The paper currency issued by the central Bank, which forms part of the country’s money supply. Bank note Check T-bills Coupon.
Reduction in the level of national income and output usually accompanied by the fall in the general price level. Deflation Depreciation Devaluation Inflation.
It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time Annuity Deposit Dept Amortization.
The place where buyers and sellers come together. Market Business Recreation center Buy and sell section.
A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there are no goods substitute Monopsony Oligopsony Oligopoly Monopoly.
It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time where the first payment is made after several periods, after the beginning of the payment Deferred annuity Annuity due Perpetuity Ordinary annuity.
The total income equals the total operating cost Break even – no gain no loss Balanced sheet Check and balance In-place value.
Kind of obligation which has no condition attached. Private Gratuitous Pure Analytic.
Direct labor costs incurred in the factory and direct material costs are the costs of all materials that go into production. The sum of these two direct costs is known as: GS and A expenses Prime cost O and M costs Operating and maintenance costs.
An index of short term paying ability is called: Acid-test ratio Current ratio Profit margin ratio Receivable turn-over.
Artificial expenses that spread the purchase price of an asset or another property over a number of years. Depreciation Sinking fund Amnesty Bond.
The estimated value at the end of the useful life. Salvage value Book value Fair value Market value.
Consists of the actual counting or determination of the actual quantity of the materials on hand as of a given date. Physical inventory Material update Material count Technological assessment.
Additional information of prospective bidders on contract documents issued prior to bidding date. Delict Technological assessment Escalatory Bid bulletin.
A series of uniform accounts over an infinite period of time. Depreciation Perpetuity Inflation Annuity.
The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given place and time. Demand Supply Stocks Goods.
Work-in process is classified as a liability an expenses An owner’s equity an asset.
What is the highest position in the corporation? Chairman of the Board Board of Directors Stockholders President.
Type of ownership in business where individuals exercise and enjoy the right in their own interest. Equitable Private Pure Public.
Decrease in the value of a physical property due to the passage of time. Inflation Recession Depreciation Depletion.
An association of two or more individuals for the purpose of operating a business as co-owners for profit. Sole proprietorship Corporation Partnership Company.
We may classify an interest rate, which specifies the actual rate of interest on the principal for one year as: Nominal rate Rate of return Exact interest rate Effective rate.
It is the basic annual rate of interest Nominal rate Rate of return Exact interest rate Effective rate.
It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want. Discount Luxury Utility Necessity.
It is the amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for a property where each has equal advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell. Fair value Market value Book value Salvage value.
This occurs in a situation where a commodity or service is supplied by a number of vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market. Perfect competition Oligopoly Elastic demand Monopoly.
These are products or services that are desired by human and will be purchased if money is available after the required necessities have been obtained. Utilities Necessities Products, goods and services Luxuries.
These are products or services that are required to support human life and activities, that will be purchased in somewhat the same quantity even though the price varies considerably. Luxuries Utilities Necessities Products, goods and services.
A condition where only few individuals produce a certain product and that any action of one will lead to almost the same action of the others. Monopoly Oligopoly Semi-monopoly Perfect competition.
Grand total of the assets and operational capability of a corporation. Investment Authorized capital Money market Subscribed capital.
The worth of the property equals to the original cost less depreciation. Scrap value Book value Market value Face value.
Money paid for the use of borrowed capital. Credit Discount Profit Interest.
Liquid assets such as cash, and other assets that can be converted quickly into cash, such as accounts receivable and merchandise are called: Total assets Current assets None of these Fixed assets.
The length of time which the property may be considered at a profit. Physical life All of these Operating life Economic life.
The provision in the contract that indicates the possible adjustment of material cost and labor cost. Escalatory clause Main clause Contingency clause Secondary cause.
The present worth of all depreciation over the economic life of the item is called Capital recovery Book value Sinking fund Depreciation recovery.
Gross profit, sales less cost of goods sold, as a percentage of sales is called: Profit margin Gross margin Rate of return Net income.
Worth of the property as shown in the accounting records of an enterprise. Fair value Book value Salvage value Market value.
Those funds that are required to make the enterprise or project a going concern. Initial investment Current accounts Working capital Subscribed capital.
A market situation where there is only one seller with many buyer. Monopoly Monopsony Oligopsony Oligopoly.
A market situation where there are few sellers and few buyers Bilateral oligopsony Oligopoly Oligopsony Bilateral oligopoly.
A market situation where there is one seller and one buyer. Monopoly Bilateral monopoly Bilateral monopsony Monopsony.
A market situation where there are only two buyers with many sellers. Oligopoly Duopoly Oligopsony Duopsony.
A market situation where there are only two sellers with many buyers. Oligopoly Duopoly Oligopsony Duopsony.
A market situation where there is only one buyer with many sellers. Oligopoly Monopsony Oligopsony Bilateral Monopoly.
a state of the market in which only a small number of buyers exists for a product. Bilateral oligopoly Oligopoly Semi-monopoly Oligopsony.
The cumulative effect of elapsed time on the money value of an event, based on the earning power of equivalent invested funds capital should or will learn Present worth factor Time value of money Yield Interest rate.
