.). SSL/IPsec VPN Appliance. Adaptive Security Appliance. Web Security Appliance. NAC Appliance. Email Security Appliance. IPS Sensor Appliance.

True or False? In the 802.1X standard, the client attempting to access the network is referred to as the supplicant. True. False.

What is involved in an IP address spoofing attack?. Bogus DHCPDISCOVER messages are sent to consume all the available IP addresses on a DHCP server. A rogue DHCP server provides false IP configuration parameters to legitimate DHCP clients. A legitimate network IP address is hijacked by a rogue node. A rogue node replies to an ARP request with its own MAC address indicated for the target IP address.

What three services are provided by the AAA framework? (Choose three.). Automation. Accounting. Autoconfiguration. Authorization. Authentication. Autobalancing.

Because of implemented security controls, a user can only access a server with FTP. Which AAA component accomplishes this?. Accessibility. Authentication. Auditing. Authorization. Accounting.

What mitigation plan is best for thwarting a DoS attack that is creating a MAC address table overflow?. Disable DTP. Disable STP. Enable port security. Place unused ports in an unused VLAN.

What is a recommended best practice when dealing with the native VLAN?. Use port security. Turn off DTP. Assign the same VLAN number as the management VLAN. Assign it to an unused VLAN.

On what switch ports should PortFast be enabled to enhance STP stability?. Only ports that attach to a neighboring switch. Only ports that are elected as designated ports. All end-user ports. All trunk ports that are not root ports.

Which command would be best to use on an unused switch port if a company adheres to the best practices as recommended by Cisco?. ip dhcp snooping. switchport port-security mac-address sticky. switchport port-security violation shutdown. shutdown. switchport port-security mac-address sticky mac-address.

Which two features on a Cisco Catalyst switch can be used to mitigate DHCP starvation and DHCP spoofing attacks? (Choose two.). DHCP snooping. Port security. Strong password on DHCP servers. DHCP server failover. Extended ACL.

What is the best way to prevent a VLAN hopping attack?. Disable STP on all nontrunk ports. Use ISL encapsulation on all trunk links. Disable trunk negotiation for trunk ports and statically set nontrunk ports as access ports. Use VLAN 1 as the native VLAN on trunk ports.

Which procedure is recommended to mitigate the chances of ARP spoofing?. Enable port security globally. Enable DHCP snooping on selected VLANs. Enable DAI on the management VLAN. Enable IP Source Guard on trusted ports.

What are two types of switch ports that are used on Cisco switches as part of the defense against DHCP spoofing attacks? (Choose two.). Unknown port. Authorized DHCP port. Unauthorized port. Untrusted port. Trusted DHCP port. Established DHCP port.

Which two commands can be used to enable PortFast on a switch? (Choose two.). S1(config-line)# spanning-tree portfast. S1(config)# enable spanning-tree portfast default. S1(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast. S1(config-if)# enable spanning-tree portfast. S1(config)# spanning-tree portfast default.

An administrator who is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a switch notices that a switch port configured for port security is in the err-disabled state. After verifying the cause of the violation, how should the administrator re-enable the port without disrupting network operation?. Issue the no switchport port-security violation shutdown command on the interface. Reboot the switch. Issue the shutdown command followed by the no shutdown command on the interface. Issue the no switchport port-security command, then re-enable port security.

A network administrator is configuring DHCP snooping on a switch. Which configuration command should be used first?. ip dhcp snooping limit rate. ip dhcp snooping trust. ip dhcp snooping vlan. ip dhcp snooping.

A network administrator is configuring DAI on a switch with the command ip arp inspection validate dst-mac. What is the purpose of this configuration command?. To check the destination MAC address in the Ethernet header against the source MAC address in the ARP body. To check the destination MAC address in the Ethernet header against the user-configured ARP ACLS. To check the destination MAC address in the Ethernet header against the target MAC address in the ARP body. To check the destination MAC address in the Ethernet header against the MAC address table.

Which security feature should be enabled in order to prevent an attacker from overflowing the MAC address table of a switch?. BPDU filter. Storm control. Root guard. Port security.

What Layer 2 attack is mitigated by disabling Dynamic Trunking Protocol?. ARP poisoning. ARP spoofing. DHCP spoofing. VLAN hopping.

A network administrator is configuring DAI on a switch. Which command should be used on the uplink interface that connects to a router?. ip dhcp snooping. spanning-tree portfast. ip arp inspection trust. ip arp inspection vlan.

Where are dynamically learned MAC addresses stored when sticky learning is enabled with the switchport port-security mac-address sticky command?. Flash. ROM. NVRAM. RAM.

Which of the following wireless networks typically uses lower powered transmitters for short ranges?. WLAN. WMAN. WPAN. WWAN.

Which of the following wireless networks are specified in the IEEE 802.11 standards for the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz radio frequencies?. WMAN. WWAN. WPAN. WLAN.

Which of the following is an IEEE 802.15 WPAN standard that uses a device-pairing process to communicate?. WIMAX. Bluetooth. Cellular. Wi-Fi.

Which 802.11 standards exclusively use the 5 GHz radio frequency? (Choose 2). 802.11ac. 802.11n. 802.11g. 802.11a. 802.11ax.

Which standards organization is responsible for allocating radio frequencies?. ITU-R. Wi-Fi Alliance. IEEE.

True or False: Laptops that do not have an integrated wireless NIC can only be attached to the network through a wired connection. True. False.

Which of the following components are integrated in a wireless home router? (Choose three.). Range extender. Router. Access point. Switch.

True or False: When you need to expand the coverage of a small network, the best solution is to use a range extender. True. False.

Which of the following is a standalone device, like a home router, where the entire WLAN configuration resides on the device?. Controller-based AP. Range extender. USB Wireless NIC. Autonomous AP.

Which of the following antennas provide 360 degrees of coverage?. Wireless NIC. MIMO. Directional. Omnidirectional.

Which wireless topology mode is used by two devices to connect in a peer-to-peer network?. Ad hoc. Tethering. Infrastructure.

True or False: An ESS is created when two or more BSSs need to be joined to support roaming clients. True. False.

How many address fields are in the 802.11 wireless frame?. 5. 3. 2. 4.

What is the term for an AP that openly advertises its service periodically?. Passive. Infrastructure. Active. Ad hoc.

What is the term for an AP that does not send a beacon, but waits for clients to send probes?. Ad hoc. Passive. Infrastructure. Active.

What IP versions does CAPWAP support?. IPv4 by default, but can configure IPv6. IPv4 only. IPv6 only. IPv6 by default, but can configure IPv4.

What UDP ports and IP protocols are used by CAPWAP for IPv4? (Choose three.). 136. 17. 5246. 802.11. 5247.

What UDP ports and IP protocols are used by CAPWAP for IPv6? (Choose three.). 5246. 802.11. 5247. 136. 17.

In the split MAC architecture for CAPWAP, which of the following are the responsibility of the AP? (Choose four.). Authentication. Packet acknowledgments and retransmissions. Association and re-association of roaming clients. Frame translation to other protocols. Termination of 802.11 traffic on a wired interface. Frame queueing and packet prioritization. MAC layer data encryption and decryption. Beacons and probe responses.

In the split MAC architecture for CAPWAP, which of the following are the responsibility of the WLC? (Choose four.). Frame translation to other protocols. Association and re-association of roaming clients. Authentication. Frame queueing and packet prioritization. Packet acknowledgments and retransmissions. MAC layer data encryption and decryption. Termination of 802.11 traffic on a wired interface. Beacons and probe responses.

True or False: DTLS is enabled by default on the control and data CAPWAP tunnels. True. False.

Which of the following statements are true about modes of operation for a FlexConnect AP? (Choose two.). In standalone mode, the WLC is unreachable and the AP switches local traffic and performs client authentication locally. In standalone mode, the WLC is reachable and performs all its CAPWAP functions. In connect mode, the WLC is reachable and performs all its CAPWAP functions. In connect mode, the WLC is unreachable and the AP switches local traffic and performs client authentication locally.

Which of the following modulation techniques rapidly switches a signal among frequency channels?. FHSS. DSSS. OFDMA. OFDM.

Which of the following modulation techniques spreads a signal over a larger frequency band?. DSSS. FHSS. OFDM. OFDMA.

Which of the following modulation techniques is used in the new 802.11ax standard?. DSSS. OFDM. FHSS. OFDMA.

How many channels are available for the 2.4 GHz band in Europe?. 11. 14. 13. 24.

How many channels are available for the 5 GHz band?. 24. 13. 14. 11.

Which of the following is most likely NOT the source of a wireless DoS attack?. Radio interference. Malicious user. Rogue AP. Improperly configured devices.

True or False: A rogue AP is a misconfigured AP connected to the network and a possible source of DoS attacks. True. False.

What type of attack is an "evil twin AP" attack?. MITM. DoS. Radio interference. Wireless intruder.

What are the best ways to secure WLANs? (Choose two.). MAC address filtering. SSID cloaking. Authentication. Encryption.

Which of the following authentication methods does not use a password shared between the wireless client and the AP?. Open. WPA2. WPA. WEP. WPA3.

Which encryption method is used by the original 802.11 specification?. AES. TKIP. RC4. AES or TKIP.

