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Training Test

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Title of test:
Training Test

Description:
Training Test

Author:
MG
(Other tests from this author)

Creation Date:
05/02/2021

Category:
Computers

Number of questions: 314
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Content:
Which function does a fabric edge node perform in an SD-Access deployment? Connects endpoints to the fabric and forwards their traffic. Encapsulates end-user data traffic into LISP. Connects the SD-Access fabric to another fabric or external Layer 3 networks. Provides reachability between border nodes in the fabric underlay.
Refer to the exhibit. Which privilege level is assigned to VTY users? 1 7 13 15.
What is the difference between a RIB and a FIB? The FIB is populated based on RIB content. The RIB maintains a minor image of the FIB. The RIB is used to make IP source prefix-based switching decisions. The FIB is where all IP routing information is stored.
What is a requirement for an Ansible-managed node It must have an SSH server running. It must be a Linux server or a Cisco device. It must support ad hoc commands It must have an Ansible Tower installed.
A client device fails to see the enterprise SSID, but other client devices are connected to it. What is the cause of this issue? The client has incorrect credentials stored for the configured broadcast SSID. The hidden SSID was not manually configured on the client. The broadcast SSID was not manually configured on the client. The client has incorrect credentials stored for the configured hidden SSID.
Which two descriptions of FlexConnect mode for Cisco APs are true? (Choose two.) APs that operate in FlexConnect mode cannot detect rogue APs FlexConnect mode is used when the APs are set up in a mesh environment and used to bridge between each other. FlexConnect mode is a feature that is designed to allow specified CAPWAP-enabled APs to exclude themselves from managing data traffic between clients and infrastructure. When connected to the controller, FlexConnect APs can tunnel traffic back to the controller FlexConnect mode is a wireless solution for branch office and remote office deployments.
Which OSPF network types are compatible and allow communication through the two peering devices? point-to-multipoint to nonbroadcast broadcast to nonbroadcast point-to-multipoint to broadcast broadcast to point-to-point.
Which NGFW mode blocks flows crossing the firewall? tap inline passive inline tap.
Which statement about route targets is true when using VRF-Lite? Route targets control the import and export of routes into a customer routing table. When BGP is configured, route targets are transmitted as BGP standard communities. Route targets allow customers to be assigned overlapping addresses. Route targets uniquely identify the customer routing table.
How does Cisco TrustSec enable more flexible access controls for dynamic networking environments and data centers? uses flexible NetFlow assigns a VLAN to the endpoint classifies traffic based on advanced application recognition classifies traffic based on the contextual identity of the endpoint rather than its IP address.
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the OSPF debug output is true? The output displays OSPF hello messages which router R1 has sent or received on interface Fa0/1. The output displays OSPF messages which router R1 has sent or received on all interfaces. The output displays OSPF messages which router R1 has sent or received on interface Fa0/1. The output displays OSPF hello and LSACK messages which router R1 has sent or received.
Which LISP infrastructure device provides connectivity between non-LISP sites and LISP sites by receiving non-LISP traffic with a LISP site destination? PITR map resolver map server PETR.
Which two protocols are used with YANG data models? (Choose two.) TLS RESTCONF SSH NETCONF HTTPS.
Which HTTP status code is the correct response for a request with an incorrect password applied to a REST API session? HTTP Status Code: 200 HTTP Status Code: 302 HTTP Status Code: 401 HTTP Status Code: 504.
The login method is configured on the VTY lines of a router with these parameters. The first method for authentication is TACACS If TACACS is unavailable, login is allowed without any provided credentials Which configuration accomplishes this task? R1#sh run | include aaa aaa new-model aaa authentication login VTY group tacacs+ none aaa session-id common R1#sh run | section vty line vty 0 4 password 7 0202039485748 R1#sh run | include username R1# R1#sh run | include aaa aaa new-model aaa authentication login telnet group tacacs+ none aaa session-id common R1#sh run | section vty line vty 0 4 R1#sh run | include username R1# R1#sh run | include aaa aaa new-model aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ none aaa session-id common R1#sh run | section vty line vty 0 4 password 7 0202039485748 R1#sh run | include aaa aaa new-model aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ aaa session-id common R1#sh run | section vty line vty 0 4 transport input none R1#.
Which statement about multicast RPs is true? RPs are required only when using protocol independent multicast dense mode. RPs are required for protocol independent multicast sparse mode and dense mode. By default, the RP is needed periodically to maintain sessions with sources and receivers. By default, the RP is needed only to start new sessions with sources and receivers.
To increase total throughput and redundancy on the links between the wireless controller and switch, the customer enabled LAG on the wireless controller. Which EtherChannel mode must be configured on the switch to allow the WLC to connect? Active Passive On Auto.
Which feature does Cisco TrustSec use to provide scalable, secure communication throughout a network? security group tag ACL assigned to each port on a switch security group tag number assigned to each user on a switch security group tag number assigned to each port on a network security group tag ACL assigned to each router on a network.
An engineer configures a WLAN with fast transition enabled. Some legacy clients fail to connect to this WLAN. Which feature allows the legacy clients to connect while still allowing other clients to use fast transition based on their OUIs? over the DS 802.11k adaptive R 802.11v.
Which exhibit displays a valid JSON file? { "hostname": "edge_router_1" "interfaces": { "GigabitEthernet1/1" "GigabitEthernet1/2" "GigabitEthernet1/3" } } { "hostname": "edge_router_1", "interfaces": { "GigabitEthernet1/1", "GigabitEthernet1/2", "GigabitEthernet1/3", }, } { "hostname": "edge_router_1", "interfaces": [ "GigabitEthernet1/1" "GigabitEthernet1/2" "GigabitEthernet1/3" ] } { "hostname": "edge_router_1", "interfaces": [ "GigabitEthernet1/1", "GigabitEthernet1/2", "GigabitEthernet1/3", ] }.
A network administrator is implementing a routing configuration change and enables routing debugs to track routing behavior during the change. The logging output on the terminal is interrupting the command typing process. Which two actions can the network administrator take to minimize the possibility of typing commands incorrectly? (Choose two.) Configure the logging synchronous global configuration command. Configure the logging synchronous command under the vty. Increase the number of lines on the screen using the terminal length command. Configure the logging delimiter feature. Press the TAB key to reprint the command in a new line.
Which two pieces of information are necessary to compute SNR? (Choose two.) transmit power noise floor EIRP RSSI antenna gain.
Which statements are used for error handling in Python? try/catch catch/release block/rescue try/except.
What are two benefits of virtualizing the server with the use of VMs in a data center environment? (Choose two.) reduced rack space, power, and cooling requirements smaller Layer 2 domain increased security speedy deployment reduced IP and MAC address requirements.
Which two steps are required for a complete Cisco DNA Center upgrade? (Choose two.) automation backup system update golden image selection proxy configuration application updates.
What is the benefit of data modelling languages like YANG? They create more secure and efficient SNMP OIDs. They provide a standardized data structure, which results in configuration scalability and consistency. They enable programmers to change or write their own applications within the device operating system. They make the CLI simpler and more efficient.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the JSON syntax that is formed from the data? {Name: Bob Johnson, Age: 75, Alive: true, Favorite Foods: [Cereal, Mustard, Onions]} {“Name”: “Bob Johnson”, “Age”: 75, “Alive”: true, “Favorite Foods”: [“Cereal”, “Mustard”, “Onions”]} {‘Name’: ‘Bob Johnson’, ‘Age’: 75, ‘Alive’: True, ‘Favorite Foods’: ‘Cereal’, ‘Mustard’, ‘Onions’} {“Name”: “Bob Johnson”, “Age”: Seventyfive, “Alive”: true, “Favorite Foods”: [“Cereal”, “Mustard”, “Onions”]}.
Based on this interface configuration, what is the expected state of OSPF adjacency? 2WAY/DROTHER on both routers not established FULL on both routers FULL/BDR on R1 and FULL/BDR on R2.
Refer to the exhibit. Link1 is a copper connection and Link2 is a fiber connection. The fiber port must be the primary port for all forwarding. The output of the show spanning-tree command on SW2 shows that the fiber port is blocked by spanning tree. An engineer enters the spanning-tree port-priority 32 command on G0/1 on SW2, but the port remains blocked. Which command should be entered on the ports that are connected to Link2 to resolve the issue? Enter spanning-tree port-priority 4 on SW2. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 32 on SW1. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 224 on SW1. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 64 on SW2.
Which JSON syntax is valid? {“switch”: “name”: “dist1”, “interfaces”: [“gig1”, “gig2”, “gig3”]} {/“switch/”: {/“name/”: “dist1”, /“interfaces/”: [“gig1”, “gig2”, “gig3”]}} {“switch”: {“name”: “dist1”, “interfaces”: [“gig1”, “gig2”, “gig3”]}} {‘switch’: (‘name’: ‘dist1’, ‘interfaces’: [‘gig1’, ‘gig2’, ‘gig3’])}.
What are two common sources of interference for Wi-Fi networks? (Choose two.) LED lights radar fire alarm conventional oven rogue AP.
When using TLS for syslog, which configuration allows for secure and reliable transportation of messages to its default port? logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 514 logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport udp port 514 logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 6514 logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport udp port 6514.
Which behavior can be expected when the HSRP version is changed from 1 to 2? No changes occur because the standby router is upgraded before the active router. No changes occur because version 1 and 2 use the same virtual MAC OUI. Each HSRP group reinitializes because the virtual MAC address has changed. Each HSRP group reinitializes because the multicast address has changed.
Which protocol does REST API rely on to secure the communication channel? HTTP SSH HTTPS TCP.
Refer to this output. R1# *Feb 14 37:09:53.129: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface GigabitEthernet0/1, changed state to up What is the logging severity level? notification emergency critical alert.
Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address becomes the active next hop for 192.168.102.0/24 when 192.168.101.2 fails? 192.168.101.10 192.168.101.14 192.168.101.6 192.168.101.18.
Which PAgP mode combination prevents an EtherChannel from forming? auto/desirable desirable/desirable desirable/auto auto/auto.
If a VRRP master router fails, which router is selected as the new master router? router with the lowest priority router with the highest priority router with the highest loopback address router with the lowest loopback address.
Which QoS component alters a packet to change the way that traffic is treated in the network? policing classification marking shaping.
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that R1 is a CE router, which VRF is assigned to Gi0/0 on R1? default VRF VRF VPN_A VRF VPN_B management VRF.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the configuration in this WLAN security setting, which method can a client use to authenticate to the network? text string username and password RADIUS token certificate.
Which two mechanisms are available to secure NTP? (Choose two.) IPsec IP prefix list-based encrypted authentication TACACS-based authentication IP access list-based.
Which technology provides a secure communication channel for all traffic at Layer 2 of the OSI model? SSL Cisco TrustSec MACsec IPsec.