Defined as the future value minus the present value. Interest Rate of return Capital Discount.
The flow back of profit plus depreciation from a given project is called: Capital recovery Earning value Economic return Cash flow.
The profit derived from a project or business enterprise without consideration of obligations to financial contributors or claims of other based on profit. Yield Expected yield Economic return Earning value.
The profit derived from a project or business enterprise without consideration of obligations to financial contributors or claims of other based on profit. Economic return Yield Earning value Expected yield.
The payment for the use of borrowed money is called: Loan Interest Principal Maturity value.
The interest rate at which the present work of the cash flow on a project is zero of the interest earned by an investment. Effective rate Nominal rate Rate of return Yield.
The ratio of the interest payment to the principal for a given unit of time and usually expressed as a percentage of the principal. All of these Investment Interest Interest rate.
The true value of interest rate computed by equations for compound interest for a 1 year period is known as: Expected return Effective interest Nominal interest Interest
.
The intangible item of value from the exclusive right of a company to provide a specific product or service in a stated region of the country. Franchise value Goodwill value Book value Market value.
The recorded current value of an asset is known as: Scrap value Present worth Book value Salvage value.
It is the amount you paid for an asset minus depreciation, or an asset's reduced value due to time. Scrap value Present worth Book value Salvage value.
Scrap value of an asset is sometimes known as: Salvage value Book value Replacement value Future value.
What is sometimes called second-hand value? Scrap value Salvage value Book value Going value.
An intangible value which is actually operating concern has due to its operation. Fair value Book value Going value Goodwill value.
The value which a disinterested third party, different from the buyer and seller, will determine in order to establish a price acceptable to both parties. Goodwill value Market value Franchise value Fair value.
A type of annuity where the payments are made at the end of each payment period starting from the first period. Perpetuity Ordinary annuity Annuity due Deferred annuity.
It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal intervals of time where the first payment is made after several periods, after the beginning of the payment. Deferred annuity Simple annuity Progressive annuity Delayed annuity.
A type of annuity where the payments are made at the start of each period, beginning from the first period. Annuity due Ordinary annuity Perpetuity Deferred annuity.
Which is NOT an essential element of an ordinary annuity? The amounts of all payments are equal. The payments are made at equal interval of time. Compound interest is paid on all amounts in the annuity. The first payment is made at the beginning of each period.
A is a periodic payment and I is the interest rate, then present worth of a perpetuity = Ai Ain An/i A/i.
A mathematical expression also known as the present value of an annuity of 1 is called Load factor Present worth factor Sinking fund factor Demand factor.
As applied to a capitalized asset, the distribution of the initial cost by a periodic changes to operation as in depreciation or the reduction of a debt by either periodic or irregular prearranged program is called Annuity Capital recovery Annuity factor Amortization.
The reduction of the value of an asset due to constant use and passage of time. Scrap value Depreciation Book value Depletion.
A method of computing depreciation in which the annual charge is a fixed percentage of the depreciated book value at the beginning of the year which the depreciation applies. Sinking fund method Straight line method Declining balance method SYD method.
A method of depreciation whereby the amount to recover is spread uniformly over the estimated life of the asset in terms of the periods or units of output. Straight line method SYD method Declining balance method Sinking fund method.
Which of the following depreciation methods cannot have a salvage value of zero? Straight line method SYD method Declining balance method Sinking fund method.
A method of depreciation where a fixed sum of money is regularly deposited at compound interest in a real or imaginary fund in order to accumulate an amount equal to the total depreciation of an asset at the end of the asset’s estimated life. Straight line method SYD method Declining balance method Sinking fund method.
The function of interest rate and time that determines the cumulative amount of a sinking fund resulting from specific periodic deposits Sinking fund factor Demand factor Capacity factor Present worth factor.
The first cost of any property includes: The original purchase price and freight and transportation charges All of these Initial taxes and permits fee Installation expenses.
In SYD method, the sum of years digit is calculated using which formula with n = number of useful years of the equipment. n(n – 1)/2 n(n + 1)/2 n(n+1) n(n-1).
Capitalized cost of any property is equal to the: Annual cost First cost + Interest of the first cost First cost + Cost of perpetual maintenance First cost + Salvage value.
The lessening of the value of an asset due to the decrease in the quantity available (referring to the natural resources, coal, oil, etc). Depreciation Depletion Incremental cost Inflation.
Is the simplest form of business organization. Sole proprietorship Corporation Enterprise Partnership.
An association of two or more persons for a purpose of engaging in a profitable business. Sole proprietorship Corporation Enterprise Partnership.
A distinct legal entity which can practically transact any business transaction which a real person could do. Sole proprietorship Corporation Enterprise Partnership.
Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization? Sole proprietorship Corporation Enterprise Partnership.
Which is NOT a type of business organization? Sole proprietorship Corporation Enterprise Partnership.
What is the minimum number of incorporators in order that a corporation be organized? 3 5 7 70.