Which of the following encryption methods uses CCMP to recognize if the encrypted and non-encrypted bits have been altered?. AES. RC4. TKIP.

Which of the following authentication methods has the user enter a pre-shared password? (Choose two). WPA Enterprise. WPA Personal. Open. WPA2 Personal. WPA2 Enterprise.

In the context of mobile devices, what does the term tethering involve?. Connecting a mobile device to a USB port on a computer in order to charge the mobile device. Connecting a mobile device to a 4G cellular network. Connecting a mobile device to a hands-free headset. Connecting a mobile device to another mobile device or computer to share a network connection.

Which feature of 802.11n wireless access points allows them to transmit data at faster speeds than previous versions of 802.11 Wi-Fi standards did?. SPS. MIMO. MITM. WPS.

Which method of wireless authentication is currently considered to be the strongest?. Shared key. WPA. WPA2. Open. WEP.

Which parameter is commonly used to identify a wireless network name when a home wireless AP is being configured?. Ad hoc. BESS. SSID. ESS.

Which characteristic describes a wireless client operating in active mode?. Ability to dynamically change channels. Broadcasts probes that request the SSID. Must be configured for security before attaching to an AP. Must know the SSID to connect to an AP.

Which IEEE standard operates at wireless frequencies in both the 5 GHz and 2.4 GHz ranges?. 802.11a. 802.11b. 802.11g. 802.11n.

Which statement describes an autonomous access point?. It is server-dependent. It is a standalone access point. It is used for networks that require a large number of access points. It is managed by a WLAN controller.

Which two roles are typically performed by a wireless router that is used in a home or small business? (Choose two.). Repeater. Access point. RADIUS authentication server. Ethernet switch. WLAN controller.

Which protocol and port numbers are used by both IPv4 and IPv6 CAPWAP tunnels? (Choose two.). TCP. UDP. ICMP. 17 and 163. 5246 and 5247.

If three 802.11b access points need to be deployed in close proximity, which three frequency channels should be used? (Choose three.). 11. 1. 8. 5. 3. 6.

Which type of telecommunication technology is used to provide Internet access to vessels at sea?. Cellular. Municipal WiFi. Satellite. WiMax.

Which wireless network topology is being configured by a technician who is installing a keyboard, a mouse, and headphones, each of which uses Bluetooth?. Infrastructure mode. Mixed mode. Ad hoc mode. Hotspot.

Which type of wireless topology is created when two or more Basic Service Sets are interconnected by Ethernet?. Ad hoc WLAN. IBISS. WiFi Direct. BSS. ESS.

What Wi-Fi management frame is regularly broadcast by APs to announce their presence?. Probe. Beacon. Authentication. Association.

A user is configuring a wireless access point and wants to prevent any neighbors from discovering the network. What action does the user need to take?. Configure a DNS server. Disable SSID broadcast. Enable WPA encryption. Configure DMZ settings.

When a wireless network in a small office is being set up, which type of IP addressing is typically used on the networked devices?. Wireless. Private. Network. Public.

A user has just purchased a generic home router and would like to secure it. What should be done to help secure the wireless home router?. Set a private IPv4 network for the internal network. Change the default administrator password. Allow only IPv6 traffic to enter the router. Change the default SSID.

Which protocol could be used by a company to monitor devices such as a wireless LAN controller (WLC)?. PAT. SNMP. NTP. SSH.

When configuring a Cisco 3500 series wireless LAN controller (WLC) for a WPA2 Enterprise WLAN, what has to be created on the WLC before creating the new WLAN?. A security module. A VLAN for the wireless network. A security policy. A new SSID.

What is a DHCP scope as it relates to a WLAN configured on the WLC controller?. The distance allotted for wireless clients that can receive IP addressing information. A pool of IP addresses for WLAN clients. Security rules associated with DHCP for WLANs. A corporate plan for allocation of IP addresses for wireless clients.

Why would a technician configure a passphrase for a WLAN on a wireless router?. To protect someone from cabling directly to the router and accessing the router. To protect someone from changing the configuration. To protect the SSID from being changed. To configure wireless client authentication.

A customer installs a wireless access point at home in the closet next to the kitchen. The customer mentions that the wireless communication performance seems degraded when the cordless phone or the microwave oven is in use. What is the possible reason for this degradation?. The wireless signal is in the same radio frequency range as the household devices are in. The access point is close to walls. The cordless phone joins the WLAN and shares the available bandwidth. The surge of electricity when a microwave oven is in use disrupts the operation of the access point. The access point is on the same electrical circuit as the phone base unit and microwave oven are.

What functionality is required on routers to provide remote workers with VolP and videoconferencing capabilities?. QoS. PPPoE. IPsec. VPN.

A wireless router is displaying the IP address of 192.168.0.1. What could this mean?. The wireless router has been configured to use the frequencies on channel 1. Dynamic IP address allocation has been configured on the router and is functioning correctly. The NAT function is not working on the wireless router. The wireless router still has the factory default IP address.

A laptop cannot connect to a wireless access point. Which two troubleshooting steps should be taken first? (Choose two.). Ensure that the NIC is configured for the proper frequency. Ensure that the wireless SSID is chosen. Ensure that the wireless NIC is enabled. Ensure that the laptop antenna is attached. Ensure that the correct network media is selected.

In setting up a small office network, the network administrator decides to assign private IP addresses dynamically to workstations and mobile devices. Which feature must be enabled on the company router in order for office devices to access the internet?. MAC filtering. QoS. NAT. UPnP.

What is a difference between autonomous APs that operate in a home environment and controller-based APs that operate in a corporate environment?. Controller-based APs are known as lightweight APs and require an initial configuration to operate. Autonomous APs incorporate the functions of a router, switch, and AP into one device. Autonomous APs do not support PoE. Controller-based APs can be automatically configured and managed by a WLAN controller.

Which WLC tab would a network administrator typically use to see a summary view of the most heavily used WLANs including the number of clients using a particular WLAN?. Commands. Monitor. Controller. WLANs.

Users on an IEEE 802.11n network are complaining of slow speeds. The network administrator checks the AP and verifies it is operating properly. What can be done to improve the wireless performance in the network?. Switch to an 802.11g AP. Change the authentication method on the AP. Split the wireless traffic between the 802.11n 2.4 GHz band and the 5 GHz band. Set the AP to mixed mode.

What table does a router use to determine how to forward an IP packet?. MAC address table. ARP table. Neighbor cache. Routing table.

What action will a router take on a packet with a destination IP address that is on a remote network?. It will drop the packet. It will forward the packet directly to the device with the destination IP address of the packet. It will forward the packet to an Ethernet switch. It will forward the packet to a next-hop router.

Which of the following routes may be found in a routing table? (Choose all that apply.). Static routes. Default route. Directly connected networks. Dynamic routing protocol routes.

What is used to determine the minimum number of far-left bits that must match between the prefix in the route entry and the destination IP address. The classful address of the network address. Prefix length in the routing table entry. Prefix length of the destination IP address.

If a router needs to send an ARP Request for the destination IPv4 address of the packet, this means the packet will be forwarded: To a next-hop router. To the device with the destination IPv4 address of the packet.

If a router needs to send an ARP Request for the IPv4 address in one of its route entries, this means the packet will be forwarded: To a next-hop router. To the device with the destination IPv4 address of the packet.

Which packet forwarding method is used by default on Cisco routers?. Cisco Express Forwarding. Process switching. Fast switching. Ethernet switching.

Which routing table principle is not correct?. Every router makes its decision alone, based on the information it has in its own routing table. The fact that one router has certain information in its routing table does not mean that other routers have the same information. Routing information about a path from one network to another also provides routing information about the reverse, or return, path.

Which route entry would be used for a packet with a destination IP address that matches an IP address of one of the router interfaces?. C for Directly Connected. L for Local. S for Static. Depends on the source of the route.

What type of network is accessed by a single route and the router has only one neighbor?. Stub network. Directly connected network. Next-hop network. Local network.

Which two route sources have the ability to automatically discover a new best path when there is a change in the topology? (Choose two.). Static route. OSPF. EIGRP. Default route.

True or False? A default route can only be a static route. True. False.

A network administrator configures a static route for the same destination network that was learned automatically by the router using OSPF. Which route will be installed and why?. Static route because it has a lower metric. Static route because it has a lower administrative distance. OSPF route because it has a lower metric. OSPF route because it has a lower administrative distance.

Which type of routing automatically adapts to topology changes?. Both static routes and dynamic routing protocols. Static routes. Dynamic routing protocols.

What type of routing is typically used with a stub network?. Dynamic routing protocol. Static routes.

What metric is used by OSPF to determine the best path?. Hop count. Decided by the network administrator. Cost. Bandwidth and delay.

What term is used to describe routing over two or more paths to a destination with equal cost metrics?. Equal cost load balancing. Equal path selection. Equal cost routing. Equal packet forward.

Which feature on a Cisco router permits the forwarding of traffic for which there is no specific route?. Gateway of last resort. Outgoing interface. Route source. Next-hop.

Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.). Configuration of static routes is error-free. No intervention is required to maintain changing route information. Static routes scale well as the network grows. Static routing does not advertise over the network, thus providing better security. The path a static route uses to send data is known. Static routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing does.