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must block all traffic from a router to its directly connected subnet 209.165.200.0/24. The engineer applies access control list EGRESS in the outbound direction on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the router. However, the router can still ping hosts on the 209.165.200.0/24 subnet. Which explanation of this behavior is true? Access control lists that are applied outbound to a router interface do not affect traffic that is sourced from the router. After an access control list is applied to an interface, that interface must be shut and no shut for the access control list to take effect. Only standard access control lists can block traffic from a source IP address. The access control list must contain an explicit deny to block traffic from the router.
Which two methods are used by an AP that is trying to discover a wireless LAN controller? (Choose two.) Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbor querying other APs DHCP Option 43 broadcasting on the local subnet DNS lookup CISCO-DNA-PRIMARY.localdomain.
Which IP SLA operation requires the IP SLA responder to be configured on the remote end? UDP jitter ICMP jitter TCP connect ICMP echo.
Which statement explains why Type 1 hypervisor is considered more efficient than Type2 hypervisor? Type 1 hypervisor is the only type of hypervisor that supports hardware acceleration techniques. Type 1 hypervisor relies on the existing OS of the host machine to access CPU, memory, storage, and network resources. Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on the physical hardware of the host machine without relying on the underlying OS. Type 1 hypervisor enables other operating systems to run on it.
A client with IP address 209.165.201.25 must access a web server on port 80 at 209.165.200.225. To allow this traffic, an engineer must add a statement to an access control list that is applied in the inbound direction on the port connecting to the web servers. Which statement allows this traffic? permit tcp host 209.165.200.225 lt 80 host 209.165.201.25 permit tcp host 209.165.201.25 host 209.165.200.225 eq 80 permit tcp host 209.165.200.225 eq 80 host 209.165.201.25 permit tcp host 209.165.200.225 host 209.165.201.25 eq 80.
In OSPF, which LSA type is responsible for pointing to the ASBR router? type 1 type 2 type 3 type 4.
Refer to the exhibit. VLANs 50 and 60 exist on the trunk links between all switches. All access ports on SW3 are configured for VLAN 50 and SW1 is the VTP server. Which command ensures that SW3 receives frames only from VLAN 50? SW1(config)#vtp mode transparent SW3(config)#vtp mode transparent SW2(config)#vtp pruning SW1(config)#vtp pruning.
Which statement about a fabric access point is true? It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch. It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch.
Which First Hop Redundancy Protocol maximizes uplink utilization and minimizes the amount of configuration that is necessary? GLBP HSRP v2 VRRP HSRP v1.
Which standard access control entry permits traffic from odd-numbered hosts in the 10.0.0.0/24 subnet? permit 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.1 permit 10.0.0.1 0.0.0.254 permit 10.0.0.1 0.0.0.0 permit 10.0.0.1 0.0.0.0.
Refer to the exhibit.Which configuration establishes EBGP connected neighborship between these two directly connected neighbors and exchanges the loopback network of the two routers through BGP? R1(config)#router bgp 1 R1(config-router)#neighbor 192.168.10.2 remote-as 2 R1(config-router)#network 10.1.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0 R2(config)#router bgp 2 R2(config-router)#neighbor 192.168.10.1 remote-as 1 R2(config-router)#network 10.2.2.0 mask 255.255.255.0 R1(config)#router bgp 1 R1(config-router)#neighbor 10.2.2.2 remote-as 2 R1(config-router)#network 10.1.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0 R2(config)#router bgp 2 R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 1 R2(config-router)#network 10.2.2.0 mask 255.255.255.0 R1(config)#router bgp 1 R1(config-router)#neighbor 192.168.10.2 remote-as 2 R1(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0 mask 255.0.0.0 R2(config)#router bgp 2 R2(config-router)#neighbor 192.168.10.1 remote-as 1 R2(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0 mask 255.0.0.0 R1(config)#router bgp 1 R1(config-router)#neighbor 10.2.2.2 remote-as 2 R1(config-router)#neighbor 10.2.2.2 update-source |o0 R1(config-router)#network 10.1.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0 R2(config)#router bgp 2R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 1 R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.1 update-source |o0 R2(config-router)#network 10.2.2.0 mask 255.255.255.0.
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of antenna do the radiation patterns present? Yagi patch omnidirectional dipole.
Which method creates an EEM applet policy that is registered with EEM and runs on demand or manually? event manager applet ondemand event none action 1.0 syslog priority critical msg ‘This is a message from ondemand’ event manager applet ondemand action 1.0 syslog priority critical msg ‘This is a message from ondemand’ event manager applet ondemand event register action 1.0 syslog priority critical msg ‘This is a message from ondemand’ event manager applet ondemand event manual action 1.0 syslog priority critical msg ‘This is a message from ondemand’.
An engineer is configuring local web authentication on a WLAN. The engineer chooses the Authentication radio button under the Layer 3 Security options for Web Policy. Which device presents the web authentication for the WLAN? ISE server RADIUS server anchor WLC local WLC.
Which controller is the single plane of management for Cisco SD-WAN? vBond vSmart vManage vEdge.
A network is being migrated from IPv4 to IPv6 using a dual-stack approach. Network management is already 100% IPv6 enabled. In a dual-stack network with two dual-stack NetFlow collectors, how many flow exporters are needed per network device in the flexible NetFlow configuration? 1 2 4 8.
Which statement about TLS is true when using RESTCONF to write configurations on network devices? It is used for HTTP and HTTPS requests. It requires certificates for authentication. It is provided using NGINX acting as a proxy web server. It is not supported on Cisco devices.
Which reason could cause an OSPF neighborship to be in the EXSTART/EXCHANGE state? mismatched OSPF link costs mismatched OSPF network type mismatched areas mismatched MTU size.
Which LISP device is responsible for publishing EID-to-RLOC mappings for a site? ETR MR ITR MS.
Which method does the enable secret password option use to encrypt device passwords? MD5 PAP CHAP AES.
Which statement about agent-based versus agentless configuration management tools is true? Agentless tools use proxy nodes to interface with slave nodes. Agentless tools require no messaging systems between master and slaves. Agent-based tools do not require a high-level language interpreter such as Python or Ruby on slave nodes. Agent-based tools do not require installation of additional software packages on the slave nodes.
Which statement about Cisco Express Forwarding is true? The CPU of a router becomes directly involved with packet switching decisions. It uses a fast cache that is maintained in a router data plane. It maintains two tables in the data plane: the FIB and adjacency table. It makes forwarding decisions by a process that is scheduled through the IOS scheduler.
Refer to the exhibit. What are two effects of this configuration? (Choose two.) It establishes a one-to-one NAT translation. The 209.165.201.0/27 subnet is assigned as the outside local address range. The 10.1.1.0/27 subnet is assigned as the inside local addresses. Inside source addresses are translated to the 209.165.201.0/27 subnet. The 10.1.1.0/27 subnet is assigned as the inside global address range.
When configuring WPA2 Enterprise on a WLAN, which additional security component configuration is required? PKI server NTP server RADIUS server TACACS server.
What is the structure of a JSON web token? three parts separated by dots: header, payload, and signature three parts separated by dots: version, header, and signature header and payload payload and signature.
A response code of 404 is received while using the REST API on Cisco DNA Center to POST to this URI: /dna/intent/api/v1/template-programmer/project What does the code mean? The POST/PUT request was fulfilled and a new resource was created. Information about the resource is in the response body. The request was accepted for processing, but the processing was not completed. The client made a request for a resource that does not exist. The server has not implemented the functionality that is needed to fulfill the request.
What is the benefit of deploying an on-premises infrastructure versus a cloud infrastructure deployment? ability to quickly increase compute power without the need to install additional hardware less power and coding resources needed to run infrastructure on-premises faster deployment times because the additional infrastructure does not need to be purchased lower latency between systems that are physically located near each other.
A customer has several small branches and wants to deploy a Wi-Fi solution with local management using CAPWAP. Which deployment model meets this requirement? local mode autonomous SD-Access wireless Mobility Express.
Which two operations are valid for RESTCONF? (Choose two.) PULL PUSH PATCH REMOVE ADD HEAD.
Refer to the exhibit. The WLC administrator sees that the controller to which a roaming client associates has Mobility Role Anchor configured under Clients > Detail. Which type of roaming is supported? indirect Layer 3 intercontroller intracontroller Layer 2 intercontroller.
In which part of the HTTP message is the content type specified? HTTP method body header URI.
Which statement about VXLAN is true? VXLAN encapsulates a Layer 2 frame in an IP-UDP header, which allows Layer 2 adjacency across router boundaries. VXLAN uses the Spanning Tree Protocol for loop prevention. VXLAN extends the Layer 2 Segment ID field to 24-bits, which allows up to 4094 unique Layer 2 segments over the same network. VXLAN uses TCP as the transport protocol over the physical data centre network.
Which statement about Cisco EAP-FAST is true? It requires a client certificate. It is an IETF standard. It does not require a RADIUS server certificate. It operates in transparent mode.
What do Cisco DNA southbound APIs provide? interface between the controller and the consumer RESTful API interface for orchestrator communication interface between the controller and the network devices NETCONF API interface for orchestrator communication.
Which DNS lookup does an access point perform when attempting CAPWAP discovery? CISCO-CONTROLLER.local CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.local CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.local CISCO-DNA-CONTROLLER.local.
Which TCP setting is tuned to minimize the risk of fragmentation on a GRE/IP tunnel? MSS MTU MRU window size.
Which statement about an RSPAN session configuration is true? Only one session can be configured at a time. A special VLAN type must be used as the RSPAN destination. A filter must be configured for RSPAN sessions. Only incoming traffic can be monitored.
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must modify the access control list EGRESS to allow all IP traffic from subnet 10.1.10.0/24 to 10.1.2.0/24. The access control list is applied in the outbound direction on router interface GigabitEthernet 0/1. Which configuration commands can the engineer use to allow this traffic without disrupting existing traffic flows? conf t ip access-list extended EGRESS permit ip 10.1.10.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 conf t ip access-list extended EGRESS2 permit ip 10.1.0.0.0 0.0.0255 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.255 permit ip 10.1.100.0 0.0.0.255 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.255 deny ip any any ! interface f0/1 no ip access-group EGRESS out ip access-group EGRESS2 out conf t ip access-list extended EGRESS permit ip 10.1.10.0 0.0.0.255 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.255 conf t ip access-list extended EGRESS 5 permit ip 10.1.10.0 0.0.0.255 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.255.
What is the role of a fusion router in an SD-Access solution? acts as a DNS server provides additional forwarding capacity to the fabric performs route leaking between user-defined virtual networks and shared services provides connectivity to external networks.