In case of bankruptcy of a partnership, The partners are not liable for the liabilities of the partnership The partnership assets (excluding the partners’ personal assets) only will be used to pay the liabilities. The partners’ personal assets are attached to the debt of the partnership The partners may sell stock to generate additional capital.
The method of depreciation where fixed sum of money is regularly deposited at compound interest in a real or imaginary fund in order to accumulate an amount equal to the total depreciation of an asset at the end of the asset’s estimated life is known as; straight line method Sinking fund method Declining balance method SYD method.
The term used to express the series of uniform payments occurring at equal interval of time is; annuity compound interest depreciation perpetuity.
The profit derived from a project or business enterprise without consideration of obligations to financial contributors and claims of others based on profit is known as; yield earning value expected yield economic return.
As applied to capitalized asset, the distribution of the initial cost by periodic changes to operation as in depreciation or the reduction of the depth by either periodic or irregular prearranged program is called amortization capital recovery depreciation annuity.
Those funds that are required to make the enterprise or project going on. banking accumulated amount principal or present worth working capital.
These are product or services that are required to support human life and activities, that will be purchased in somewhat the same quantity even though the price varies considerably. necessities producers goods and services luxuries utilities.
These are product or services that are desired by humans and will be purchased if money is available after the required necessities have been obtained necessities producers goods and services luxuries utilities.
A condition where only a few individuals produce a certain product and that any action of one will lead to almost the same action of the others. semi-monopoly oligopoly perfect competition monopoly.
It is the amount that a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for a property where each has equal advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell. fair value use value market value book value.
It is defined to be the quality in goods to satisfy human wants. discount necessity utility luxuries.
A form a summary of assets, liabilities and net worth; balance method production balance sheet break-even point.
The worth of a property, which is equal to the original cost less depreciation, is known as; earning value face value book value scrap value.
What refers to a document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security? Bond Coupon Bank note Check.
What type of bond is issued jointly by two or more corporations? Mortgage bond Joint bond Trust bond Tie-up bond.
What type of bond whose guaranty is in lien on railroad equipment, such as freight and passenger cars, locomotives, etc.? Railroad bond Equipment trust bond Equipment bond Equipment obligation bond.
A type of bond to which are attached coupons indicating the interest due and the date when such interest is to be paid is called ______. Registered bond Collateral trust bond Mortgage bond Coupon bond.
What bond whose security is a mortgage on certain specified assets of the corporation? Collateral trust bond Registered bond Debenture bond Mortgage bond.
A bond without any security behind them except a promise to pay by the issuing corporation is called ______. Joint bond Common bond Trust bond Debenture bond.
A type of bond where the corporation pledges securities which it owns such as the stock or bonds of one of its subsidiaries. Mortgage bond Collateral trust bond Security bond Joint bond.
What type of bond where the corporation’s owner name are recorded and the interest is paid periodically to the owners with their asking for it? Preferred bond Callable bond Incorporators bond Registered bond.
Salvage value is sometimes known as ______. Second-hand value Scrap value Junk value Going value.
Which is true about partnership? It will be dissolved if one of the partners ceases to be connected with the partnership. Its capitalization must be equal for each partner. It has a perpetual life. It can be handed down from one generation of partners to another.
In case of bankruptcy of a partnership, The partners are not liable for the liabilities of the partnership The partners nay sell stock to generate additional capital The partners personal assets are attached to the debt of the partnership The partnership assets (excluding the partners personal assets) only will be used to pay the liabilities.
Is an artificial being created by operation of law, having the right of succession and the process, attributes and properties expressly authorized by the law or incident to its existence. Property Corporation Organization Partnership.
A form of business organization in which a person conducts his business alone and entirely for his own profit, being solely responsible for all its activities and liabilities. Entrepreneurship Sole proprietorship Corporation Partnership.
If the security of the bond is a mortgage on certain specified asset of a corporation, this bond is classified as Joint bond Registered bond Mortgage bond Coupon bond.
A type of bond where the corporation’s owners name are recorded and the interest is paid periodically to the owners with their asking for it. Registered bond Preferred bond Incorporators bond All of these.
Bond to which are attached coupons indicating the interest due and the date when such interest is to be paid. Registered bond Coupon bond Mortgage bond Collateral trust bond.
An amount of money invested at 12% interest per annum will double in approximately 4 years 5 years 6 years 7 years.
The 72 rule is used to determine How many years to quadruple the money How many years to amass 1 million How many years money will double How many years money will triple.
To triple the principal one must use Integration Derivatives Logarithms Implicit functions.
A currency traded in a foreign exchange market to which the demand is consistently high in relation to its supply. Money market Hard currency Treasury bill Certificated of deposit.
Everything a company owns to which has a money value is classified as an asset. Which of the following is classified as an asset? Intangible asset All of these Trade investments Fixed asset.
Which of the example of an intangible asset? Cash Investment in subsidiary companies Furnitures Patents.
Land buildings, plants and machinery are examples of Current assets Trade investments Fixed assets Intangible assets.
An increase in the value of a capital asset is called Profit Capital gain Capital expenditure Capital stock.
The reduction in the money value of a capital asset is called Capital expenditure Deficit Loss Capital loss.