What are two functions of dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.). To assure low router overhead. To avoid exposing network information. To choose the path that is specified by the administrator. To maintain routing tables. To discover the network.

What is an advantage of using dynamic routing protocols instead of static routing?. Easier to implement. Fewer router resource overhead requirements. More secure in controlling routing updates. Ability to actively search for new routes if the current path becomes unavailable.

Which value represents the "trustworthiness" of a route and is used to determine which route to install into the routing table when there are multiple routes toward the same destination?. Outgoing interface. Metric. Routing protocol. Administrative distance.

Which packet-forwarding method does a router use to make switching decisions when it is using a forwarding information base and an adjacency table?. Process switching. Fast switching. Cisco Express Forwarding. Flow process.

Which type of route would typically be used on a border router so that devices inside the company could access the Internet?. Static. Summary. Directly connected. Default.

What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.). It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses. It provides segmentation at Layer 2. It determines the best path to send packets. It builds a routing table based on ARP requests. A router connects multiple IP networks.

When a router learns that multiple paths are available to a destination network from the same routing protocol, which factor is considered by a router to choose the best path to forward a packet?. The fastest bandwidth of exiting interfaces. The lowest metric. The reliability value of the neighboring routers. The order of paths on the routing table.

Which two route source codes are automatically created within a routing table whenever a router interface is configured with an IP address and activated? (Choose two.). S. O. C. L. D.

The output of the show ip route command contains the following entry: S 10.2.0.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2. What value is indicated by the 1 in the [1/0] portion of the output?. Interface ID through which the network can be reached. Administrative distance. Number of hops. Metric.

Which type of static route creates a gateway of last resort?. Floating static route. Standard static route. Summary static route. Default static route.

What are two common types of static routes in routing tables? (Choose two). A static route converted from a route that is learned through a dynamic routing protocol. A built-in static route by IOS. A default static route. A static route to a specific network. A static route shared between two neighboring routers.

What are two reasons why an administrator might choose to use static routing rather than dynamic routing? (Choose two.). Static routing is more scalable. Static routing is more secure. Static routing does not require complete knowledge of the whole network. Static routing uses less router processing and bandwidth. Static routing is easier to maintain in large networks.

What address and prefix length is used when configuring an IPv6 default static route?. 0.0.0.0/0. :: 1/128. FF02 :: 1/8. ::/0.

Which two methods can be used to identify the next hop in a static route? (Choose two.). Exit interface. Destination interface. Source IP address. Destination network address. Next hop IP address.

Which IPv4 static route statement is true?. The distance keyword is used to create a fully specified static route. Using the exit interface only is common in a point-to-point configuration. The destination network is identified using the network address and wildcard mask. The source network is identified using the network address and wildcard mask.

How is the destination network in an IPv6 static route identified?. Using an IPv6 prefix and wildcard mask. Using an IPv6 prefix and subnet mask. Using an IPv6 prefix and prefix length. Using an IPv6 prefix only.

A network administrator configures a router by the command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226. What is the purpose of this command?. To forward all packets to the device with IP address 209.165.200.226. To add a dynamic route for the destination network 0.0.0.0 to the routing table. To forward packets destined for the network 0.0.0.0 to the device with IP address 209.165.200.226. To provide a route to forward packets for which there is no route in the routing table.

Which type of static route that is configured on a router uses only the exit interface?. Fully specified static route. Recursive static route. Default static route. Directly connected static route.

A network administrator uses the command ip route 172.18.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/1 to configure a floating static route on a router. That route will function as a backup route to reach the EIGRP learned network 172.18.0.0/16. After this configuration, the EIGRP route is removed from the routing table even though EIGRP is still functioning properly. Why is the static route not functioning as intended?. The destination network is incorrectly configured. The next hop neighbor IP address is not configured. The administrative distance value is not high enough on the static route. The network mask is incorrectly configured.

What type of static route is created when the next-hop IP address and exit interface are specified?. Floating static route. Directly connected static route. Fully specified static route. Recursive static route.

What is the correct syntax of a floating static route?. ip route 209.165.200.228 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.1 120. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0/0. ip route 172.16.0.0 255.248.0.0 10.0.0.1. ip route 209.165.200.228 255.255.255.248 serial 0/0/0.

Which static route statement shows a recursive IPv6 static route?. Ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe:1 :: /56 S0/0/0 2001:db8:1000:10 :: 1. Ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe:1 :: /56 2001:db8:1000:10 :: 1. Ipv6 route 0 :: /0 S0/0/0. Ipv6 route 0 :: /0 S0/0/0 254. Ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe:1 :: /56 S0/0/0.

A network administrator is configuring a route to forward packets to a specific web server. What type of route should be configured by the administrator?. A static route with an administrative distance higher than 1. An OSPF route. An EIGRP route. A default route. A host route.

Which command would create a valid IPv6 default route?. ipv6 route :: /0 2001:db8:acad:2 :: a. ipv6 route 2001:db8:acad:1 :: /64 :: 1. ipv6 route :: /0 fe80 :: 1. ipv6 route :: /128 2001:db8:acad:1 :: 1.

What is a characteristic of a default static route?. It identifies the gateway IP address to which the router sends all IP packets for which it does not have a learned or static route. It is configured with a higher administrative distance than is the original dynamic routing protocol. It backs up a route already discovered by a dynamic routing protocol. It uses a single network address to send multiple static routes to one destination address.

What is the purpose of a floating static route?. It allows summarization of contiguous networks. It allows connectivity to remote destinations that are not contained in the routing table. It allows an alternate connection to be used when the preferred link fails. It is commonly used when a dynamic routing protocol is not being used.

Which IPv6 static route would serve as a backup route to a dynamic route learned through OSPF?. Router1(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:acad:1 :: /32 2001:db8:acad:6 :: 2 100. Router1(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:acad:1 :: /32 2001:db8:acad:6 :: 100. Router1(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:acad:1 :: /32 2001:db8:acad:6 :: 2 200. Router1(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:acad:1 :: /32 gigabitethernet0/0 2001:db8:acad:6 :: 100 100.

What command, or set of commands, would be used to determine if the following configuration on router HQ works as designed? ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0/0 10 ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1/0. HQ# traceroute 128.107.0.99. HQ(config)# interface serial 0/1/0 HQ(config-if)# shutdown HQ(config-if)# end HQ# show ip route. HQ# show ip route. HQ# show ip interface brief. HQ# ping 128.107.0.99 HQ# ping 64.100.0.5.

Which type of static route typically uses the distance parameter in the ip route global configuration command?. Floating static route. Default static route. Summary static route. Standard static route.

Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is higher than the administrative distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on the same router?. To be the priority route in the routing table. To act as a gateway of last resort. To load-balance the traffic. To be used as a backup route.

What network address and subnet mask combination would be used to create a default static route that matches any IPv4 destination?. 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0. 255.255.255.255 255.255.255.255. 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0. 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255.

Refer to the exhibit. True or False? R1 must encapsulate received packets into new frames before forwarding them to R2. True. False.

Refer to the exhibit. True or False? R2 will forward frames to R3 with an all 1s Layer 2 address. True. False.

Refer to the exhibit. What action will R3 take to forward a frame if it does not have an entry in the ARP table to resolve a destination MAC address?. Sends an ARP request. Sends a DNS request. Sends frame to the default gateway. Drops the frame.

Which sequence correctly identifies the order of the steps that a router will perform when it receives a packet on an Ethernet interface?. 1. The router examines the destination MAC address. 2. The router identifies the Ethernet Type field. 3. The router de-encapsulates the Ethernet frame. 4. The router examines the destination IP address. 1. The router examines the destination IP address. 2. The router examines the destination MAC address. 3. The router de-encapsulates the Ethernet frame. 4. The router identifies the Ethernet Type field. 1. The router examines the destination MAC address. 2. The router identifies the Ethernet Type field. 3. The router examines the destination IP address. 4. The router de-encapsulates the Ethernet frame. 1. The router examines the destination IP address. 2. The router examines the destination MAC address 3. The router identifies the Ethernet Type field. 4. The router de-encapsulates the Ethernet frame. 1. The router de-encapsulates the Ethernet frame. 2. The router examines the destination MAC address. 3. The router identifies the Ethernet Type field. 4. The router examines the destination IP address.

Which three IOS troubleshooting commands can help to isolate problems with a static route? (Choose three.). show ip route. show arp. ping. show ip interface brief. show version. tracert.

A network administrator has entered a static route to an Ethernet LAN that is connected to an adjacent router. However, the route is not shown in the routing table. Which command would the administrator use to verify that the exit interface is up?. show ip protocols. show ip interface brief. tracert. show ip route.

A static route has been configured on a router. However, the destination network no longer exists. What should an administrator do to remove the static route from the routing table?. Nothing. The static route will go away on its own. Remove the route using the no ip route command. Change the administrative distance for that route. Change the routing metric for that route.

Which statement describes the sequence of processes executed by a router when it receives a packet from a host to be delivered to a host on another network?. It de-encapsulates the packet and forwards it toward the destination host. It receives the packet and forwards it directly to the destination host. It selects the path and forwards it toward the destination host. It de-encapsulates the packet, selects the appropriate path, and encapsulates the packet to forward it toward the destination host.