Refer to the exhibit. A port channel is configured between SW2 and SW3. SW2 is not running a Cisco operating system. When all physical connections are made, the port channel does not establish. Based on the configuration except of SW3, what is the cause of the problem? The port-channel mode should be set to auto. The port-channel on SW2 is using an incompatible protocol. The port-channel trunk is not allowing the native VLAN. The port-channel interface load balance should be set to src-mac.
What does this EEM applet event accomplish? “event snmp oid 1.3.6.1.3.7.0.9.5.3.1.2.9 get-type next entry-op gt entry-val 75 poll-interval 5” Upon the value reaching 75%, an SNMP event is generated and sent to the trap server. It reads an SNMP variable, and when the value exceeds 75%, it triggers an action. It issues email when the value is greater than 75% for five polling cycles. It presents an SNMP variable that can be interrogated.
Which method displays text directly into the active console with a synchronous EEM applet policy? event manager applet boom event syslog pattern ‘UP’ action 1.0 syslog priority direct msg ‘logging directly to console’ event manager applet boom event syslog pattern ‘UP’ action 1.0 gets ‘logging directly to console’ event manager applet boom event syslog pattern ‘UP’ action 1.0 string ‘logging directly to console’ event manager applet boom event syslog pattern ‘UP’ action 1.0 puts ‘logging directly to console’.
Which two GRE features are configured to prevent fragmentation? (Choose two.) TCP window size IP MTU TCP MSS DF bit clear MTU ignore.
Which action is the vSmart controller responsible for in an SD-WAN deployment? onboard vEdge nodes into the SD-WAN fabric gather telemetry data from vEdge routers distribute security information for tunnel establishment between vEdge routers manage, maintain, and gather configuration and status for nodes within the SD-WAN fabric.
Which description of an SD-access wireless network infrastructure deployment is true? The access point is part of the fabric overlay. The wireless client is part of the fabric overlay. The access point is part of the fabric underlay. The WLC is part of the fabric underlay.
Which feature is supported by EIGRP but is not supported by OSPF? route filtering unequal-cost load balancing route summarization equal-cost load balancing.
What is the correct EBGP path attribute list, ordered from most preferred to least preferred, that the BGP best-path algorithm uses? local preference, weight, AS path, MED weight, local preference, AS path, MED weight, AS path, local preference, MED local preference, weight, MED, AS path.
At which layer does Cisco DNA Center support REST controls? session layer northbound APIs EEM applets or scripts YAML output from responses to API calls.
Which tunnelling technique is used when designing a Cisco SD-Access fabric data plane? VXLAN LISP Cisco TrustSec IS-IS.
What is the difference between the enable password and the enable secret password when service password encryption is enabled on an IOS device? The enable secret password is protected via stronger cryptography mechanisms. The enable password cannot be decrypted. The enable password is encrypted with a stronger encryption method. There is no difference and both passwords are encrypted identically.
Which access controls list allows only TCP traffic with a destination port range of 22-443, excluding port 80? Deny tcp any any eq 80 Permit tcp any any gt 21 it 444 Permit tcp any any ne 80 Permit tcp any any range 22 443 Deny tcp any any eq 80 Deny tcp any any ne 80 Permit tcp any any range 22 443.
Which statement describes the IP and MAC allocation requirements for virtual machines on Type 1 hypervisors? Virtual machines do not require a unique IP or unique MAC. They share the IP and MAC address of the physical server. Each virtual machine requires a unique IP address but shares the MAC address with the physical server. Each virtual machine requires a unique IP and MAC addresses to be able to reach to other nodes. Each virtual machine requires a unique MAC address but shares the IP address with the physical server.
A local router shows an EBGP neighbor in the Active state. Which statement is true about the local router? The local router is attempting to open a TCP session with the neighbouring router. The local router is receiving prefixes from the neighbouring router and adding them in RIB-IN. The local router has active prefixes in the forwarding table from the neighbouring router. The local router has BGP passive mode configured for the neighbouring router.
Which feature must be configured to allow packet capture over Layer 3 infrastructure? RSPAN ERSPAN VSPAN IPSPAN.
Which two actions provide controlled Layer 2 network connectivity between virtual machines running on the same hypervisor? (Choose two.) Use a single trunk link to an external Layer2 switch. Use a virtual switch provided by the hypervisor. Use a virtual switch running as a separate virtual machine. Use a single routed link to an external router on stick. Use VXLAN fabric after installing VXLAN tunneling drivers on the virtual machines.
What is calculated using the numerical values of the transmitter power level, cable loss, and antenna gain? EIRP dBi RSSI SNR.
Which type of antenna does the radiation pattern represent? Yagi multidirectional directional patch omnidirectional.
Refer to the exhibit. SwitchC connects HR and Sales to the Core switch However, business needs require that no traffic from the Finance VLAN traverse this switch. Which command meets this requirement? SwitchC(config)#vtp pruning SwitchC(config)#vtp pruning vlan 110 SwitchC(config)#interface port-channel 1 SwitchC(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan add 210,310 SwitchC(config)#interface port-channel 1 SwitchC(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan remove 110 .
Refer to the exhibit. Which HTTP JSON response does the python code output give? NameError: name ‘json’ is not defined KeyError ‘kickstart_ver_str’ 7.61 7.0(3)I7(4).
When a wired client connects to an edge switch in an SDA fabric, which component decides whether the client has access to the network? control-plane node Identity Service Engine RADIUS server edge node.
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must ensure that all traffic leaving AS 200 will choose Link 2 as the exit point. Assuming that all BGP neighbor relationships have been formed and that the attributes have not been changed on any of the routers, which configuration accomplish task? R4(config-router)#bgp default local-preference 200 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.1 weight 200 R3(config-router)#bgp default local-preference 200 R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.2.2.2 weight 200.
Which protocol infers that a YANG data model is being used? SNMP REST RESTCONF NX-API.
Which configuration restricts the amount of SSH that a router accepts 100 kbps? class-map match-all CoPP_SSH match access-group name CoPP_SSH ! Policy-map CoPP_SSH class CoPP_SSHpolice cir 100000 exceed-action drop ! ! ! Interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 209.165.200.225 255.255.255.0 ip access-group CoPP_SSH out duplex auto speed auto media-type rj45 service-policy input CoPP_SSH ! ip access-list extended CoPP_SSH permit tcp any any eq 22 ! class-map match-all CoPP_SSH match access-group name CoPP_SSH ! Policy-map CoPP_SSH class CoPP_SSH police cir CoPP_SSH exceed-action drop ! Interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 209.165.200.225 255.255.255.0 ip access-group … out duplex auto speed auto media-type rj45 service-policy input CoPP_SSH ! ip access-list extended CoPP_SSH deny tcp any any eq 22 ! class-map match-all CoPP_SSH match access-group name CoPP_SSH ! Policy-map CoPP_SSH class CoPP_SSH police cir 100000 exceed-action drop ! ! ! Control-plane service-policy input CoPP_SSH ! ip access-list extended CoPP_SSH permit tcp any any eq 22 ! class-map match-all CoPP_SSH match access-group name CoPP_SSH ! Policy-map CoPP_SSH class CoPP_SSH police cir 100000 exceed-action drop ! Control-plane transit service-policy input CoPP_SSH ! Ip access-list extended CoPP_SSH permit tcp any any eq 22 !.
What NTP stratum level is a server that is connected directly to an authoritative time source? Stratum 0 Stratum 1 Stratum 14 Stratum 15.
How does QoS traffic shaping alleviate network congestion? It drops packets when traffic exceeds a certain bitrate. It buffers and queue packets above the committed rate. It fragments large packets and queues them for delivery. It drops packets randomly from lower priority queues.
An engineer is describing QoS to a client. Which two facts apply to traffic policing? (Choose two) Policing adapts to network congestion by queuing excess traffic Policing should be performed as close to the destination as possible Policing drops traffic that exceeds the defined rate Policing typically delays the traffic, rather than drops it Policing should be performed as close to the source as possible.
What mechanism does PIM use to forward multicast traffic? PIM sparse mode uses a pull model to deliver multicast traffic PIM dense mode uses a pull model to deliver multicast traffic PIM sparse mode uses receivers to register with the RP PIM sparse mode uses a flood and prune model to deliver multicast traffic.
Which two namespaces does the LISP network architecture and protocol use? (Choose two) TLOC RLOC DNS VTEP EID.
Which First Hop Redundancy Protocol should be used to meet a design requirements for more efficient default bandwidth usage across multiple devices? GLBP LCAP HSRP VRRP.
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring OSPF between router R1 and router R2. The engineer must ensure that a DR/BDR election does not occur on the Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in area 0. Which configuration set accomplishes this goal? R1 (config-if) #interface Gi0/0 R1 (config-if) #ip ospf network point-to-point R2 (config-if) #interface Gi0/0 R2 (config-if) #ip ospf network point-to-point R1 (config-if) #interface Gi0/0 R1 (config-if) #ip ospf network broadcast R2(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R2(config-if)#ip ospf network broadcast R1(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)#ip ospf database-filter all out R2(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R2(config-if)#ip ospf database-filter all out R1(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)#ip ospf priority 1 R2(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R2(config-if)#ip ospf priority 1.
What are two reasons why broadcast radiation is caused in the virtual machine environment? (Choose two) vSwitch must interrupt the server CPU to process the broadcast packet The Layer 2 domain can be large in virtual machine environments Virtual machines communicate primarily through broadcast mode Communication between vSwitch and network switch is broadcast based Communication between vSwitch and network switch is multicast based.
A company plans to implement intent-based networking in its campus infrastructure. Which design facilities a migrate from a traditional campus design to a programmer fabric designer? Layer 2 access three-tier two-tier routed access.
When a wireless client roams between two different wireless controllers, a network connectivity outage is experienced for a period of time. Which configuration issue would cause this problem? Not all of the controllers in the mobility group are using the same mobility group name Not all of the controllers within the mobility group are using the same virtual interface IP address All of the controllers within the mobility group are using the same virtual interface IP address All of the controllers in the mobility group are using the same mobility group name.
Which algorithms are used to secure REST API from brute force attacks and minimize the impact? SHA-512 and SHA-384 MD5 algorithm-128 and SHA-384 SHA-1, SHA-256, and SHA-512 PBKDF2, BCrypt, and SCrypt.
What is the role of the RP in PIM sparse mode? The RP responds to the PIM join messages with the source of the requested multicast group The RP maintains default ageing timeouts for all multicast streams requested by the receivers The RP acts as a control-plane node and does not receive or forward multicast packets The RP is the multicast that is the root of the PIM-SM shared multicast distribution tree.
A network administrator is preparing a Python script to configure a Cisco IOS XE based device on the network. The administrator is worried that colleagues will make changes to the device while the script is running. Which operation of the client manager will prevent a colleague from making changes to the device while the script is running? m.lock (config=’running’) m.lock (target=’running’) m.freeze (target=’running’) m.freeze(config=’running’).