It is negotiable claim issued by bank in lieu of a team deposit. Time deposit Bond Capital gain Certificate of deposit.
Any particular raw materials or primary product (e.g. cloth, wool, flour, coffee..) is called Utility Necessity Commodity Stock.
If denotes the fall in the exchange rate of one currency in terms of others. The term usually applies to floating exchange rates. Currency appreciation Currency devaluation Currency float Currency depreciation.
The deliberate lowering of the price of a nation’s currency in terms of the accepted standard (Gold, American dollar or the British pound). Currency appreciation Currency float Currency devaluation Currency depreciation.
The residual value of a company’s assets after all outside liabilities (shareholders excluded) have been allowed for. Divided Par value Return Equity.
A saving which takes place because goods are not available for consumption rather than the consumer really want to save. Compulsory saving Consumer saving Forced saving All of these.
A document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security. Bond Bank note Coupon Check.
It is the profit obtained by selling stocks at a higher price than its original purchase price. Debenture Goodwill Capital gain Internal rate of return.
The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given time and place. Demand Supply Utility Market.
The quantity of a certain commodity that is bought at a certain price at a given time and place. Demand Utility Market Supply.
When free competition exists, the price of a product will be that value where supply is equal to the demand Law of diminishing return Law of supply and demand Law of demand Law of supply.
“When one of the factors of production is fixed in quantity or is difficult to increase, increasing the others factors of production will result in a less than proportionate increase in output.” Law of diminishing return Law of supply Law of demand Law of supply and demand.
An accounting term that represents an inventory account adjustments. Cost of goods sold Variance Overhead Payback.
The simplest economic order quantity (EOQ) model is based on which of the following assumptions. Shortages are not allowed. Demand is constant with respect to time. Reordering is instantaneous. The time between order placement and receipt is zero. All of the choices.
In economics, a “short – term” transaction usually has a lifetime of 3 months or less 1 year or less 5 years or less 10 years or less.
In the cash flow, expenses incurred before time = 0 is called Receipts Disbursements Sunk costs Firsts costs.
An imaginary cost representing what will not be received if a particular strategy is rejected. Sunk cost Opportunity cost Replacement cost Initial cost.
In replacement studies, the existing process or piece of equipment is known as Challenger Defender Liability Asset.
In replacement studies, the new process or piece of equipment being considered for purchase is known as. Challenger Defender Liability Asset.
_______ means that the cost of the asset is divided into equal or unequal parts, and only one of these parts is taken as an expense each year. Capitalizing the asset Expensing the asset Depreciating the asset Artificial expense.
Indicate the CORRECT statement about depreciation. The depreciation is not the same each year in straight line method. The declining balance method can be used even if the salvage value is zero. The sum-of-years’ digit method (SYD), the digits 1 to (n + 1) is summed. Double declining balance depreciation is independent of the salvage value.
An artificial deductible operating expense designated to compensate mining organizations for decreasing mineral reserves. Deflation Reflation Depletion Inflation.
The change in cost per unit variable change is known as Sunk cost Incremental cost Fixed cost Semi-variable cost.
What type of cost increases step-wise? Supervision cost Direct labor cost Semi-variable cost Operating and maintenance cost.
Which of the following is NOT a variable cost? Payroll benefit costs Insurance costs Income taxes Cost of miscellaneous supplies.
Which of the following is Not a fixed cost? Rent Depreciation expenses Supervision costs Janitorial service expenses.
The annual costs that are incurred due to the functioning of a piece of equipment is known as General, selling and administrative expenses Prime cost Operating and maintenance costs Total cost.
The sum of the direct labor cost and the direct material cost is known as Prime cost All of the above Total cost Indirect manufacturing expenses.
Research and development costs and administrative expenses are added to the factory cost to give the _______ of the product. Total cost Marketing cost Manufacturing cost Prime cost.
The sum of the prime cost and the indirect manufacturing cost is known Total cost Factory cost Manufacturing cost Research and development cost.
Which of the following is NOT a direct labor expense? Inspection Testing Supervision Assembly.
All are administrative expenses EXCEPT: Marketing Accounting Data processing Office supplies.
One of the following is NOT a selling or marketing expense. Which one? Advertising Commission Insurance Transportation.
Research and development expenses includes all EXCEPT one. Which one? Laboratory Testing Drafting Prototype.
Which is not a factory overhead expense? Expediting Testing Quality control and inspection Pension, medical, vacation benefits.
Bookkeeping consists of two steps, namely recording the transactions and categorization of transactions. Where are the transactions (receipts and disbursements) recorded? Journal Columnar Statement of account Ledger.
The following are ledger accounts EXCEPT: Asset accounts Bank accounts Liability accounts Owner’s equity accounts.
The journal and the ledger together are known simply as ______ of the company accounting system balance sheet bookkeeping system the books.
The basic accounting equation is Assets = Liability + Owner’s equity Liability = Assets + Owner’s equity Owner’s equity = Assets + Liability Owner’s equity = Liability – Assets.
The ability to convert assets to cash quickly is known as insolvency leverage liquidity solvency.