A network engineer issues the show cdp neighbor command on several network devices during the process of network documentation. What is the purpose of performing this command?. To check the connectivity of PCs that are connected to the network devices. To obtain information about directly connected Cisco devices. To verify the network addresses that are attached to the network devices. To check the networks that are advertised by the neighboring routers.

A network administrator notices that a correctly entered static route is not in the routing table. What two router commands would an administrator use to determine if the exit interface was up and the next hop address is available? (Choose two.). tracert. ping. show ip protocols. show ip route. show ip interface brief.

A network administrator has entered the following command: ip route 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192 serial0/0/1 When the network administrator enters the command show ip route, the route is not in the routing table. What should the administrator do next?. Re-enter the command using a network number rather than a usable IP address. Verify that the 192.168.10.64 network is active within the network infrastructure. Re-enter the command using the correct mask. Verify that the serial 0/0/1 interface is active and available.

What will a router do if it does not have a default route configured and a packet needs to be forwarded to a destination network that is not listed in the routing table?. Forward it to another router. Send it back to the source. Drop it.

What does the letter C mean next to an entry in the output of the show ip route command?. It identifies a network that is learned through EIGRP. It identifies a network that is directly connected to the router. It identifies a network that is learned through OSPF. It identifies a network that is a static route.

When would it be more beneficial to use a dynamic routing protocol instead of static routing?. on a network where there is a lot of topology changes. in an organization where routers suffer from performance issues. in an organization with a smaller network that is not expected to grow in size. on a stub network that has a single exit point.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance value of the route for router R1 to reach the destination IPv6 address of 2001:DB8:CAFE:4 :: A?. 1. 4. 110. 120.

What is a characteristic of a static route that matches all packets?. It backs up a route already discovered by a dynamic routing protocol. It uses a single network address to send multiple static routes to one destination address. It identifies the gateway IP address to which the router sends all IP packets for which it does not have a learned or static route. It is configured with a higher administrative distance than the original dynamic routing protocol has.

What route would have the lowest administrative distance?. a directly connected network. a static route. a route received through the EIGRP routing protocol. a route received through the OSPF routing protocol.

What are two advantages of static routing over dynamic routing? (Choose two.). Static routing is more secure because it does not advertise over the network. Static routing scales well with expanding networks. Static routing requires very little knowledge of the network for correct implementation. Static routing uses fewer router resources than dynamic routing. Static routing is relatively easy to configure for large networks.

What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface associated with that route goes into the down state?. The static route is removed from the routing table. The router polls neighbors for a replacement route. The static route remains in the table because it was defined as static. The router automatically redirects the static route to use another interface.

Refer to the exhibit. PC A sends a request to Server B. What IPv4 address is used in the destination field in the packet as the packet leaves PC A?. 192.168.10.10. 192.168.11.1. 192.168.10.1. 192.168.12.16.

Consider the following command: ip route 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 10.10.10.2 5 How would an administrator test this configuration?. Delete the default gateway route on the router. Ping any valid address on the 192.168.10.0/24 network. Manually shut down the router interface used as a primary route. Ping from the 192.168.10.0 network to the 10.10.10.2 address.

Refer to the exhibit. Which default static route command would allow R1 to potentially reach all unknown networks on the Internet?. R1(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:32 :: /64 G0/0. R1(config)# ipv6 route :: /0 G0/0 fe80 :: 2. R1(config)# ipv6 route :: /0 G0/1 fe80 :: 2. R1(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:32 :: /64 G0/1 fe80 :: 2.

Refer to the exhibit. This network has two connections to the ISP, one via router C and one via router B. The serial link between router A and router C supports EIGRP and is the primary link to the Internet. If the primary link fails, the administrator needs a floating static route that avoids recursive route lookups and any potential next-hop issues caused by the multiaccess nature of the Ethernet segment with router B. What should the administrator configure?. Create a static route pointing to Fa0/0 with an AD of 1. Create a static route pointing to 10.1.1.1 with an AD of 1. Create a static route pointing to 10.1.1.1 with an AD of 95. Create a fully specified static route pointing to Fa0/0 with an AD of 1. Create a fully specified static route pointing to Fa0/0 with an AD of 95.

What network prefix and prefix-length combination is used to create a default static route that will match any IPv6 destination?. :: /128. :: /0. :: 1/64. FFFF :: /128.

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow the Park and the Alta routers to a) forward packets to each LAN and b) direct all other traffic to the Internet?. Park(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.14.1 Alta(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.14.2 Alta(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0. Park(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.14.1 Alta(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.14.2 Alta(config)# ip route 198.18.222.0 255.255.255.255 s0/0/0. Park(config)# ip route 172.16.67.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.14.1 Park(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.14.1 Alta(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.14.2. Park(config)# ip route 172.16.67.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.14.1 Alta(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.14.2 Alta(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/1.

Refer to the exhibit. The routing table for R2 is as follows: Gateway of last resort is not set 10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 2 subnets C 10.0.0.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0 C 10.0.0.4 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1 192.168.10.0/26 is subnetted, 3 subnets S 192.168.10.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0 C 192.168.10.64 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0 S 192.168.10.128 [1/0] via 10.0.0.6 What will router R2 do with a packet destined for 192.168.10.129?. drop the packet. send the packet out interface Serial0/0/0. send the packet out interface Serial0/0/1. send the packet out interface FastEthernet0/0.

A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?. ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200. ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200. ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100. ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100.

ipv6 route 2001:0DB8 :: /32 2001:0DB8:3000 :: 1 Refer to the exhibit. Which type of IPv6 static route is configured in the exhibit?. directly attached static route. recursive static route. fully specified static route. floating static route.

Consider the following command: ip route 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 10.10.10.2 5 What does the 5 at the end of the command signify?. metric. exit interface. administrative distance. maximum number of hops to the 192.168.10.0/24 network.

What is a characteristic of a floating static route?. It is used to provide load balancing between static routes. When it is configured, it creates a gateway of last resort. It is configured with a higher administrative distance than the original dynamic routing protocol has. It is simply a static route with 0.0.0.0/0 as the destination IPv4 address.

Refer to the exhibit. What command would be used to configure a static route on R1 so that traffic from both LANs can reach the 2001:db8:1:4 :: /64 remote network?. ipv6 route :: /0 serial0/0/0. ipv6 route 2001:db8:1:4 :: /64 2001:db8:1:3 :: 1. ipv6 route 2001:db8:1:4 :: /64 2001:db8:1:3 :: 2. ipv6 route 2001:db8:1 :: /65 2001:db8:1:3 :: 1.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is attempting to install a default static route on router R1 to reach the Site B network on router R2. After entering the static route command, the route is still not showing up in the routing table of router R1. What is preventing the route from installing in the routing table?. The netmask is incorrect. The destination network is incorrect. The exit interface is missing. The next hop address is incorrect.

Refer to the exhibit. How was the host route 2001:DB8:CAFE:4 :: 1/128 installed in the routing table?. The route was automatically installed when an IP address was configured on an active interface. The route was dynamically learned from another router. The route was manually entered by an administrator. The route was dynamically created by router R1.

Refer to the exhibit. The Branch Router has an OSPF neighbor relationship with the HQ router over the 198.51.0.4/30 network. The 198.51.0.8/30 network link should serve as a backup when the OSPF link goes down. The floating static route command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/1/1 100 was issued on Branch and now traffic is using the backup link even when the OSPF link is up and functioning. Which change should be made to the static route command so that traffic will only use the OSPF link when it is up?. Add the next hop neighbor address of 198.51.0.8. Change the administrative distance to 1. Change the destination network to 198.51.0.5. Change the administrative distance to 120.

Refer to the exhibit. HostA is attempting to contact ServerB. Which two statements correctly describe the addressing that HostA will generate in the process? (Choose two.). A packet with the destination IP address of RouterB. A frame with the destination MAC address of SwitchA. A packet with the destination IP address of RouterA. A frame with the destination MAC address of RouterA.

Refer to the exhibit. A ping from R1 to 10.1.1.2 is successful, but a ping from R1 to any address in the 192.168.2.0 network fails. What is the cause of this problem?. There is no gateway of last resort at R1. The serial interface between the two routers is down. A default route is not configured on R1. The static route for 192.168.2.0 is incorrectly configured.

Refer to the exhibit. The small company shown uses static routing. Users on the R2 LAN have reported a problem with connectivity. What is the issue?. R2 needs a static route to the R1 LANs. R1 and R2 must use a dynamic routing protocol. R1 needs a default route to R2. R1 needs a static route to the R2 LAN. R2 needs a static route to the Internet.

What characteristic completes the following statement? When an IPv6 static route is configured, it is possible that the same IPv6 link-local address is used for ...... the next-hop address of two different adjacent routers. an administrative distance of 2. the "ipv6 unicast-routing" command. a destination host route with a /128 prefix.

Refer to the exhibit. Which interface will be the exit interface to forward a data packet that has the destination IP address 10.55.99.78?. Serial0/0/1. GigabitEthernet0/0. Serial0/0/0. GigabitEthernet0/1.

Refer to the exhibit. Which static route would an IT technician enter to create a backup route to the 172.16.1.0 network that is only used if the primary RIP learned route fails?. ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0 91. ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0. ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0 111. ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0 121.