What are two device roles in Cisco SD-Access fabric? (Choose two) core switch vBond controller edge node access switch border node.
Which action is a function of VTEP in VXLAN? tunneling traffic from IPv6 to IPv4 VXLANs allowing encrypted communication on the local VXLAN Ethernet segment encapsulating and de-encapsulating VXLAN Ethernet frames tunneling traffic from IPv4 to IPv6 VXLANs.
What does the Cisco DNA Center use to enable the delivery of applications through a network and to yield analytics for innovation? process adapters Command Runner intent-based APIs domain adapters.
Which component handles the orchestration plane of the Cisco SD-WAN? vBond vSmart vManage vEdge.
Which two entities are Type 1 hypervisors? (Choose two) Oracle VM Virtual Box Microsoft Hyper-V VMware server VMware ESX Microsoft Virtual PC.
Which access point mode allows a supported AP to function like a WLAN client would, associating and identifying client connectivity issues? client mode SE-connect mode sensor mode sniffer mode.
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must deny Telnet traffic from the loopback interface of router R3 to the loopback interface of router R2 during the weekend hours. All other traffic between the loopback interfaces of routers R3 and R2 must be allowed at all times. Which command accomplish this task? R3(config)#time-range WEEKEND R3(config-time-range)#periodic Saturday Sunday 00:00 to 23:59 R3(config)#access-list 150 deny tcp host 10.3.3.3 host 10.2.2.2 eq 23 time-range WEEKEND R3(config)#access-list 150 permit ip any any time-range WEEKEND R3(config)#interface Gi0/1 R3(config-if)#ip access-group 150 out R1(config)#time-range WEEKEND R1(config-time-range)#periodic Friday Sunday 00:00 to 00:00 R1(config)#access-list 150 deny tcp host 10.3.3.3 host 10.2.2.2 eq 23 time-range WEEKEND R1(config)#access-list 150 permit ip any any R1(config)#interface Gi0/1 R1(config-if)#ip access-group 150 in R1(config)#time-range WEEKEND R1(config-time-range)#periodic weekend 00:00 to 23:59 R1(config)#access-list 150 deny tcp host 10.3.3.3 host 10.2.2.2 eq 23 time-range WEEKEND R1(config)#access-list 150 permit ip any any R1(config)#interface Gi0/1 R1(config-if)#ip access-group 150 in R3(config)#time-range WEEKEND R3(config-time-range)#periodic weekend 00:00 to 23:59 R3(config)#access-list 150 deny tcp host 10.3.3.3 host 10.2.2.2 eq 23 time-range WEEKEND R3(config)#access-list 150 permit ip any any time-range WEEKEND R3(config)#interface Gi0/1 R3(config-if)#ip access-group 150 out.
Which tool is used in Cisco DNA Center to build generic configurations that are able to be applied on device with similar network settings? Command Runner Template Editor Application Policies Authentication Template.
A client device roams between access points located on different floors in an atrium. The access points joined to the same controller and configuration in local mode. The access points are in different IP addresses, but the client VLAN in the group same. What type of roam occurs? inter-controller inter-subnet intra-VLAN intra-controller.
What does the LAP send when multiple WLCs respond to the CISCO_CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.localdomain hostname during the CAPWAP discovery and join process? broadcast discover request join request to all the WLCs unicast discovery request to each WLC Unicast discovery request to the first WLC that resolves the domain name.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the result when a technician adds the monitor session 1 destination remote vlan 233 command? The RSPAN VLAN is replaced by VLAN 223 RSPAN traffic is sent to VLANs 222 and 223 An error is flagged for configuring two destinations RSPAN traffic is split between VLANs 222 and 223.
In an SD-Access solution what is the role of a fabric edge node? to connect external Layer 3 network to the SD-Access fabric to connect wired endpoint to the SD-Access fabric to advertise fabric IP address space to the external network to connect the fusion router to the SD-Access fabric.
Refer to the exhibit. access-list 1 permit 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 ip nat inside source list 1 interface gigabitethernet0/0 overload The inside and outside interfaces in the NAT configuration of this device have been correctly identified. What is the effect of this configuration? dynamic NAT static NAT PAT NAT64.
Which component of the Cisco Cyber Threat Defense solution provides user and flow context analysis? Cisco Firepower and FireSIGHT Cisco Stealth watch system Advanced Malware Protection Cisco Web Security Appliance.
Which feature of EIGRP is not supported in OSPF? load balancing of unequal-cost paths load-balance over four equal-costs paths uses interface bandwidth to determine the best path per-packet load balancing over multiple paths.
An engineer must protect their company against ransomware attacks. Which solution allows the engineer to block the execution stage and prevent file encryption? Use Cisco AMP deployment with the Malicious Activity Protection engine enabled. Use Cisco AMP deployment with the Exploit Prevention engine enabled Use Cisco Firepower and block traffic to TOR networks Use Cisco Firepower with Intrusion Policy and snort rules blocking SMB exploitation.
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming the WLC’s interfaces are not in the same subnet as the RADIUS server, which interface would the WLC use as the source for all RADIUS related traffic? the interface specified on the WLAN configuration any interface configured on the WLC the controller management interface the controller virtual interface.
Which benefit is offered by a cloud infrastructure deployment but is lacking in an on-premises deployment? efficient scalability virtualization storage capacity supported systems.
Wireless users report frequent disconnections from the wireless network. While troubleshooting a network engineer finds that after the user a disconnect, the connection reestablishes automatically without any input required. The engineer also notices these message logs. Which action reduces the user impact? increase the dynamic channel assignment interval increase BandSelect increase the AP heartbeat timeout enable coverage hole detection.
Which DHCP option helps lightweight APs find the IP address of a wireless LAN controller? Option 43 Option 60 Option 67 Option 150.
A network administrator applies the following configuration to an IOS device. aaa new-model aaa authentication login default local group tacacs+ What is the process of password checks when a login attempt is made to the device? A TACACS+ server is checked first. If that check fail, a database is checked A TACACS+ server is checked first. If that check fail, a RADIUS server is checked. If that check fail, a local database is checked A local database is checked first. If that fails, a TACACS+server is checked, if that check fails, a RADIUS server is checked A local database is checked first. If that check fails, a TACACS+server is checked.
What is the role of the vsmart controller in a Cisco SD-WAN environment? IT performs authentication and authorization It manages the control plane It is the centralized network management system It manages the data plane.
Why is an AP joining a different WLC than the one specified through option 43? The WLC is running a different software version The AP is joining a primed WLC The AP multicast traffic unable to reach the WLC through Layer 3 The APs broadcast traffic is unable to reach the WLC through Layer 2.
Which devices does Cisco DNA Center configure when deploying an IP-based access control policy? All devices integrating with ISE selected individual devices all devices in selected sites all wired devices.
Which method of account authentication does OAuth 2.0 within REST APIs? username/role combination access tokens cookie authentication basic signature workflow.
Which outbound access list, applied to the WAN interface of a router, permits all traffic except for http traffic sourced from the workstation with IP address 10.10.10.1? ip access-list extended 200 deny tcp host 10.10.10.1 eq 80 any permit ip any any ip access-list extended 10 deny tcp host 10.10.10.1 any eq 80 permit ip any any ip access-list extended NO_HTTP deny tcp host 10.10.10.1 any eq 80 ip access-list extended 100 deny tcp host 10.10.10.1 any eq 80 permit ip any any .
A server running Linux is providing support for virtual machines along with DNS and DHCP services for a small business. Which technology does this represent? container Type 1 hypervisor hardware pass-thru Type 2 hypervisor.
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is using XML in an application to send information to a RESTCONF enabled device. After sending the request, the engineer gets this response message and a HTTP response code of 400. What do these responses tell the engineer? The Accept header sent was application/xml POST was used instead of PUT to update The Content-Type header sent was application/xml. JSON body was used.
Which statement about LISP encapsulation in an EIGRP OTP implementation is true? LISP learns the next hop OTP uses LISP encapsulation to obtain routes from neighbors OTP uses LISP encapsulation for dynamic multipoint tunneling OTP maintains the LISP control plane.
Refer to the exhibit. Which command must be applied to R2 for an OSPF neighborship to form? network 20.1.1.2.0.0.0.0 area 0 network 20.1.1.2 255.255.0.0. area 0 network 20.1.1.2 0.0.255.255 area 0 network 20.1.1.2 255.255.255 area 0.
Which two statements about VRF-lite are true? (Choose two) It can support multiple customers on a single switch It supports most routing protocols, including EIGRP, ISIS, and OSPF It should be used when a customer’s router is connected to an ISP over OSPF It can increase the packet switching rate It supports MPLS-VRF label exchange and labelled packets.
How are the Cisco Express Forwarding table and the FIB related to each other? Cisco Express Forwarding uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions correct The FIB is used to populate the Cisco Express Forwarding table There can be only one FIB but multiple Cisco Express Forwarding tables on IOS devices The Cisco Express Forwarding table allows route lookups to be forwarded to the route processor for processing before they are sent to the FIB.
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures monitoring on SW1 and enters the show command to verify operation. What does the output confirm? SPAN session 1 monitors activity on VLAN 50 of a remote switch SPAN session 2 only monitors egress traffic exiting port FastEthernet 0/14. SPAN session 2 monitors all traffic entering and exiting port FastEthernet 0/15. RSPAN session 1 is incompletely configured for monitoring.
Which EIGRP feature allows the use of leak maps? neighbor stub offset-list address-family.
Which two LISP infrastructure elements are needed to support LISP to non-LISP internetworking? (Choose two) PETR PITR MR MS ALT.
What is used to measure the total output energy of a Wi-Fi device? dBi EIRP mW dBm.
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer reconfigures the port-channel between SW1 and SW2 from an access port to a trunk and immediately notices this error in SW1’s log. %PM-SP-4-ERR_DISABLE: bpduguard error detected on Gi0/0, putting Gi0/0 in errdisable state. Which command set resolves this error? Sw1(config)# interface G0/0 Sw1(config-if)# spanning-tree bpduguard enable Sw1(config-if)# shut Sw1(config-if)# no shut Sw1(config)# interface G0/0 Sw1(config-if)# no spanning-tree bpduguard enable Sw1(config-if)# shut Sw1(config-if)# no shut Sw1(config)# interface G0/1 Sw1(config-if)# spanning-tree bpduguard enable Sw1(config-if)# shut Sw1(config-if)# no shut Sw1(config)# interface G0/0 Sw1(config-if)# no spanning-tree bpdufilter Sw1(config-if)# shut Sw1(config-if)# no shut.
Refer to the exhibit. (YOUR CONNECTION IS NOT PRIVATE WARNING ) An engineer is designing a guest portal on Cisco ISE using the default configuration. During the testing phase, the engineer receives a warning when displaying the guest portal. Which issue is occurring? The server that is providing the portal has an expired certificate The server that is providing the portal has a self-signed certificate The connection is using an unsupported protocol The connection is using an unsupported browser.