The ability to meet debts as they become due is known as insolvency leverage liquidity solvency.
What is considered as an index of short-term paying ability? Current ratio Acid test ratio Return of investment Gross margin.
An acid test ratio is a ratio of quick assets to current liabilities gross profit to net ratio net income before taxes to net sales net income to owner’s equity.
The ratio of the net income to the owner’s equity is known as gross margin price-earning ratio profit margin ratio return of investment.
Payback period is the ratio of net income before taxes to net sale cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand gross profit to net sales initial investment to net annual profit.
A secondary book of accounts, the information of which is obtained from the journal Balance sheet Ledger Trial balance Worksheet.
The present worth of cost associated with an asset for an infinite period of time is referred to as annual cost capitalized cost increment cost operating cost.
A stock of a product which is held by a trade or government as a means of regulating the price of that product Buffer stock Hoard stock Stock pile Withheld stock.
A negotiable claim issued by a bank in lieu of a term deposit is called Certificate of deposit T-bills Currency Cheque.
A form of business firm which is owned and run by a group of individuals for their mutual benefit Cooperative Corporation Enterprise Partnership.
A document which shows the legal ownership of financial security and entitled to payments thereon Bond Consol Contract Coupon.
A government bond which have an indefinite life rather than a specific maturity Debenture T-bill Coupon Consol.
Refers to the order quantity that minimizes the inventory cost per unit time. Economic order quantity Social order quantity Public order quantity Private order quantity.
What is referred to as an individual who organizes factors of production to undertake a venture with a view to profit? Agent Commissioner Entrepreneur Salesman.
The money that is inactive and does not contribute to productive effort in an economy is know as frozen asset hard money idle money soft money.
In counting the number of days when computing simple interest, The first day is included The last day is excluded The first day is included and the last day is excluded The first day is excluded and the last day is included.
In the so-called “Banker’s Rule”, The number of days in 1 year is 360 days The number of days in 1 year is 365 days The number of days in each month is 30 days The number of days in 1 year is 366 days.
To discount an amount F for n conversion periods means To find the present value on a day which is n periods after F is due To find the present value on a day which is n periods before F is due To find the present value on a day which is (n-1) periods before F is due To find the present value on a day which is (n+1) periods before F is due.
In the formula for compound interest, F= P(1+i)^n, the value (1+i)^n is called ____. Discount factor Interest factor Accumulation factor Increase factor.
To find the present worth of a future amount in compound interest, we use the formula P=F(1+i)^-n. What do you call the factor (1+i)^-n? Reduction factor Interest factor Accumulation factor Discount.
What refers to an equation stating that the sum of the values, on a certain comparison date, of one set of obligations is equal to the sum of the value of another set of this date? Equality of value Equation of value Equality equation Similarity equation.
What is an annuity whose payments extend over a period of time whose length cannot be foretold accurately? Annuity certain Annuity uncertain Incremental annuity Contingent annuity.
What do you call the time between successive payment dates of an annuity? Period interval Annuity period Payment interval Annuity term.
The time from the beginning of the first payment interval to the need of the last one is called the _____ of the annuity. Period Term Nature Type.
What refers to the extinction of the debt by any satisfactory set of payments? Liquidation Liability discharge Discharging debt Amortization of debt.
What do you call a fund, usually by periodic deposits, to insure the accumulation of money to provide for possible large payments? Escrow fund Sinking fund Mutual fund Corporate fund.
What is the term for the borrowed principal usually mentioned in a typical bond? Bond rate Face value Coupon rate Coupon value.
Any date on which a coupon of a bond becomes due will be referred to as a _____. Maturity date Term of the bond Coupon date Due date.
If P is the price of a bond and V is its redemption value, what do you call the value P-V? Par value Face value Premium Bond discount.
When can we say that the bond is purchased at a discount? When the price of the bond is greater than the redemption value. When the price of the bond is less than the redemption value. When the price of the bond is equal than the redemption value. When the price of the bond is either equal to or greater than the redemption value.
When can we say that the bond is purchased at a premium? When the price of the bond is greater than the redemption value. When the price of the bond is less than the redemption value. When the price of the bond is equal than the redemption value. When the price of the bond is either equal to or greater than the redemption value.
Which of the following will happen if bond is bought at a discount? Each coupon payment is too small to pay all interest due on the investor’s principal. Each coupon payment is greater than the interest due on the investor’s principal. The unpaid interest on each coupon date will not be considered as a new investment in the bond. The difference between the coupon payment and the interest due is a partial repayment of principal.
In the sale of a bond, the actual purchase price on any day is called ____. Face value Quoted price Accrued price Flat price.
The quoted price of a bond is sometimes called _______. Par value Face value An-interest price Coupon price.
The yield of a bond is obtained by which of the following: It is the ratio of the average investment over the average annual interest It is the ratio of the average annual interest over the average investment It is the ratio of par value over flat value It is the ratio of flat value over par value.
What is a bond whose face value is redeemable in installments, with interest payable periodically as due on outstanding principal? Annuity bond Serial bond Treasury bond Government bond.