Refer to the exhibit. Which command will properly configure an IPv6 static route on R2 that will allow traffic from PC2 to reach PC1 without any recursive lookups by router R2?. R2(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12 :: /64 2001:db8:32 :: 1. R2(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12 :: /64 S0/0/0. R2(config)# ipv6 route :: /0 2001:db8:32 :: 1. R2(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12 :: /64 S0/0/1.

Refer to the exhibit. What routing solution will allow both PC A and PC B to access the Internet with the minimum amount of router CPU and network bandwidth utilization?. Configure a static route from R1 to Edge and a dynamic route from Edge to R1. Configure a static default route from R1 to Edge, a default route from Edge to the Internet, and a static route from Edge to R1. Configure a dynamic route from R1 to Edge and a static route from Edge to R1. Configure a dynamic routing protocol between R1 and Edge and advertise all routes.

R1 (config) # do show ip route <output omitted> Gateway of last resort is 0.0.0.0 to network 0.0.0.0 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks C 10.0.0.0/30 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0 L 10.0.0.1/32 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0 172.16.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 10.0.0.2, 00:00:04, Serial0/0/0 192.168.10.0/24 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks C 192.168.10.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1 L 192.168.10.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1 192.168.11.0/24 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks C 192.168.11.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/0 L 192.168.11.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/0 S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0 R1(config)# ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0 Refer to the exhibit. What would happen after the IT administrator enters the new static route?. The 172.16.1.0 route learned from RIP would be replaced with the 172.16.1.0 static route. The 172.16.1.0 static route would be entered into the running-config but not shown in the routing table. The 0.0.0.0 default route would be replaced with the 172.16.1.0 static route. The 172.16.1.0 static route is added to the existing routes in the routing table.

What two pieces of information are needed in a fully specified static route to eliminate recursive lookups? (Choose two.). the interface ID exit interface. the interface ID of the next-hop neighbor. the IP address of the next-hop neighbor. the administrative distance for the destination network. the IP address of the exit interface.

Which problem is evident if the show ip interface command shows that the interface is down and the line protocol is down?. A cable has not been attached to the port. An encapsulation mismatch has occurred. There is an IP address conflict with the configured address on the interface. The no shutdown command has not been issued on the interface.

In what situation would a Layer 2 switch have an IP address configured?. when the Layer 2 switch is using a routed port. when the Layer 2 switch needs to be remotely managed. when the Layer 2 switch is the default gateway of user traffic. when the Layer 2 switch needs to forward user traffic to another device.

A technician is configuring a new Cisco 2960 switch. What is the effect of issuing the BranchSw(config)#interface VLAN88 command?. It updates the MAC address table for the associated port. It enters configuration mode for a switch virtual interface. It permits an IPv6 address to be configured on a switch physical interface. It applies an IPv4 address to the virtual interface. It applies an IPv6 address to the virtual interface.

Refer to the exhibit. How is a frame sent from PCA forwarded to PCC if the MAC address table on switch SW1 is empty?. SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, excluding the port through which the frame entered the switch. SW1 floods the frame on all ports on the switch, excluding the interconnected port to switch SW2 and the port through which the frame entered the switch. SW1 forwards the frame directly to SW2. SW2 floods the frame to all ports connected to SW2, excluding the port through which the frame entered the switch. SW1 drops the frame because it does not know the destination MAC address.

What is a result of connecting two or more switches together?. The size of the broadcast domain is increased. The number of broadcast domains is increased. The number of collision domains is reduced. The size of the collision domain is increased.

What are two switch characteristics that could help alleviate network congestion? (Choose two.). frame check sequence (FCS) check. large frame buffers. low port density. store-and-forward switching. fast internal switching.

A small publishing company has a network design such that when a broadcast is sent on the LAN, 200 devices receive the transmitted broadcast. How can the network administrator reduce the number of devices that receive broadcast traffic?. Replace the switches with switches that have more ports per switch. This will allow more devices on a particular switch. Segment the LAN into smaller LANs and route between them. Add more switches so that fewer devices are on a particular switch. Replace at least half of the switches with hubs to reduce the size of the broadcast domain.

Which type of traffic is designed for a native VLAN?. user-generated. management. untagged. tagged.

What type of VLAN is configured specifically for network traffic such as SSH, Telnet, HTTPS, HTTP, and SNMP?. trunk VLAN. voice VLAN. management VLAN. security VLAN.

Refer to the exhibit. DLS1 is connected to another switch, DLS2, via a trunk link. A host that is connected to DLS1 is not able to communicate to a host that is connected to DLS2, even though they are both in VLAN 99. Which command should be added to Fa0/1 on DLS1 to correct the problem?. switchport trunk allowed vlan add 99. switchport trunk native vlan 66. switchport nonegotiate. switchport mode dynamic auto.

Refer to the exhibit. PC-A and PC-B are both in VLAN 60. PC-A is unable to communicate with PC-B. What is the problem?. The trunk has been configured with the switchport nonegotiate command. The VLAN that is used by PC-A is not in the list of allowed VLANs on the trunk. The native VLAN should be VLAN 60. The native VLAN is being pruned from the link.

Match the DTP mode with its function. Dynamic auto. Nonegotiate. Trunk. Dynamic desirable.

A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?. Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk. Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast. Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree vlan 1. Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1.

Refer to the exhibit. The configuration shows commands entered by a network administrator for inter-VLAN routing. However, host H1 cannot communicate with H2. Which part of the inter-VLAN configuration causes the problem?. VLAN configuration. port mode on the two switch FastEthernet ports. trunking. router port configuration.

Refer to the exhibit. Inter-VLAN communication between VLAN 10, VLAN 20, and VLAN 30 is not successful. What is the problem?. The access interfaces do not have IP addresses and each should be configured with an IP address. The switch interfaces FastEthernet0/2, FastEthernet0/3, and FastEthernet0/4 are configured to not negotiate and should be configured to negotiate. The switch interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured to not negotiate and should be configured to negotiate. The switch interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as an access interface and should be configured as a trunk interface.

What is an advantage of PVST+?. PVST+ requires fewer CPU cycles for all the switches in the network. PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through load sharing. PVST+ reduces bandwidth consumption compared to traditional implementations of STP that use CST. PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through autoselection of the root bridge.

Which three components are combined to form a bridge ID? (Choose three.). port ID. extended system ID. bridge priority. cost. MAC address. IP address.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a problem with EtherChannel. What command was used to produce the exhibited output?. show etherchannel Port-channel. show etherchannel summary. show interfaces fastethernet 0/11 etherchannel. show interfaces Port-channel11.

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the command output shown, what is the status of the EtherChannel?. The EtherChannel is down as evidenced by the protocol field being empty. The EtherChannel is partially functional as indicated by the P flags for the FastEthernet ports. The EtherChannel is dynamic and is using ports Fa0/10 and Fa0/11 as passive ports. The EtherChannel is in use and functional as indicated by the SU and P flags in the command output.

Which command will start the process to bundle two physical interfaces to create an EtherChannel group via LACP?. channel-group 2 mode auto. interface port-channel 2. interface range GigabitEthernet 0/4 - 5. channel-group 1 mode desirable.

A small coffee shop is offering free Wi-Fi to customers. The network includes a wireless router and a DSL modem that is connected to the local phone company. What method is typically used to configure the connection to the phone company?. Set the WAN connection in the wireless router as a DHCP client. Set the DSL modem as a DHCP client to the phone company and a DHCP server for the internal connection. Set the DSL modem as a DHCP client to get a public IP address from the wireless router. Set the connection between the wireless router and the DSL modem as a private IP network.

An administrator has configured a DHCPv4 relay router and issued these commands: Router(config)# interface g0/0 Router(config-if)# ip address 10.0.1.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config-if)# no shutdown Router(config-if)# exit Router(config)# ip dhcp pool RELAY Router(dhcp-config)# end The clients are not receiving IP parameters from the DHCPv4 server. What is a possible cause?. The pool cannot be named 'RELAY'. The ip helper-address command is missing. The router is configured as a DHCPv4 client. The IP address is incorrect for the subnet mask that is used.

R1# show running-config <output omitted> ipv6 unicast-routing ! ipv6 dhcp pool LAN1 prefix-delegation 2001:DB8:5 :: /48 00030001000E84244E70 dns-server 2001:DB8:5 :: 8 domain-name cisco.com ! interface FastEthernet0/0 no ip address ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5 :: 100/48 ipv6 dhcp server LAN1 Refer to the exhibit. The users on the LAN network of R1 cannot receive an IPv6 address from the configured stateful DHCPv6 server. What is missing from the stateful DHCPv6 configuration on router R1?. The DHCPv6 pool does not match the IPv6 address configured on interface FA0/0. The DHCPv6 pool has not been bound to the LAN interface. The FA0/0 interface is missing the command that informs the clients to use stateful DHCPv6. IPv6 has not been enabled globally on router R1.

A network administrator is implementing DHCPv6 for the company. The administrator configures a router to send RA messages with M flag as 1 by using the interface command ipv6 nd managed-config-flag. What effect will this configuration have on the operation of the clients?. Clients must use the prefix and prefix length that are provided by a DHCPv6 server and generate a random interface ID. Clients must use all configuration information that is provided by a DHCPv6 server. Clients must use the prefix and prefix length that are provided by RA messages and obtain additional information from a DHCPv6 server. Clients must use the information that is contained in RA messages.