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must create a configuration that executes the show run command and then terminates the session when user CCNP logs in. Which configuration change is required” Add the access-class keyword to the username command Add the access-class keyword to the aaa authentication command Add the autocommand keyword to the username command Add the autocommand keyword to the aaa authentication command.
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer configures a GRE tunnel and enters the show Interface tunnel command. What does the output confirm about the configuration? The keepalive value is modified from the default value. Interface tracking is configured. The tunnel mode is set to the default. The physical interface MTU is 1476 bytes.
What is the result of applying this access control list? ip access-list extended STATEFUL 10 permit tcp any any established 20 deny ip any any TCP traffic with the URG bit set is allowed TCP traffic with the SYN bit set is allowed TCP traffic with the ACK bit set is allowed TCP traffic with the DF bit set is allowed.
How does the RIB differ from the FIB? The RIB is used to create network topologies and routing tables. The FIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations. The FIB includes many routes a single destination. The RIB is the best route to a single destination. The RIB includes many routes to the same destination prefix. The FIB contains only the best route The FIB maintains network topologies and routing tables. The RIB is a Iist of routes to particular network destinations.
Refer to the exhibit. Which IPv6 OSPF network type is applied to interface Fa0/0 of R2 by default? multipoint broadcast Ethernet point-to-point.
Refer the exhibit. Which router is the designated router on the segment 192.168.0.0/24? This segment has no designated router because it is a nonbroadcast network type. This segment has no designated router because it is a p2p network type. Router Chicago because it has a lower router ID Router NewYork because it has a higher router ID.
Which two statements about Cisco Express Forwarding load balancing are true? (Choose two) Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the RIB It combines the source IP address subnet mask to create a hash for each destination Cisco Express Forwarding can load-balance over a maximum of two destinations It combines the source and destination IP addresses to create a hash for each destination Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the adjacency table.
What is the main function of VRF-lite? To connect different autonomous systems together to share routes To allow devices to use labels to make Layer 2 Path decisions To route IPv6 traffic across an IPv4 backbone To segregate multiple routing tables on a single device.
Which statement about a Cisco APIC controller versus a more traditional SDN controller is true? APIC does support a Southbound REST API APIC supports OpFlex as a Northbound protocol APIC uses a policy agent to translate policies into instructions APIC uses an imperative model.
An engineer reviews a router’s logs and discovers the following entry. What is the event’s logging severity level? Router# *Feb 03 11:13:44 334: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface GigabitEthernet0/1, changed state to up notification error informational warning.
Which characteristic distinguishes Ansible from Chef? Ansible lacks redundancy support for the master server. Chef runs two masters in an active/active mode. Ansible uses Ruby to manage configurations. Chef uses YAML to manage configurations. Ansible pushes the configuration to the client. Chef client pulls the configuration from the server. The Ansible server can run on Linux, Unix or Windows. The Chef server must run on Linux or Unix.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the configuration? The device will allow users at 192.168.0.202 to connect to vty lines 0 through 4 using the password ciscotestkey The device will allow only users at 192 168.0.202 to connect to vty lines 0 through 4 When users attempt to connect to vty lines 0 through 4. the device will authenticate them against TACACS* if local authentication fails The device will authenticate all users connecting to vty lines 0 through 4 against TACACS+.
Which technology is used to provide Layer 2 and Layer 3 logical networks in the Cisco SD Access architecture? underlay network VPN routing/forwarding easy virtual network overlay network.
Refer to the exhibit. A network architect has partially configured static NAT. which commands should be asked to complete the configuration? R1(config)# ip nat inside source static 10.70.5.1 10.45.1.7 R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/0 R1(config)#ip pat outside R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/1 R1(config)#ip pat inside R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/0 R1(config)#ip nat outside R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/1 R1(config)#ip nat inside R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/0 R1(config)#ip nat inside R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/1 R1(config)#ip nat outside R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/0 R1(config)#ip pat inside R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/1 R1(config)#ip pat outside.
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures CoPP and enters the show command to verify the implementation. What is the result of the configuration? All traffic will be policed based on access-list 120. if traffic exceeds the specified rate, it will be transmitted and remarked. Class-default traffic will be dropped. ICMP will be denied based on this configuration.
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is installing a new pair of routers in a redundant configuration. Which protocol ensures that traffic is not disrupted in the event of a hardware failure? HSRPv1 GLBP VRRP HSRPv2.
Refer to the exhibit. PC-1 must access the web server on port 8080. To allow this traffic, which statement must be added to an access control list that is applied on SW2 port G0/0 in the inbound direction? permit host 172.16.0.2 host 192.168.0.5 eq 8080 permit host 192.168.0.5 host 172.16.0.2 eq 8080 permit host 192.168.0.5 eq 8080 host 172.16.0.2 permit host 192.168.0.5 it 8080 host 172.16.0.2.
What would be the preferred way to implement a loopless switch network where there are 1500 defined VLANs and it is necessary to load the shared traffic through two main aggregation points based on the VLAN identifier? 802.1D 802.1s 802.1W 802.1AE.
How is a data modeling language used? To enable data to be easily structured, grouped validated, and replicated To represent finite and well-defined network elements that cannot be changed. To model the flows of unstructured data within the infrastructure. To provide human readability to scripting languages.
Which two statements about VRRP are true? (Choose two) It supports both MD5 and SHA1 authentication. It is assigned multicast address 224.0.0.9. Three versions of the VRRP protocol have been defined. It is assigned multicast address 224.0.0.8 The TTL for VRRP packets must be 255. Its IP address number is 115.
Refer to the exhibit. A wireless client is connecting to FlexAP1 which is currently working standalone mode. The AAA authentication process is returning the following AVPs: Tunnel-Private-Group-Id(81): 15 Tunnel-Medium-Type(65): IEEE-802(6) Tunnel-Type(64): VLAN(13) Which three behaviours will the client experience? (Choose three.) While the AP is in standalone mode, the client will be placed in VLAN 15. While the AP is in standalone mode, the client will be placed in VLAN 10. When the AP transitions to connected mode, the client will be de-authenticated. While the AP is in standalone mode, the client will be placed in VLAN 13. When the AP is in connected mode, the client will be placed in VLAN 13. When the AP transitions to connected mode, the client will remain associated. When the AP is in connected mode, the client will be placed in VLAN 15. When the AP is in connected mode, the client will be placed in VLAN 10.
Refer to the exhibit. Which LISP component do routers in the public IP network use to forward traffic between the two networks? RLOC map resolver EID map server.
Which variable in an EEM applet is set when you use the sync yes option? $_cli_result $_exit_status $_string_result $_result.
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer attempts to configure a router on a stick to route packets between Clients, Servers, and Printers; however, initial tests show that this configuration is not working. Which command set resolves this issue? router eigrp 1 network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 network 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 network 192.168.1.0 255.255.0.0 router eigrp 1 network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 network 172.16.0.0 255.255.255.0 network 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 interface Vlan10 no ip vrf forwarding Clients ! interface Vlan20 no ip vrf forwarding Servers ! interface Vlan30 no ip vrf forwarding Printers interface Vlan10 no ip vrf forwarding Clients ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0 ! interface Vlan20 no ip vrf forwarding Servers ip address 172.16.1.2 255.255.255.0 ! interface Vlan30 no ip vrf forwarding Printers ip address 10.1.1.2 255.255.255.0.
In a Cisco SD-WAN solution, how is the health of a data plane tunnel monitored? with IP SLA ARP probing using BFD with OMP.
What does Call Admission Control require the client to send in order to reserve the bandwidth? SIP flow information Wi-Fi multimedia traffic specification VoIP media session awareness.
Which data modeling language is commonly used by NETCONF? REST YANG HTML XML.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands ensure that DSW1 becomes root bridge for VLAN 10 and 20? spanning-tree mst 1 priority 1 spanning-tree mst 1 root primary spanning-tree mstp vlan 10,20 root primary spanning-tree mst vlan 10,20 priority root spanning-tree mst 1 priority 4096.
During deployment, a network engineer notices that voice traffic is not being tagged correctly as it traverses the network. Which COS to DSCP map must be modified to ensure that voice traffic is treated properly? COS of 5 to DSCP 46 COS of 7 to DSCP 48 COS of 6 to DSCP 46 COS of 3 to DSCP of 26.
Which two statements about IP SLA are true? (Choose two) It uses NetFlow for passive traffic monitoring It can measure MOS The IP SLA responder is a component in the source Cisco device It is Layer 2 transport-independent It uses active traffic monitoring SNMP access is not supported.
You are configuring a controller that runs Cisco IOS XE by using the CLI. Which three configuration options are used for 802.11w Protected Management Frames? (Choose three.) mandatory association-comeback SA teardown protection saquery-retry-time enable comeback-time.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands are needed to allow for full reachability between AS 1000 and AS 2000? (Choose two) R1#network 19.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0 R2#no network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 R2#network 192.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0 R2#network 209.165.201.0 mask 255.255.192.0 R1#no network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0.
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is able to ping the R3 fa0/1 interface. Why do the extended pings fail? The maximum packet size accepted by the command is 1476 bytes. R3 is missing a return route to 10.99.69.0/30 R2 and R3 do not have an OSPF adjacency The DF bit has been set.
An engineer must configure interface GigabitEthernet0/0 for VRRP group 10. When the router has the highest priority in the group, it must assume the master role. Which command set must be added to the initial configuration to accomplish this task? vrrp 10 ip 172.16.13.254 vrrp 10 preempt standby 10 ip 172.16.13.254 standby 10 priority 120 vrrp group 10 ip 172.16.13 254.255.255.255.0 vrrp group 10 priority 120 standby 10 ip 172.16.13.254 255.255.255.0 standby 10 preempt.
Refer to the exhibit. Which network script automation option or tool is used in the exhibit? EEM Bash script REST correct NETCONF Python.
An engineer uses the Design workflow to create a new network infrastructure in Cisco DNA Center. How is the physical network device hierarchy structured? by location by role by organization by hostname naming convention.
Refer to Exhibit. MTU has been configured on the underlying physical topology, and no MTU command has been configured on the tunnel interfaces. What happens when a 1500-byte IPv4 packet traverses the GRE tunnel from host X to host Y, assuming the DF bit is cleared? The packet arrives on router C without fragmentation. The packet is discarded on router A The packet is discarded on router B The packet arrives on router C fragmented.
Into which two pieces of information does the LISP protocol split the device identity? (Choose two) Device ID Enterprise Identifier LISP ID Routing Locator Resource Location Endpoint Identifier.