What is the term for the sum of depreciation charges to date? Accrued depreciation Applied depreciation Accumulated depreciation All of the above.
The difference between the value of an asset and its salvage or scrap value at the end of the year is called ____. Depreciation Accrued value Book value Wearing value.
What is a life annuity? A sequence of payment for a certain person which stops when person dies. A sequence of payment intended for a life insurance of a person. A sequence of payment for a certain person which continues indefinitely. It is the same as perpetuity.
What term is usually used by the banks to represent the effective interest rate per period? Net rate Yield Nominal rate Fixed rate.
The percentage of each peso of sales that is net income is called ______. Price-earning ratio Profit margin Profit margin ratio Return of investment ratio.
The book value per share of common stock is the ratio of the common shareholders’ equity to ______ Average shared Number of outstanding shares Total subscribed shared Authorized capital stock.
What refers to the price at which the quantity demanded of a good is exactly equal to the quantity supplied? Equilibrium market price Fair market price Real market price Exact market price.
A principle that states that consumers will tend to spend an increasing proportion of any additional income upon luxury goods and a smaller proportional on staple goods, so that a rise in income will lower the overall share of consumer expenditures spent on stable goods (such as basic foodstuffs)and increase the share of consumer expenditures on luxury goods (such as motor cars). Placibo effect Luxury effect Engel’s law Staple law.
What is the disciple within economics that attempts to measure and estimate statistically the relationship between two or more economic variables? Theory of values Econometrics Economatics Econoscience.
What refers to the fall in the general price level, frequently accompanied by a reduction in the level of national income? Inflationary gap Dissavings Disinflation Inflation.
A price for a product just covers its production and distribution costs with no profit margin added. Cost price Actual price Real price Original price.
A market where new entrants face cost similar to those of established firms and where, on leaving, firms are able to recoup their capital costs, less depreciation. Free market Competitive market Limited market Contestable market.
What refers to a temporary grouping of independent firms, organization and governments, brought together to pool their resources and skills in order to undertake a particular project? Consortium Cartel Cooperative Union.
What refers to a market for buying and selling of raw materials such as tea, coffee, iron ore, etc.? Commodity market Raw market Natural market National market.
It is a series of equal payments occurring at the equal interval of time where the first payment is made after several periods, after the beginning of the payment Perpetuity Ordinary Annuity Annuity due Deferred annuity.
The total income equals the total operating cost. Balance sheet In-place value Check and balance Break even-no gain no loss.
R.A. 776 was approved on _____. June 20, 1952 June 11, 1978 July 15, 2003 March 4, 2008.
The title of R.A. 776 shall be “_____.” The Civil Aviation Act of the Philippines The Civil Aeronautics Act of the Philippines The Civil Aviation Authority Act of the Philippines The Civil Aeronautics Authority Act of the Philippines.
Those that ensure just and reasonable return on the capital invested, taking into consideration the cost of construction, operation, and maintenance and nonaeronautical revenue of the air navigation facility affected, which shall be uniform. Landing fees Reasonable charges Royalties Terminal fees.
Any locality either on water or on land, which is adapted for landing and taking-off of aircraft located along an airway and is intermediate to airports connected by the airway, whether or not facilities are provided for the shelter, servicing, or repair of aircraft, or for receiving or discharging passengers or cargo. Aerodrome Airport Landing field Ramp.
Any person, who does not directly operate an aircraft for the purpose of engaging in air transportation or air commerce and not bonafide employee of an air carrier, who as principal or agent, sells or offers for sale any air transportation of cargo, or negotiates for, or holds himself out of solicitation, advertisement, or otherwise as one who sells, provides, furnished, contracts or arranges for such air transportation of cargo. General sales agent Cargo sales agent Airfreight forwarder Air carrier.
Any indirect air carrier which, in the ordinary and usual course of its undertaking, assembles and consolidates or provides for assembling and consolidating such property or performs or provides for the performance of breakbulk and distributing operations with respect to consolidated shipments, and is responsible for the transportation of property from the point of receipt to point of destination and utilizes for the whole or any part of such transportation the services of a direct air carrier. General sales agent Cargo sales agent Airfreight forwarder Air carrier.
A person who undertakes, whether directly or indirectly, or by a lease of any other arrangements, to engage in air transportation or air commerce. General sales agent Cargo sales agent Airfreight forwarder Air carrier.
A person not a bonafide employee of an air carrier, who pursuant to an authority from an airline, by itself or through an agent, sells or offers for sale any air transportation, or negotiates for, or holds himself out by solicitation, advertisement or otherwise as one who sells, provides, furnishes, contracts, or arranges for, such air transportation. General sales agent Cargo sales agent Airfreight forwarder Air carrier.
The Civil Aeronautics Board is composed of how many members? 2 3 5 7.
Which is true regarding the composition and assumption of office of the CAB members? No member of the Board shall have any pecuniary interest in, or own any stock or bond of, any civil aeronautics enterprise. The Commanding General of the Philippine Air Force is one of the members of the Board. The Secretary of National Defense or his designated representative will be the Chairman. The Assistant Secretary for Air Transportation of the Department of Transportation and Communications will act as the Vice-Chairman.