A network engineer is configuring a LAN with a redundant first hop to make better use of the available network resources. Which protocol should the engineer implement?. FHRP. VRRP. HSRP. GLBP.

Match the FHRP protocols to the appropriate description. HSRP. GLBP. VRRP.

Which Cisco solution helps prevent ARP spoofing and ARP poisoning attacks?. Port Security. DHCP Snooping. IP Source Guard. Dynamic ARP Inspection.

Which term describes the role of a Cisco switch in the 802.1X port-based access control?. authentication server. supplicant. authenticator. agent.

Which statement describes the behavior of a switch when the MAC address table is full?. It treats frames as unknown unicast and floods all incoming frames to all ports on the switch. It treats frames as unknown unicast and floods all incoming frames to all ports within the local VLAN. It treats frames as unknown unicast and floods all incoming frames to all ports within the collision domain. It treats frames as unknown unicast and floods all incoming frames to all ports across multiple switches.

What is the best way to prevent a VLAN hopping attack?. Disable STP on all nontrunk ports. Disable trunk negotiation for trunk ports and statically set nontrunk ports as access ports. Use ISL encapsulation on all trunk links. Use VLAN 1 as the native VLAN on trunk ports.

After sticky learning of MAC addresses is enabled, what action is needed to prevent dynamically learned MAC addresses from being lost in the event that an associated interface goes down?. Configure port security for violation protect mode. Reboot the switch. Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration. Shut down the interface then enable it again with the no shutdown command.

S1(config) # interface fa0/1 S1 (config-if) # switchport port-security Command rejected: FastEthernet0/1 is a dynamic port. S1 (config-if) # Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wants to enable port security on an interface on switch S1, but the command was rejected. Which conclusion can be drawn?. The interface must be initially configured with the switchport mode trunk command. The interface must be initially configured with the switchport mode access command. The interface needs to be previously configured with the no shutdown command. The interface needs to be configured initially with an IP address.

SW1 (config)# ip arp inspection validate ip SW1 (config) # ip arp inspection validate src-mac SW1 (config) # ip arp inspection validate dst-mac SW1 (config) # end SW1 (config) # Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring DAI on switch SW1. What is the result of entering the exhibited commands?. DAI will validate only the destination MAC addresses. DAI will validate both source and destination MAC addresses as well as the IP addresses in the order specified. If all parameters are valid then the ARP packet is allowed to pass. DAI will validate only the IP addresses. DAI will validate both source and destination MAC addresses as well as the IP addresses in the order specified. When one set of parameters are valid, the ARP packet is allowed to pass.

On which port should Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) be configured on a switch?. on any port where DHCP snooping is disabled. access ports only. any untrusted port. an uplink port to another switch.

An employee connects wirelessly to the company network using a cell phone. The employee then configures the cell phone to act as a wireless access point that will allow new employees to connect to the company network. Which type of security threat best describes this situation?. denial of service. spoofing. cracking. rogue access point.

Which combination of WLAN authentication and encryption is recommended as a best practice for home users?. WEP and RC4. WPA and PSK. WPA2 and AES. EAP and AES. WEP and TKIP.

What is the reason for disabling SSID broadcasting and changing the default SSID on a wireless access point?. The access point stops broadcasting its own MAC address, thus preventing unauthorized wireless clients from connecting to the network. Disabling SSID broadcasting frees up radio frequency bandwidth and increases the data throughput of the access point. Anyone with the default SSID can gain access to the access point and change the configuration. Wireless clients must then have the SSID manually configured to connect to the wireless network.

What are the two methods that a wireless NIC can use to discover an AP? (Choose two.). initiating a three-way handshake. transmitting a probe request. sending a multicast frame. sending an ARP request broadcast. receiving a broadcast beacon frame.

A network administrator is configuring a WLC to provide WLAN access to users in an office building. When testing the newly created WLAN, the administrator does not see the SSID from a wireless device. What is a possible cause?. The new WLAN needs to be enabled. The WLAN security setting is incorrect. The APs have not been configured for the new WLAN. The RADIUS server is not operational.

What is a potential issue when using the WLC to upgrade and deploy the latest firmware image to all APs?. Usernames and passwords must be manually entered into the AP so that WLAN authentication continues during the upgrade. Only one of the two bands would work at a time. Old 802.11 standards may not be supported anymore. Users will not be able to use the WLAN.

A network administrator of a college is configuring WLAN security with WPA2 Enterprise authentication. Which server is required when deploying this type of authentication?. SNMP. DHCP. RADIUS. AAA.

What are two characteristics of Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)? (Choose two.). This is the fastest forwarding mechanism on Cisco routers and multilayer switches. Packets are forwarded based on information in the FIB and an adjacency table. With this switching method, flow information for a packet is stored in the fast-switching cache to forward future packets to the same destination without CPU intervention. When a packet arrives on a router interface, it is forwarded to the control plane where the CPU searches for a match in the fast-switching cache. When a packet arrives on a router interface, it is forwarded to the control plane where the CPU matches the destination address with a matching routing table entry.

Match the dynamic routing protocol component to the characteristic. A finite list of steps used to determine the best path. Tables or databases that are stored in RAM. Exchanges routing information and maintains accurate information about networks.

What address and prefix length is used when configuring an IPv6 default static route?. :: 1/128. FF02 :: 1/8. :: /0. 0.0.0.0/0.

Refer to the exhibit. Which interface will be the exit interface to forward a data packet that has the destination IP address 172.18.109.152?. GigabitEthernet0/0. GigabitEthernet0/1. Serial0/0/0. None, the packet will be dropped.

Refer to the exhibit. Match the description with the routing table entries. Metric. Destination network. Route timestamp. Next hop. Route source protocol. Administrative distance.

Which command would create a valid IPv6 default route?. ipv6 route :: /128 2001:db8:acad:1 :: 1. ipv6 route 2001:db8:acad:1 :: /64 :: 1. ipv6 route :: /0 2001:db8:acad:2 :: a. ipv6 route :: /0 fe80 :: 1.

Consider the following command: ip route 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 10.10.10.2 5 What does the 5 at the end of the command signify?. exit interface. maximum number of hops to the 192.168.10.0/24 network. administrative distance. metric.

Gateway of last resort is not set 10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 2 subnets C 10.0.0.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0 C 10.0.0.4 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1 192.168.10.0/26 is subnetted, 3 subnets S 192.168.10.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0 C 192.168.10.64 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0 S 192.168.10.128 [1/0] via 10.0.0.6 What will router R2 do with a packet destined for 192.168.10.129?. drop the packet. send the packet out interface Serial0/0/1. send the packet out interface Serial0/0/0. send the packet out interface FastEthernet0/0.

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has an OSPF neighbor relationship with the ISP router over the 192.168.0.32 network. The 192.168.0.36 network link should serve as a backup when the OSPF link goes down. The floating static route command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1 100 was issued on R1 and now traffic is using the backup link even when the OSPF link is up and functioning. Which change should be made to the static route command so that traffic will only use the OSPF link when it is up?. Change the destination network to 192.168.0.34. Add the next hop neighbor address of 192.168.0.36. Change the administrative distance to 1. Change the administrative distance to 120.

Refer to the exhibit. When a packet arrives on interface Serial0/0/0 on R1, with a destination IP address of PC1, which two events occur? (Choose two). Router R1 will de-encapsulate the packet and encapsulate it in an Ethernet frame. Router R1 will forward the packet out Gig0/1. Router R1 will de-encapsulate the packet and encapsulate it in a PPP frame. Router R1 will forward the packet out Gig0/0. Router R1 will forward the packet out S0/0/0.

R1# show ipv6 route <output omitted> S :: /0 [1/0] via Serial0/0/0, directly connected C 2001: DB8 : CAFE : 1 :: /64 [0/0] via GigabitEthernet0/1, directly connected L 2001: DB8 : CAFE:1 :: 1/128 [0/0] via GigabitEthernet0/1, receive C 2001 : DB8 : CAFE : 2 :: /64 [0/0] via GigabitEthernet0/0, directly connected L 2001: DB8 : CAFE:2 :: 1/128 [0/0] via GigabitEthernet0/0, receive C 2001: DB8 : CAFE : 3 :: /64 [0/0] via Serial0/0/0, directly connected L 2001:DB8 : CAFE:3 :: 1/128 [0/0] via Serial0/0/0, receive S 2001 : DB8 : CAFE : 4 :: 1/128 [1/0] via Serial0/0/0, directly connected L FFO0 :: /8 [0/0] via Null0, receive Refer to the exhibit. How was the host route 2001:DB8:CAFE:4 :: 1/128 installed in the routing table?. The route was automatically installed when an IP address was configured on an active interface. The route was dynamically created by router R1. The route was dynamically learned from another router. The route was manually entered by an administrator.