Company policy restricts VLAN 10 to be allowed only on SW1 and SW2. All other VLANs can be on all three switches. An administrator has noticed that VLAN 10 has propagated to SW3. Which configuration corrects the issue? SW2(config)#interface gi1/2 SW2(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 10 SW1(config)#interface gi1/1 SW1(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-9,11-4094 SW2(config)#interface gi1/2 SW2(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-9,11-4094 SW2(config)#interface gi1/1 SW2(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 10.
Which two characteristics define the Intent API provided by Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two.) northbound API business outcome oriented device-oriented southbound API procedural.
Refer to the exhibit. Which command allows hosts that are connected to FastEthernet0/2 to access the Internet? ip nat inside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/1 overload ip nat inside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/2 overload ip nat outside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/2 overload ip nat outside source static 209.165.200.225 10.10.10.0 overload.
A GRE tunnel is down with the error message %TUN-5-RECUR DOWN: Tunnel0 temporarily disabled due to recursive routing error. Which two options describe possible causes of the error? (Choose two) There is link flapping on the tunnel Incorrect destination IP addresses are configured on the tunnel The tunnel mode and tunnel IP address are misconfigured There is instability in the network due to route flapping The tunnel destination is being routed out of the tunnel interface.
Which statement about the default QoS configuration on a Cisco switch is true? The Cos value of each tagged packet is modified Port trust is enabled The Port Cos value is 0 All traffic is sent through four egress queues.
Refer to the exhibit. You have just created a new VRF on PE3. You have enabled debug ip bgp vpnv4 unicast updates on PE1, and you can see the route in the debug, but not in the BGP VPNv4 table. Which two statements are true? (Choose two) After you configure route-target import 999:999 for a VRF on PE1, the route will be accepted VPNv4 is not configured between PE1 and PE3 address-family ipv4 vrf is not configured on PE3 PE1 will reject the route due to automatic route filtering After you configure route-target import 999:999 for a VRF on PE3, the route will be accepted.
Which two statements about HSRP are true? (Choose two) It supports unique virtual MAC addresses Its virtual MAC is 0000.0C07.ACxx Its default configuration allows for pre-emption It supports tracking Its multicast virtual MAC is 0000.5E00.01xx.
What function does vxlan perform in an SD-Access deployment? policy plane forwarding control plane forwarding data plane forwarding systems management and orchestration.
Which antenna type should be used for a site-to-site wireless connection? Omnidirectional dipole patch Yagi.
Refer to the exhibit. Edge-01 is currently operational as the HSRP primary with priority 110. Which command on Edge-02 causes it to take over the forwarding role when Edge-01 is down? standby 10 priority standby 10 preempt standby 10 track standby 10 timers.
What is the purpose of an RP in PIM? send join messages toward a multicast source SPT ensure the shortest path from the multicast source to the receiver. receive IGMP joins from multicast receivers. secure the communication channel between the multicast sender and receiver.
Which two statements about EIGRP load balancing are true? (Choose two) Cisco Express Forwarding is required to load-balance across interfaces A path can be used for load balancing only if it is a feasible successor EIGRP supports unequal-cost paths by default Any path in the EIGRP topology table can be used for unequal-cost load balancing EIGRP supports 6 unequal-cost paths.
What is the difference between CEF and process switching? CEF processes packets that are too complex for process switching to manage. CEF is more CPU-intensive than process switching. CEF uses the FIB and the adjacency table to make forwarding decisions, whereas process switching punts each packet. Process switching is faster than CEF.
Which QoS mechanism will prevent a decrease in TCP performance? Shaper Rate-Limit Policer Fair-Queue WRED LLQ.
Which IPv6 migration method relies on dynamic tunnels that use the 2002::/16 reserved address space? GRE 6RD 6to4 ISATAP.
What are three valid HSRP states? (Choose three) Init listen full learning speak established.
What are two reasons a company would choose a cloud deployment over an on-prem deployment? (Choose Two) In a cloud environment, the company controls technical issues. On-prem environments rely on the service provider to resolve a technical issue. Cloud costs adjust up or down depending on the amount of resources consumed. On- Prem costs for hardware, power, and space are ongoing regardless of usage Cloud deployments require long implementation times due to capital expenditure processes. OnPrem deployments can be accomplished quickly using operational expenditure processes. Cloud resources scale automatically to an increase in demand. On-prem requires additional capital expenditure. In a cloud environment, the company is in full control of access to their data. On-prem risks access to data due to service provider outages.
Which two security features are available when implementing NTP? (Choose two ) symmetric server passwords dock offset authentication broadcast association mode encrypted authentication mechanism access list-based restriction scheme.
How does SSO work with HSRP to minimize network disruptions? It enables HSRP to elect another switch in the group as the active HSRP switch. It ensures fast failover in the case of link failure. It enables data forwarding along known routes following a switchover, white the routing protocol reconverges. It enables HSRP to failover to the standby RP on the same device.
Which three methods does Cisco DNA Center use to discover devices? (Choose three) CDP SNMP LLDP ping NETCONF a specified range of IP addresses.
What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command? It enables BPDU messages It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded It immediately enables the port in the listening state.
Refer to the exhibit. Which command when applied to the Atlanta router reduces type 3 LSA flooding into the backbone area and summarizes the inter-area routes on the Dallas router? Atlanta(config-route)#area 0 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.248.0 Atlanta(config-route)#area 0 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0 Atlanta(config-route)#area 1 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0 Atlanta(config-route)#area 1 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.248.0.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the EEM applet configuration are true? (Choose two.) The EEM applet runs after the CLI command is executed The running configuration is displayed only if the letter Y is entered at the CLI The EEM applet runs before the CLI command is executed The EEM applet requires a case-insensitive response.
Refer to the exhibit. What does the error message relay to the administrator who is trying to configure a Cisco IOS device? A NETCONF request was made for a data model that does not exist. The device received a valid NETCONF request and serviced it without error. A NETCONF message with valid content based on the YANG data models was made, but the request failed. The NETCONF running datastore is currently locked.
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must establish eBGP peering between router R3 and router R4. Both routers should use their loopback interfaces as the BGP router ID. Which configuration set accomplishes this task? R3(config)#router bgp 200 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 remote-as 100 R3(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.3.3.3 R4(config)#router bgp 100 R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 remote-as 200 R4(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.4.4.4 R3(config)#router bgp 200 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.4.4.4 remote-as 100 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.4.4.4 update-source loopback0 R4(config)#router bgp 100 R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.3.3.3 remote-as 200 R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.3.3.3 update-source loopback0 R3(config)#router bgp 200 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 remote-as 100 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 update-source loopback0 R4(config)#router bgp 100 R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 remote-as 200 R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 update-source loopback0.
Which statement about dynamic GRE between a headend router and a remote router is true? The headend router learns the IP address of the remote end router statically A GRE tunnel without an IP address has a status of administratively down GRE tunnels can be established when the remote router has a dynamic IP address The remote router initiates the tunnel connection.
Which two statements about AAA authentication are true? (Choose two) RADIUS authentication queries the router’s local username database TACACS+ authentication uses an RSA server to authenticate users Local user names are case-insensitive Local authentication is maintained on the router KRB5 authentication disables user access when an incorrect password is entered.
Which action is performed by Link Management Protocol in a Cisco stackwise virtual domain? It discovers the stackwise domain and brings up SVL interfaces It rejects any unidirectional link traffic forwarding It determines if the hardware is compatible to form the stackwise virtual domain It determines which switch becomes active or standby.
An engineer must configure a ACL that permits packets which include an ACK In the TCP header. Which entry must be Included In the ACL? access-list 110 permit tcp any any eq 21 tcp-ack access-list 10 permit ip any any eq 21 tcp-ack access-list 10 permit tcp any any eq 21 established access-list 110 permit tcp any any eq 21 established.
In a Cisco SD-Access fabric, which control plane protocol is used for mapping and resolving endpoints? DHCP VXLAN SXP LISP.
Refer to the exhibit. The traceroute fails from R1 to R3. What is the cause of the failure? The loopback on R3 Is in a shutdown state. An ACL applied Inbound on loopback0 of R2 Is dropping the traffic. An ACL applied Inbound on fa0/1 of R3 is dropping the traffic. Redistribution of connected routes into OSPF is not configured.
In an SD-WAN deployment, which action in the vSmart controller responsible for? handle, maintain, and gather configuration and status for nodes within the SD-WAN fabric onboard vEdge nodes into the SD-WAN fabric gather telemetry data from vEdge routers distribute policies that govern data forwarding performed within the SD-WAN fabric.
Which deployment option of Cisco NGFW provides scalability? tap inline tap high availability clustering.
What is the function of the fabric control plane node In a Cisco SD-Access deployment? It is responsible for policy application and network segmentation in the fabric. It performs traffic encapsulation and security profiles enforcement in the fabric. It holds a comprehensive database that tracks endpoints and networks in the fabric. It provides Integration with legacy nonfabric-enabled environments.
What are two considerations when using SSO as a network redundancy feature? (Choose two) both supervisors must be configured separately the multicast state is preserved during switchover must be combined with NSF to support uninterrupted Layer 2 operations must be combined with NSF to support uninterrupted Layer 3 operations requires synchronization between supervisors in order to guarantee continuous connectivity.
Which action is performed by Link Management Protocol In a Cisco StackWise Virtual domain? it determines if the hardware Is compatible to form the StackWise Virtual domain. It determines which switch becomes active or standby. It discovers the StackWise domain and brings up SVL interfaces. It rejects any unidirectional link traffic forwarding.
Using the EIRP formula, what parameter is subtracted to determine the EIRP value? transmitter power antenna cable loss antenna gain signal-to-noise ratio.
What is the responsibility of a secondary WLC? It shares the traffic load of the LAPs with the primary controller. It avoids congestion on the primary controller by sharing the registration load on the LAPs It registers the LAPs if the primary controller fails. It enables Layer 2 and Layer 3 roaming between Itself and the primary controller.
Which two sources cause interference for Wi-Fi networks? (Choose two). mirrored wall 900MHz baby monitor fish tank DECT 6.0 cordless Incandesent lights.
How does the EIGRP metric differ from the OSPF metric? The EIGRP metric is calculated based on bandwidth only. The OSPF metric is calculated on delay only. The EIGRP metric is calculated based on delay only. The OSPF metric is calculated on bandwidth and delay. The EIGRP metric Is calculated based on bandwidth and delay. The OSPF metric is calculated on bandwidth only. The EIGRP metric Is calculated based on hop count and bandwidth. The OSPF metric is calculated on bandwidth and delay.
What are two differences between the RIB and the FIB? (Choose two.) The FIB is derived from the data plane, and the RIB is derived from the FIB. The RIB is a database of routing prefixes, and the FIB is the Information used to choose the egress interface for each packet. FIB is a database of routing prefixes, and the RIB is the information used to choose the egress interface for each packet. The FIB is derived from the control plane, and the RIB is derived from the FIB. The RIB is derived from the control plane, and the FIB is derived from the RIB.