In R.A. 776, what is the minimum number of present board members to constitute a quorum? 2 3 4 5.
The power to regulate the economic aspect of air transportation and general supervision and regulation of air carriers, general sales agents, cargo sales agents, and airfreight forwarders as well as their property, property rights, equipment, facilities, and franchise rest on the _____. Civil Aeronautics Administration Civil Aeronautics Board Department of National Defense Department of Transportation and Communications.
Under what section of the R.A. 776 are the powers and duties of the Board enumerated? 10 11 25 32.
Section 11 of R.A. 776 is the permit issued by the Board that authorizes a person to engage in air commerce and/or transportation, foreign and/or domestic. Certificate of Registration Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity Certificate of Commerce Certificate of Acknowledgement.
Section 24 of R.A. 776, no permit shall be issued for a period of more than _____. 1 5 10 25.
The Civil Aeronautics Administration was organized under section _____ of R.A. 776 10 11 25 32.
The Civil Aeronautics Administration shall be under the Administrative supervision and control of the _____. Department of Commerce and Industry Department of National Defense Department of Transportation and Communications Department of Tourism.
The Civil Aeronautics Administration is composed of _____ members. 2 3 5 7.
Which among the following statements regarding the Civil Aeronautics Administrator is true? The Administrator shall be appointed by the President of the Philippines with the consent of the Commission on Appointments. The Administrator shall receive an annual basic salary of seven thousand, two hundred pesos (7,200) and, subject to the approval of the President, additional salary of one thousand, eight hundred pesos (1,800) per annum. The Administrator shall be the Administrative head of the Civil Aeronautics Administration and shall possess the powers generally conferred upon bureau heads. The Administrator shall administer all laws relating to civil aviation in the Philippines. All of the above.
The powers and duties of the Administrator are enumerated under section _____ of R.A. 776 10 11 25 32.
Under R.A. 776: Decisions, orders and/or rulings of the Board shall become final and conclusive after _____ days from the date thereof unless appealed within the said period to the Supreme Court by certiorari. fifteen (15) thirty (30) sixty (60) ninety (90).
It is known as the last Section of R.A. 776. SECTION 56. Effectivity SECTION 96. Effectivity SECTION 66. Effectivity SECTION 76. Effectivity.
Republic Act No. 776: ___ Chapters and ____ Sections. 10 Chapters and 56 Sections 10 Chapters and 26 Sections 56 Chapters and 10 Sections 12 Chapters and 56 Sections.
In R.A. 9497 (Under Section 5), the Board Members are composed of how many members? 2 3 5 7.
Republic Act No. 9497 is also known as the _____. Civil Aviation Authority Act of 2008 Civil Aeronautics Act of 2008 Civil Aeronautics Board Act of 2008 Civil Aviation Act of 2008.
R.A. 9497: It refers to all charges for the use of any landing strip or runway by any aircraft landing or taking off at an aerodrome. Terminal fees Royalties Landing fees Reasonable charges.
R.A. 9497 (Section ___ - Creation of the Authority): This section declares the creation of the Authority, an independent regulatory body with quasi-judicial and quasi-legislative powers. 4 9 24 35.
R.A. 9497: To what executive department of the Philippines is CAAP attached for policy coordination? Department of National Defense (DND) Department of Science and Technology (DOST) Department of Tourism (DoT) Department of Transportation and Communications (DOTC).
Which among the following statements regarding the Director General is not true? The Director General shall head the Authority. The Philippine president appoints the Director General. The Director General shall be responsible for the exercise of all powers and the discharge of all duties of the Authority and shall have control over all personnel and activities of the Authority. The Director General shall have tenure of six (6) years and shall only be removed for cause in accordance with the rules and regulations prescribed by the Civil Service Commission.
R.A. 9497 (Section 6 - Prohibited Interests): Who shall be prohibited from holding any interest whatsoever, either as investor, stockholder, officer, or director, in any company or entity engaged in air commerce, whether scheduled or unscheduled, passenger or cargo, domestic or international, or in any business providing support services to persons engaged in air commerce and therefore divest, through sale or legal disposition, of any and all interests in such undertakings? All members of the Board All members of the Board or any of their relatives within the second civil degree of consanguinity or affinity, legitimate or common law All members of the Board or any of their relatives within the third civil degree of consanguinity or affinity, legitimate or common law All members of the Board or any of their relatives within the fourth civil degree of consanguinity or affinity, legitimate or common law.
R.A. 9497 (Section 7 - Limitation of Subsequent Employment): No member of the Board or any employee of the Authority shall accept employment or enter into a contract of service with an entity regulated by the Authority until the expiry of _____ from the termination of his/her appointment, whether resignation or revocation or otherwise. 90 days 120 days 1 year 2 years.
R.A. 9497 (Section 8 - Quorum): The presence of how many member/s of the Board constitute a quorum? 3 4 5 1.
R.A. 9497 (Section 8 - Quorum): The majority vote of _____ members in a meeting where a quorum is present shall be necessary for the adoption of any rule, ruling, order, resolution, decision, or other act of the Board. 1 3 4 5.