Refer to the exhibit. What will router R1 do with a packet that has a destination IPv6 address of 2001:db8:cafe:5::1? R1# show ipv6 route <output omitted> S :: /0 [1/0] via Serial0/0/0, directly connected C 2001: DB8 : CAFE : 1 :: /64 [0/0] via GigabitEthernet0/1, directly connected L 2001:DB8 : CAFE:1 :: 1/128 [0/0] via GigabitEthernet0/1, receive C 2001: DB8 : CAFE : 2 :: /64 [0/0] via GigabitEthernet0/0, directly connected L 2001:DB8 : CAFE:2 :: 1/128 [0/0] via GigabitEthernet0/0, receive C 2001: DB8 : CAFE : 3 :: /64 [0/0] via Serial0/0/0, directly connected L 2001:DB8 :CAFE:3 :: 1/128 [0/0] via Serial0/0/0, receive S 2001 : DB8 : CAFE : 4 :: 1/128 [1/0] via Serial0/0/0, directly connected L FFO0 :: /8 [0/0] via Null0, receive. forward the packet out GigabitEthernet0/0. drop the packet. forward the packet out GigabitEthernet0/1. forward the packet out Seria10/0/0.

Refer to the exhibit. Currently router R1 uses an EIGRP route learned from Branch2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network. Which floating static route would create a backup route to the 10.10.0.0/16 network in the event that the link between R1 and Branch2 goes down?. ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 Serial 0/0/0 100. ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.226 100. ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 100. ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 50.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network 172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this static route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet?. Add an administrative distance of 254. Change the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0. Change the exit interface to S0/0/1. Add the next-hop neighbor address of 209.165.200.226.

Which option shows a correctly configured IPv4 default static route?. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/0/0. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 S0/0/0. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 S0/0/0.

Refer to the exhibit. Which static route command can be entered on R1 to forward traffic to the LAN connected to R2?. ipv6 route 2001:db8:12:10::/64 S0/0/0. ipv6 route 2001:db8:12:10::/64 S0/0/1 fe80::2. ipv6 route 2001:db8:12:10::/64 S0/0/0 fe80::2. ipv6 route 2001:db8:12:10::/64 S0/0/1 2001:db8:12:10::1.

What is a method to launch a VLAN hopping attack?. introducing a rogue switch and enabling trunking. sending spoofed native VLAN information. sending spoofed IP addresses from the attacking host. flooding the switch with MAC addresses.

A cybersecurity analyst is using the macof tool to evaluate configurations of switches deployed in the backbone network of an organization. Which type of LAN attack is the analyst targeting during this evaluation?. VLAN hopping. DHCP spoofing. MAC address table overflow. VLAN double-tagging.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0? R1# configure terminal Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z. R1 (config) # ipv6 unicast-routing R1 (config) # ipv6 dhcp pool ACAD_CLASS R1 (config-dhcp) # dns-server 2001:db8 :acad:a1 :: 10 R1 (config-dhcp) # domain-name netacad.net R1 (config-dhcp) # exit R1 (config) # interface gigabitEthernet 0/0 R1 (config-if) # ipv6 address 2001:db8 : acad:1 :: 1/64 R1 (config-if) # ipv6 dhcp server ACAD_CLASS R1 (config-if) # ipv6 nd other-config-flag R1 (config-if)# end R1# show ipv6 dhcp pool R1# DHCPv6 pool: ACAD CLASS DNS server: 2001:DB8:ACAD:A1 :: 10 Domain name: netacad.net Active clients: 0 R1#. The default gateway address is not provided in the pool. No clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet. The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified. The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured routers R1 and R2 as part of HSRP group 1. After the routers have been reloaded, a user on Host1 complained of lack of connectivity to the Internet The network administrator issued the show standby brief command on both routers to verify the HSRP operations. In addition, the administrator observed the ARP table on Host1. Which entry should be seen in the ARP table on Host1 in order to gain connectivity to the Internet?. the virtual IP address and the virtual MAC address for the HSRP group 1. the virtual IP address of the HSRP group 1 and the MAC address of R1. the virtual IP address of the HSRP group 1 and the MAC address of R2. the IP address and the MAC address of R1.

Match the forwarding characteristic to its type. (Not all options are used.). appropriate for high performance computing applications. error checking before forwarding. forwarding process can begin after receiving the destination address. forwarding process only begins after receiving the entire frame. may forward invalid frames. only forwards valid frames.

Which statement is correct about how a Layer 2 switch determines how to forward frames?. Frame forwarding decisions are based on MAC address and port mappings in the CAM table. Only frames with a broadcast destination address are forwarded out all active switch ports. Unicast frames are always forwarded regardless of the destination MAC address. Cut-through frame forwarding ensures that invalid frames are always dropped.

Which statement describes a result after multiple Cisco LAN switches are interconnected?. The broadcast domain expands to all switches. One collision domain exists per switch. There is one broadcast domain and one collision domain per switch. Frame collisions increase on the segments connecting the switches. Unicast frames are always forwarded regardless of the destination MAC address.

Match the link state to the interface and protocol status. disabled. Layer 1 problem. Layer 2 problem. operational.

Refer to the exhibit. How is a frame sent from PCA forwarded to PCC if the MAC address table on switch SW1 is empty?. SW1 forwards the frame directly to SW2. SW2 floods the frame to all ports connected to SW2, excluding the port through which the frame entered the switch. SW1 floods the frame on all ports on the switch, excluding the interconnected port to switch SW2 and the port through which the frame entered the switch. SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, excluding the port through which the frame entered the switch. SW1 drops the frame because it does not know the destination MAC address.

An administrator is trying to remove configurations from a switch. After using the command erase startup-config and reloading the switch, the administrator finds that VLANs 10 and 100 still exist on the switch. Why were these VLANs not removed?. Because these VLANs are stored in a file that is called vlan.dat that is located in flash memory, this file must be manually deleted. These VLANs cannot be deleted unless the switch is in VTP client mode. These VLANs are default VLANs that cannot be removed. These VLANs can only be removed from the switch by using the no vlan 10 and no vlan 100 commands.

Match the description to the correct VLAN type. (Not all options are used.). Native VLAN. Data VLANs. Default VLAN. Management VLAN.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has connected two switches together using EtherChannel technology. If STP is running, what will be the end result?. STP will block one of the redundant links. The switches will load balance and utilize both EtherChannels to forward packets. The resulting loop will create a broadcast storm. Both port channels will shutdown.

What is a secure configuration option for remote access to a network device?. Configure an ACL and apply it to the VTY lines. Configure 802.1x. Configure SSH. Configure Telnet.

Which wireless encryption method is the most secure?. WPA2 with AES. WPA2 with TKIP. WEP. WPA.

After attaching four PCs to the switch ports, configuring the SSID and setting authentication properties for a small office network, a technician successfully tests the connectivity of all PCs that are connected to the switch and WLAN. A firewall is then configured on the device prior to connecting it to the Internet. What type of network device includes all of the described features?. firewall appliance. wireless router. switch. standalone wireless access point.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A has sent a packet to host B. What will be the source MAC and IP addresses on the packet when it arrives at host B?. Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799 Source IP: 10.1.1.10. Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3 Source IP: 10.1.1.10. Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799 Source IP: 10.1.1.1. Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799 Source IP: 192.168.1.1. oSurce MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3 Source IP: 192.168.1.1.

Refer to the exhibit. In addition to static routes directing traffic to networks 10.10.0.0/16 and 10.20.0.0/16, Router HQ is also configured with the following command: ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1/1 What is the purpose of this command?. Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799 Source IP: 10.1.1.10. Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3 Source IP: 10.1.1.10. Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3 Source IP: 192.168.1.1. Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799 Source IP: 10.1.1.1. Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799 Source IP: 192.168.1.1.

Refer to the exhibit. In addition to static routes directing traffic to networks 10.10.0.0/16 and 10.20.0.0/16, Router HQ is also configured with the following command: ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1/1 What is the purpose of this command?. Packets that are received from the Internet will be forwarded to one of the LANs connected to R1 or R2. Packets with a destination network that is not 10.10.0.0/16 or is not 10.20.0.0/16 or is not a directly connected network will be forwarded to the Internet. Packets from the 10.10.0.0/16 network will be forwarded to network 10.20.0.0/16, and packets from the 10.20.0.0/16 network will be forwarded to network 10.10.0.0/16. Packets that are destined for networks that are not in the routing table of HQ will be dropped.

What protocol or technology disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops?. VTP. STP. EtherChannel. DTP.

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output, why is VLAN 99 missing?. because VLAN 99 is not a valid management VLAN. because VLAN 1 is up and there can only be one management VLAN on the switch. because VLAN 99 has not yet been created. because VLAN 99 has not yet been created.

Which two VTP modes allow for the creation, modification, and deletion of VLANs on the local switch? (Choose two.). client. master. distribution. slave. server. transparent.

Which three steps should be taken before moving a Cisco switch to a new VTP management domain? (Choose three.). Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain. Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the domain. Configure the VTP server in the domain to recognize the BID of the new switch. Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain. Select the correct VTP mode and version. Reboot the switch.

A network administrator is preparing the implementation of Rapid PVST+ on a production network. How are the Rapid PVST+ link types determined on the switch interfaces?. Link types can only be configured on access ports configured with a single VLAN. Link types can only be determined if PortFast has been configured. Link types are determined automatically. Link types must be configured with specific port configuration commands.

Refer to the exhibit. All the displayed switches are Cisco 2960 switches with the same default priority and operating at the same bandwidth. Which three ports will be STP designated ports? (Choose three.). fa0/9. fa0/13. fa0/10. fa0/20. fa0/21. fa0/11.