What is the purpose of the LISP routing and addressing architecture? It creates two entries for each network node, one for Its identity and another for its location on the network. It allows LISP to be applied as a network visualization overlay though encapsulation. It allows multiple instances of a routing table to co-exist within the same router. It creates head-end replication used to deliver broadcast and multicast frames to the entire network.
Refer to the exhibit. Both controllers are in the same mobility group. Which result occurs when client 1 roams between APs that are registered to different controllers in the same WLAN? Client 1 contact controller B by using an EoIP tunnel CAPWAP tunnel is created between controller A and controller B. Client 1 users an EoIP tunnel to contact controller A. The client database entry moves from controller A to controller B.
Refer to the exhibit. After an engineer configures an EtherChannel between switch SW1 and switch SW2, this error message is logged on switch SW2. Based on the output from SW1 and the log message received on Switch SW2, what action should the engineer take to resolve this issue? Configure the same protocol on the EtherChannel on switch SW1 and SW2. Connect the configuration error on interface Gi0/1 on switch SW1. Define the correct port members on the EtherChannel on switch SW1. Correct the configuration error on interface Gi0/0 switch SW1.
Which element enables communication between guest VMs within a virtualized environment? hypervisor vSwitch virtual router pNIC.
Refer to the exhibit. What are two effects of this configuration? (Choose two.) R1 becomes the active router. R1 becomes the standby router. If R2 goes down, R1 becomes active but reverts to standby when R2 comes back online. If R1 goes down. R2 becomes active and remains the active device when R1 comes back online. If R1 goes down, R2 becomes active but reverts to standby when R1 comes back online.
Refer to the exhibit. These commands have been added to the configuration of a switch. Which command flags an error If It is added to this configuration? monitor session 1 source interface port-channel 6 monitor session 1 source vlan 10 monitor session 1 source interface FastEthernet0/1 rx monitor session 1 source interface port-channel 7, port-channel 8.
Which method does Cisco DNA Center use to allow management of non-Cisco devices through southbound protocols? It creates device packs through the use of an SDK It uses an API call to interrogate the devices and register the returned data. It obtains MIBs from each vendor that details the APIs available. It imports available APIs for the non-Cisco device in a CSV format.
Which entity is responsible for maintaining Layer 2 isolation between segments In a VXLAN environment? switch fabric VTEP VNID host switch.
Refer to the Exhibit. An engineer is installing a new pair of routers in a redundant configuration. When checking on the standby status of each router the engineer notices that the routers are not functioning as expected. Which action will resolve the configuration error? configure matching hold and delay timers configure matching key-strings configure matching priority values configure unique virtual IP addresses.
What reason could cause an OSPF neighborship to be in the EXSTART/EXCHANGE state? Mismatched OSPF network type Mismatched areas Mismatched MTU size Mismatched OSPF link costs.
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a SPAN session. What is the effect of the configuration? Traffic sent on VLANs 10, 11, and 12 is copied and sent to interface g0/1. Traffic sent on VLANs 10 and 12 only is copied and sent to interface g0/1. Traffic received on VLANs 10, 11, and 12 is copied and sent to Interface g0/1. Traffic received on VLANs 10 and 12 only is copied and sent to interface g0/1.
What is used to validate the authenticity of the client and is sent in HTTP requests as a JSON object? SSH HTTPS JVVT TLS.
Refer to the exhibit. What does the snippet of code achieve? It creates a temporary connection to a Cisco Nexus device and retrieves a token to be used for API calls. It opens a tunnel and encapsulates the login information if the host key is correct. It opens an ncclient connection to a Cisco Nexus device and maintains it for the duration of the context. It creates an SSH connection using the SSH key that is stored, and the password is ignored.
In a Cisco SD-Access wireless architecture, which device manages endpoint ID to Edge Node bindings? fabric control plane node fabric wireless controller fabric border node fabric edge node.
Refer to the exhibit. Which command set must be added to the configuration to analyze 50 packets out of every 100? sampler SAMPLER-1 mode random 1-out-of 2 flow FLOW-MONITOR-1 Interface GigabitEthernet 0/0/0 ip flow monitor SAMPLER-1 input sampler SAMPLER-1 no mode random 1-out-of 2 mode percent 50 interface GigabitEthernet 0/0/0 ip flow monitor FLOW-MONITOR-1 sampler SAMPLER-1 input interface GigabitEthernet 0/0/0 ip flow monitor FLOW-MONITOR-1 sampler SAMPLER-1 input flow monitor FLOW-MONITOR-1 record v4_r1 sampler SAMPLER-1 interface GigabitEthernet 0/0/0 ip flow monitor FLOW-MONITOR-1 sampler SAMPLER-1 input.
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must allow all users in the 10.2.2.0/24 subnet to access the Internet. To conserve address space, the public interface address of 209.165.201.1 must be used for all external communication. Which command set accomplishes these requirements? Option A Option B Option C Option D.
Refer to the exhibit. line vty 0 4 session-timeout 30 exec-timeout 120 0 session-limit 30 login local line vty 5 15 session-timeout 30 exec-timeout 30 0 session-limit 30 login local Only administrators from the subnet 10.10.10.0/24 are permitted to have access to the router. A secure protocol must be used for the remote access and management of the router instead of clear-text protocols. Which configuration achieves this goal? Option A Option B Option C Option D.
Which control plane protocol is used between Cisco SD-WAN routers and vSmart controllers? BGP OMP TCP UDP.
In a Cisco Catalyst switch equipped with two supervisor modules, an administrator must temporary remove the active supervisor from the chassis to perform hardware maintenance on it. Which mechanism ensures that the active supervisor removal is not disruptive to the network operation? NSF/NSR SSO HSRP VRRP.
Which router is elected the IGMP Querier when more than one router is in the same LAN segment? The router with the shortest uptime The router with the lowest IP address The router with the highest IP address The router with the longest uptime.
Refer to the exhibit. ip sla 10 icmp-echo 192.168.10.20 timeout 500 frequency 3 ip sla schedule 10 life forever start-time now track 10 ip sla 10 reachability The IP SLA is configured in a router. An engineer must configure an EEM applet to shut down the interface and bring it back up when there is a problem with the IP SLA. Which configuration should the engineer use? event manager applet EEM_IP_SLA event track 10 state down event manager applet EEM_IP_SLA event track 10 state unreachable event manager applet EEM_IP_SLA event sla 10 state unreachable event manager applet EEM_IP_SLA event sla 10 state down.
A network engineer is configuring Flexible NetFlow and enters these commands: Sampler Netflow1 mode random one-out-of 100 interface fastethernet 1/0 flow-sampler netflow1 Which are two results of implementing this feature instead of traditional NetFlow? (Choose two) Only the flows of top 100 talkers are exported CPU and memory utilization are reduced The data export flow is more secure The accuracy of the data to be analyzed is improved The number of packets to be analyzed are reduced .
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming all links are functional, which path does PC1 take to reach DSW1? PC1 goes from ALSW1 to DSW1 PC1 goes form ALSW1 to DSW2 to ALSW2 to DSW1 PC1 goes from ALSW1 to DSW2 to Core to DSW1 PC1 goes from ALSW1 to DSW2 to DSW1.
A customer has deployed an environment with shared storage to allow for the migration of virtual machines between servers with dedicated operating systems that provide the virtualization platform. What is this operating system described as? hosted virtualization type 1 hypervisor container oriented decoupled.
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration must be applied to the HQ router to set up a GRE tunnel between the HQ and BR routers? interface Tunnel1 ip address 10.111.111.1 255.255.255.0 tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/0 tunnel destination 209.165.202.133 interface Tunnel1 ip address 10.111.111.1 255.255.255.0 tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/0 tunnel destination 209.165.202.134 interface Tunnel1 ip address 209.165.202.129 255.255.255.252 tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/0 tunnel destination 209.165.202.129 interface Tunnel1 ip address 10.111.111.1 255.255.255.0 tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/0 tunnel destination 209.165.202.129.
Refer to the exhibit. A GRE tunnel has been created between HQ and BR routers. What is the tunnel IP on the HQ router? 10.111.111.1 10.111.111.2 209.165.202.130 209.165.202.134.
Why would a log file contain a * next to the date? The network device was receiving NTP time when the log messages were recorded The network device was unable to reach the NTP server when the log messages were recorded. The network device is not configured to use NTP The network device is not configured to use NTP time stamps for logging.
An engineer has deployed a single Cisco 5520 WLC with a management IP address of 172.16.50.5/24. The engineer must register 50 new Cisco AIR-CAP2802I-E-K9 access points to the WLC using DHCP option 43. The access points are connected to a switch in VLAN 100 that uses the 172.16.100.0/24 subnet. The engineer has configured the DHCP scope on the switch as follows: The access points are failing to join the wireless LAN controller. Which action resolves the issue? configure option 43 Hex F104.AC10.3205 configure option 43 Hex F104.CA10.3205 configure dns-server 172.16.50.5 configure dns-server 172.16.100.1.
Refer to the exhibit. Which password allows access to line con 0 for a username of “tommy” under normal operation? Cisco local 0 Cisco Tommy.
In OSPF, which LAS type is responsible for pointing to the ASBR router? type 1 type 2 type 3 type 4.
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration allows Customer2 hosts to access the FTP server of Customer1 that has the IP address of 192.168.1.200? ip route vrf Customer1 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1 global ip route vrf Customer 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.1 global ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan10 ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan20 ip route vrf Customer1 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1 Customer2 ip route vrf Customer 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.1 Customer1 ip route vrf Customer1 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1 Customer1 ip route vrf Customer 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.1 Customer2 ip route vrf Customer1 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.255 172.16.1.1 global ip route vrf Customer 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.1 global ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan10 ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan20.
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer entered the command no spanning-tree bpduguard enable on interface Fa 1/0/7. What is the effect of this command on Fa 1/0/7? It remains in the err-disabled state until the shutdown/no shutdown command is entered in the interface configuration mode. It remains in the err-disabled state until the errdisable recovery cause failed-port-state command is entered in the global configuration mode. It remains in the err-disabled state until the no shutdown command is entered in the interface configuration mode. It remains in the err-disabled state until the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard disable command is entered in the interface configuration mode.
Refer to the exhibit. On which interfaces should VRRP commands be applied to provide first hop redundancy to PC-01 and PC-02? G0/0 and G0/1 on Core G0/0 on Edge-01 and G0/0 on Edge-02 G0/1on Edge-01 and G0/1 on Edge-02 G0/0 and G0/1 on ASW-01.
Which protocol is responsible for data plane forwarding in a Cisco SD-Access deployment? VXLAN IS-IS OSPF LISP.
An engineer is configuring GigabitEthernet1/0/0 for VRRP. When the router has the highest priority In group 5, It must assume the master role. Which command set should the engineer add to the configuration to accomplish this task? vrrp 5 ip 172.16.13.254 vrrp 5 priority 100 wrong.
What is a benefit of using a Type 2 hypervisor instead of a Type 1 hypervisor? better application performance Improved security because the underlying OS is eliminated Improved density and scalability ability to operate on hardware that is running other OSs.
Refer to the exhibit. What is required to configure a second export destination for IP address 192.168.10.1? Specify a VRF. Specify a different UDP port. Specify a different flow ID Configure a version 5 flow-export to the same destination. Specify a different TCP port.
Refer to exhibit. What are two reasons for IP SLA tracking failure? (Choose two ) The destination must be 172.30 30 2 for icmp-echo The threshold value is wrong A route back to the R1 LAN network is missing in R2 The source-interface is configured incorrectly. The default route has the wrong next hop IP address.
A wireless consultant is designing a high-density wireless network for a lecture hall for 1000 students Which antenna type is recommended for this environment? sector antenna dipole antenna parabolic dish omnidirectional antenna.
Refer to the exhibit. Security policy requires all idle-exec sessions to be terminated in 600 seconds. Which configuration achieves this goal? line vty 0 15 absolute-timeout 600 line vty 0 15 exec-timeout line vty 0 15 exec-timeout 10 0 line vty 0 4 exec-timeout 600.
Refer to the exhibit. Which command must be applied to Router to bring the GRE tunnel to an up/up state? Router1(config)#interface tunnel0 Router1(config-if)#tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/1 Router1(config-if)#tunnel mode gre multipoint Router1(config-if)#tunnel source Loopback0.
Which QoS queuing method transmits packets out of the interface in the order the packets arrive? custom weighted- fair FIFO priority.
Refer to the exhibit. isco DNA Center has obtained the username of the client and the multiple devices that the client is using on the network. How is Cisco DNA Center getting these context details? The administrator had to assign the username to the IP address manually in the user database tool on Cisco DNA Center. Those details are provided to Cisco DNA Center by the Identity Services Engine Cisco DNA Center pulled those details directly from the edge node where the user connected. User entered those details in the Assurance app available on iOS and Android devices.
In a traditional 3 tier topology, an engineer must explicitly configure a switch as the root bridge and exclude it from any further election process for the spanning-tree domain. Which action accomplishes this task? Configure the spanning-tree priority to 32768 Configure root guard and portfast on all access switch ports. Configure BPDU guard in all switch-to-switch connections. Configure the spanning-tree priority equal to 0.
An engineer must configure HSRP group 300 on a Cisco IOS router. When the router is functional, it must be the active HSRP router The peer router has been configured using the default priority value. Which three commands are required? (Choose three.) standby 300 timers 1 110 standby 300 priority 90 standby 300 priority 110 standby version 2 standby 300 preempt standby version 1.
Which DHCP option provides the CAPWAP APs with the address of the wireless controller(s)? 43 66 69 150.
In a wireless Cisco SD-Access deployment, which roaming method is used when a user moves from one access point to another on a different access switch using a single WLC? Layer 3 inter-xTR auto anchor fast roam.
What is one fact about Cisco SD-Access wireless network deployments? The access point is part of the fabric underlay The WLC is part of the fabric underlay The access point is part of the fabric overlay The wireless client is part of the fabric overlay.
How does a fabric access point fit in the network? It is in local mode an must be connected directly to the fabric border node. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node. It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch.
Which level message does the WLC send to the syslog server? syslog level errors and less severity messages syslog level errors messages all syslog levels messages syslog level errors and greater severity messages.
What is the differences between TCAM and the MAC address table? The MAC address table is contained in CAM ACL and QoS information is stored in TCAM The MAC address table supports partial matches. TCAM requires an exact match Router prefix lookups happen in CAM. MAC address table lookups happen in TCAM. TCAM is used to make Layer 2 forwarding decisions CAM is used to build routing tables.
Which two southbound interfaces originate from Cisco DMA Center and terminate at fabric underlay switches? (Choose two) ICMP: Discovery UDP 67: DHCP TCP 23: Telnet UDP 6007: NetFlow UDP 162: SNMP.
What is the function of a control-plane node in a Cisco SD-Access solution? to run a mapping system that manages endpoint to network device relationships to implement policies and communicate with networks outside the fabric to connect external Layer 3 networks to the SD Access fabric. to connect APs and wireless endpoints to the SD-Access fabric.
After a redundant route processor failure occurs on a Layer 3 device, which mechanism allows for packets to be forwarded from a neighboring router based on the most recent tables? RPVST+ NSF BFD RP failover.
Which two results occur if Cisco DNA Center loses connectivity to devices in the SD-Access fabric? (Choose two ) All devices reload after detecting loss of connection to Cisco DNA Center Already connected users are unaffected, but new users cannot connect User connectivity is unaffected. Cisco DNA Center is unable to collect monitoring data in Assurance. Users lose connectivity.
Which measure is used by an NTP server to indicate its closeness to the authoritative time source? time zone hop count stratum latency.
What is a characteristic of a next-generation firewall? only required at the network perimeter required in each layer of the network filters traffic using Layer 3 and Layer 4 information only provides intrusion prevention.
Which two components are supported by LISP? (choose two ) proxy ETR egress tunnel router route reflector HMAC algorithm spoke.
A customer has recently implemented a new wireless infrastructure using WLC-5520S at a site directly next to a large commercial airport Users report that they intermittently lose Wi-Fi connectivity, and troubleshooting reveals it is due to frequent channel changes Which two actions fix this issue? (Choose two) Remove UNII-2 and Extended UNII-2 channels from the 5 GHz channel list Restore the OCA default settings because this automatically avoids channel interference Disable DFS channels to prevent interference with Doppler radar Enable DFS channels because they are immune to radar interference Configure channels on the UNII-2 and the Extended UNII-2 sub-bands of the 5 Ghz band only.
How does EIGRP differ from OSPF? EIGRP is more prone to routing loops than OSPF EIGRP has a full map of the topology, and OSPF only knows directly connected neighbors EIGRP supports equal or unequal path cost, and OSPF supports only equal path cost. EIGRP uses more CPU and memory than OSPF.
What is a characteristic of para-virtualization? Para-virtualization guest servers are unaware of one another Para-virtualization allows direct access between the guest OS and the hypervisor Para-virtualization allows the host hardware to be directly accessed Para-virtualization lacks support for containers.
Which solution do laaS service providers use to extend a Layer 2 segment across a Layer 3 network? VLAN VTEP VXLAN VRF.
A customer requests a network design that supports these requirements: * FHRP redundancy * multivendor router environment * IPv4 and IPv6 hosts Which protocol does the design include? GLBP VRRP version 2 VRRP version 3 HSRP version 2.
Which unit measures the power of a radio signal with reference to 1 milliwatt? dBw dBm mW dBi.
What is a characteristic of MACsec? 802.1AE provides encryption and authentication services 802.1AE is built between the host and switch using the MKA protocol, which negotiates encryption keys based on the master session key from a successful 802 1X session 802.1AE is built between the host and switch using the MKA protocol using keys generated via the Diffie-Hellman algorithm (anonymous encryption mode) 802.1AE is negotiated using Cisco AnyConnect NAM and the SAP protocol.
Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct QoS components on the right. Traffic Policing: + introduces no delay and jitter + drops excessive traffic + causes TCP retransmission when traffic is dropped Traffic Shaping: + buffers excessive traffic + introduces delay and jitter + typically delays, rather than drops traffic .
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the correct infrastructure deployment types on the right. On-Premises: + resources can be over or underutilized as requirements vary + customizable hardware, purpose-built systems + more suitable for companies with specific regulatory or security requirements Cloud: + easy to scale and upgrade + requires a strong and stable internet connection + built-in, automated data backups and recovery .
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the correct routing protocol types on the right. OSPF: + link-state routing protocol + makes it easy to segment the network logically + constructs three tables as part of its operation: neighbor table, topology table and routing table EIGRP: + supports unequal path load balancing + distance vector routing protocol + metric is based on delay and reliability by default (?) .
Drag and drop the LISP components from the left onto the function they perform on the right. Not all options are used. + accepts LISP encapsulated map requests: LISP map resolver + learns of EID prefix mapping entries from an ETR: LISP map server + receives traffic from LISP sites and sends it to non-LISP sites: LISP proxy ETR + receives packets from site-facing interfaces: LISP ITR .
Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the routing protocol they describe on the right. OSPF: + uses areas to segment a network + summarizes can be created in specific parts of the IGP topology EIGRP: + summaries can be created anywhere in the IGP topology + DUAL algorithm .
Drag and drop the threat defence solutions from the left onto their descriptions on the right. Answer: + StealWatch: performs security analytics by collecting network flows + ESA: protects against email threat vector + AMP4E: provides malware protection on endpoints + Umbrella: provides DNS protection + FTD: provides IPS/IDS capabilities .
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right. OSPF + Link State Protocol + supports only equal multipath load balancing + quickly computes new path upon link failure EIGRP + selects routes using the DUAL algorithm + maintains alternative loop-free backup path if available + Advanced Distance Vector Protocol .
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the infrastructure types on the right. On-Premises Infrastructure: + slow upgrade lifecycle + high capital expenditure + enterprise owns the hardware Cloud-Hosted Infrastructure: + low capital expenditure + provider maintains the infrastructure + fast upgrade lifecycle .
Drag and drop the REST API authentication method from the left to the description on the right. HTTP basic authentication: username and password in an encoded string token-based authentication: authorization through an identity provider secure vault: public API resource OAuth : API-dependent secret .
Drag and drop the DHCP messages that are exchanged between a client and an AP into the order they are exchanged on the right. + Step 1: DHCP Discover + Step 2: DHCP Offer + Step 3: DHCP Request + Step 4: DHCP ACK .
Drag and drop the QoS mechanisms from the left to the correct descriptions on the right. + bandwidth management technique which delays datagrams: shaping + mechanism to create a scheduler for packets prior to forwarding: policy-map + portion of the IP header used to classify packets: DSCP + mechanism to apply a QoS policy to an interface: service policy + tool to enforce rate-limiting on ingress/egress: policing + portion of the 802.1Q header used to classify packets: CoS .
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left to the correct Infrastructure deployment type on the right. On-premises: – significant initial investment but lower reoccurring costs – company has control over the physical security of equipment Cloud: – pay-as-you-go model – physical location of data can be defined in the contract with a provider – very scalable and fast delivery of changes in scale .
Drag and drop the LIPS components on the left to the correct description on the right. + IPv4 or IPv6 address of an endpoint within a LISP site: EID + network infrastructure component that learns of EID-prefix mapping entries from an ETR: map server + de-encapsulates LISP packets coming from outside of the LISP site to destinations inside of the site: ETR .
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