How will a router handle static routing differently if Cisco Express Forwarding is disabled?. It will not perform recursive lookups. Ethernet multiaccess interfaces will require fully specified static routes to avoid routing inconsistencies. Static routes that use an exit interface will be unnecessary. Serial point-to-point interfaces will require fully specified static routes to avoid routing inconsistencies.

Compared with dynamic routes, what are two advantages of using static routes on a router? (Choose two.). They improve network security. They take less time to converge when the network topology changes. They improve the efficiency of discovering neighboring networks. They use fewer router resources.

Refer to the exhibit. Which route was configured as a static route to a specific network using the next-hop address? S 10.17.2.0/24 [1/0] via 10.16.2.2 S 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 10.16.2.2 C 0.16.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0 S 10.17.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0. S 10.17.2.0/24 [1/0] via 10.16.2.2. S 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 10.16.2.2. S 10.17.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0. C 10.16.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0.

What is the effect of entering the spanning-tree portfast configuration command on a switch?. It disables an unused port. It disables all trunk ports. It enables portfast on a specific switch interface. It checks the source L2 address in the Ethernet header against the sender L2 address in the ARP body.

What is the IPv6 prefix that is used for link-local addresses?. FF01::/8. 2001::/3. FC00::/7. FE80::/10.

Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.). In a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the core and distribution layers. The interface vlan command has to be entered to create a VLAN on routed ports. They support subinterfaces, like interfaces on the Cisco IOS routers. They are used for point-to-multipoint links. They are not associated with a particular VLAN.

Successful inter-VLAN routing has been operating on a network with multiple VLANs across multiple switches for some time. When an inter-switch trunk link fails and Spanning Tree Protocol brings up a backup trunk link, it is reported that hosts on two VLANs can access some, but not all the network resources that could be accessed previously. Hosts on all other VLANS do not have this problem. What is the most likely cause of this problem?. The protected edge port function on the backup trunk interfaces has been disabled. The allowed VLANs on the backup link were not configured correctly. Dynamic Trunking Protocol on the link has failed. Inter-VLAN routing also failed when the trunk link failed.

Which command will start the process to bundle two physical interfaces to create an EtherChannel group via LACP?. interface port-channel 2. channel-group 1 mode desirable. interface range GigabitEthernet 0/4 – 5. channel-group 2 mode auto.

What action takes place when a frame entering a switch has a multicast destination MAC address?. The switch will forward the frame out all ports except the incoming port. The switch forwards the frame out of the specified port. The switch adds a MAC address table entry mapping for the destination MAC address and the ingress port. The switch replaces the old entry and uses the more current port.

A junior technician was adding a route to a LAN router. A traceroute to a device on the new network revealed a wrong path and unreachable status. What should be done or checked?. Verify that there is not a default route in any of the edge router routing tables. Check the configuration on the floating static route and adjust the AD. Create a floating static route to that network. Check the configuration of the exit interface on the new static route.

Select the three PAgP channel establishment modes. (Choose three.). auto. default. passive. desirable. extended. on.

A static route has been configured on a router. However, the destination network no longer exists. What should an administrator do to remove the static route from the routing table?. Remove the route using the no ip route command. Change the administrative distance for that route. Change the routing metric for that route. Nothing. The static route will go away on its own.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about the configuration shown on R1? R1# show running-config <output omitted> interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 172.16.1.5 255.255.255.0 ip helper-address 10.10.10.8 duplex auto speed auto R1#. R1 is configured as a DHCPv4 relay agent. R1 is operating as a DHCPv4 server. R1 will broadcast DHCPv4 requests on behalf of local DHCPv4 clients. R1 will send a message to a local DHCPv4 client to contact a DHCPv4 server at 10.10.10.8.

Match the step to each switch boot sequence description. step 3. step 1. step 4. step 2. step 5. step 6.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?. The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface. R1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server. A DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is receiving the IP address. The ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1.

What two default wireless router settings can affect network security? (Choose two.). The SSID is broadcast. MAC address filtering is enabled. WEP encryption is enabled. The wireless channel is automatically selected. A well-known administrator password is set.

What is the common term given to SNMP log messages that are generated by network devices and sent to the SNMP server?. traps. acknowledgments. auditing. warnings.

A network administrator is adding a new WLAN on a Cisco 3500 series WLC. Which tab should the administrator use to create a new VLAN interface to be used for the new WLAN?. WIRELESS. MANAGEMENT. CONTROLLER. WLANs.

A network administrator is configuring a WLAN. Why would the administrator change the default DHCP IPv4 addresses on an AP?. to restrict access to the WLAN by authorized, authenticated users only. to monitor the operation of the wireless network. to reduce outsiders intercepting data or accessing the wireless network by using a well-known address range. to reduce the risk of interference by external devices such as microwave ovens.

Which two functions are performed by a WLC when using split media access control (MAC)? (Choose two.). packet acknowledgments and retransmissions. frame queuing and packet prioritization. beacons and probe responses. frame translation to other protocols. association and re-association of roaming clients.

On what switch ports should BPDU guard be enabled to enhance STP stability?. all trunk ports that are not root ports. all PortFast-enabled ports. only ports that are elected as designated ports. only ports that attach to a neighboring switch.

Which network attack is mitigated by enabling BPDU guard?. rogue switches on a network. CAM table overflow attacks. MAC address spoofing. rogue DHCP servers on a network.

Why is DHCP snooping required when using the Dynamic ARP Inspection feature?. It relies on the settings of trusted and untrusted ports set by DHCP snooping. It uses the MAC address table to verify the default gateway IP address. It redirects ARP requests to the DHCP server for verification. It uses the MAC-address-to-IP-address binding database to validate an ARP packet.

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has an OSPF neighbor relationship with the ISP router over the 192.168.0.32 network. The 192.168.0.36 network link should serve as a backup when the OSPF link goes down. The floating static route command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1 100 was issued on R1 and now traffic is using the backup link even when the OSPF link is up and functioning. Which change should be made to the static route command so that traffic will only use the OSPF link when it is up?. Change the administrative distance to 120. Add the next hop neighbor address of 192.168.0.36. Change the destination network to 192.168.0.34. Change the administrative distance to 1.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the metric to forward a data packet with the IPv6 destination address 2001:DB8:ACAD:E:240:BFF:FED4:9DD2?. 90. 128. 2170112. 2681856. 2682112. 3193856.

A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.). IP address. VTP domain. vty lines. default VLAN. default gateway. loopback address.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement shown in the output allows router R1 to respond to stateless DHCPv6 requests? R1# show running-config <output omitted> ipv6 unicast-routing ! ipv6 dhcp pool LAN1 prefix-delegation 2001:DB8:8 :: /48 00030001000E84244E70 dns-server 2001:DB8:8 :: 8 domain-name cisco.com interface FastEthernet0/0 no ip address ipv6 address 2001:DB8:8 :: 100/48 ipv6 nd other-config-flag ipv6 dhcp server LAN1 !. ipv6 nd other-config-flag. prefix-delegation 2001:DB8:8::/48 00030001000E84244E70. ipv6 dhcp server LAN1. ipv6 unicast-routing. dns-server 2001:DB8:8::8.

Refer to the exhibit. A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a router for Internet connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to the switch? (Choose two.). (config)# interface gigabitethernet1/1 (config-if)# switchport mode trunk. (config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 (config-if)# no switchport (config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.252. (config)# interface vlan (config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0 (config-if)# no shutdown. (config)# ip routing. (config)# interface fastethernet0/4 (config-if)# switchport mode trunk.

A technician is troubleshooting a slow WLAN and decides to use the split-the-traffic approach. Which two parameters would have to be configured to do this? (Choose two.). Configure the 5 GHz band for streaming multimedia and time sensitive traffic. Configure the security mode to WPA Personal TKIP/AES for one network and WPA2 Personal AES for the other network. Configure the 2.4 GHz band for basic internet traffic that is not time sensitive. Configure the security mode to WPA Personal TKIP/AES for both networks. Configure a common SSID for both split networks.

A company has just switched to a new ISP. The ISP has completed and checked the connection from its site to the company. However, employees at the company are not able to access the internet. What should be done or checked?. Verify that the static route to the server is present in the routing table. Check the configuration on the floating static route and adjust the AD. Ensure that the old default route has been removed from the company edge routers. Create a floating static route to that network.

Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?. the destination MAC address and the incoming port. the destination MAC address and the outgoing port. the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port. the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port. the source MAC address and the incoming port. the source MAC address and the outgoing port.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is reviewing the configuration of switch S1. Which protocol has been implemented to group multiple physical ports into one logical S1# show run | begin interface <output omitted> ! interface FastEthernet0/8 channel-group 1 mode auto switchport mode trunk ! interface FastEthernet0/9 channel-group 1 mode auto switchport mode trunk ! interface Port-channel 1 switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20,30 switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk. PAgP. DTP. LACP. STP.

Which type of static route is configured with a greater administrative distance to provide a backup route to a route learned from a dynamic routing protocol?. floating static route. default static route. summary static route. standard static route.

What action takes place when a frame entering a switch has a unicast destination MAC address appearing in the MAC address table?. The switch updates the refresh timer for the entry. The switch forwards the frame out of the specified port. The switch purges the entire MAC address table. The switch replaces the old entry and uses the more current port.