R.A. 9497 (Section __ - Qualifications of Director General): Under what section of this R.A. are the qualifications of a Director General specified? 4 9 24 35.
R.A. 9497 (Section 9 - Qualifications of Director General): What are the qualifications of a Director General?
1: Filipino;
2: at least thirty-five (35) years of age;
3: of good moral character, unquestionable integrity, and recognized competence;
4: degree holder with at least five (5) years supervisory/management experience in the field of aviation 1, 2, and 3 1, 2, and 4 1, 3, and 4 1, 2, 3, and 4.
R.A. 9497: In reference to Section 10 (Board Meetings), which among the following statements regarding Board Meetings is true? The Board shall meet regularly once a month and may hold special meetings to consider urgent matters upon call of the Chairman or upon the initiative of three (3) members. The Board shall meet regularly once a month and may hold special meetings to consider urgent matters upon call of the Chairman or upon the initiative of four (4) members. The Board shall meet once a year and may hold special meetings to consider urgent matters upon call of the Chairman or upon the initiative of three (3) members. The Board shall meet once a year and may hold special meetings to consider urgent matters upon call of the Chairman or upon the initiative of four (4) members.
R.A. 9497 (Section 13 - Principal Office): The principal office of the Authority is at _____. Cebu Davao Metro Manila Pampanga.
R.A. 9497 (Section 14 - Capitalization): The Authority shall have an authorized capital stock of _____. Php 5,000,000.00 Php 50,000,000.00 Php 5,000,000,000.00 Php 50,000,000,000.00.
R.A. 9497 (Section 16 - Exemption from Taxes, Customs and Tariff Duties): The importation of equipment, machineries, spare parts, accessories, and other materials including supplies and services used solely and exclusively in the operations of the authority not obtained locally shall ______. not be exempted from all direct and indirect taxes, wharfage fees, and other charges and restrictions not be exempted from all direct be exempted from all direct and indirect taxes, wharfage fees, and other charges and restrictions hold special meetings to consider urgent matters.
R.A. 9497 (Section 17 - Schedule of Fees and Charges): The Authority can revise the schedule of fees and fines _____. once a year thrice a year once in three months once in three years.
R.A. 9497 (Section 20 - Annual Report): The annual report prepared by the Authority should be submitted to the President of the Philippines, to the Senate, and to the House of Representatives _____. once a year thrice a year once in three months once in three years.
R.A. 9497: Under what section of this R.A. are the powers and functions of the Board specified? 4 9 24 35.
R.A. 9497: Under what section of this R.A. are the powers and functions of the Director General specified? 4 9 24 35.
R.A. 9497 (Section 36): This office composed of in-house counsels of the Authority provides adequate legal assistance and support to the Director General. Administrative and Finance Services Air Traffic and Air Navigation Services Aircraft Accident Investigation and Inquiry Enforcement and Legal Service Flight Standards Inspectorate Service Aerodrome Development and Management Services.
Under Section 38 (R.A. 9497): Right of Access to Inspection, which among the following is exempted from unrestricted inspection? Civil aircraft registered in the Philippines wherever they are operated in the world Facility or offices of Philippine air operators Privately-owned aerodromes None of the above.
R.A. 9497 (Section 40): This office will assist the Director General in carrying out the responsibilities of certification and ongoing inspections of aircraft, airmen, and air operators. Administrative and Finance Services Air Traffic and Air Navigation Services Aircraft Accident Investigation and Inquiry Enforcement and Legal Service Flight Standards Inspectorate Service Aerodrome Development and Management Services.
R.A. 9497 (Section 44): Which certificate is a conclusive evidence of aircraft’s nationality and ownership? Airworthiness Design Reciprocity Registration.
R.A. 9497 (Section 44 - Eligibility for Registration): Which aircrafts are eligible to be registered in the Philippines?
1: Filipino owned;
2: leased to a Filipino;
3: leased to a corporation whose 50% of capital is owned by a Filipino;
4: leased to an association whose 60% of capital is owned by a Filipino;
5: foreign-owned or registered aircraft used by aero clubs for recreation, sports, or flying skills development of flying skills as a prerequisite to any aeronautical activities of such clubs within the Philippine airspace. 1, 2, and 4 1, 2, and 3 1, 2, 4, and 5 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 1, 2, 3, and 5.
R.A. 9497 (Section __ - Abolition of the Air Transportation Office): The Air Transportation Office created under R.A. 776 is abolished under section _____. 85 90 91 94.
R.A. 9497 (Section 94 - Effectivity): This Act shall take effect _____ after its complete publication in at least _____ national newspaper of general circulation. sixty (60) days; one (1) sixty (60) days; two (2) fifteen (15) days; one (1) fifteen (15) days; two (2).
R.A. 9497: The last section of this R.A. is Effectivity. It is under section _____. 85 90 91 94.
R.A. 9497: The Congressional Oversight Committee is created under section _____. 85 90 91 94.
R.A. 9497: According to Section 90 (Implementing Rules and Regulations), the Authority shall adopt rules and regulations to implement the provisions of this Act within _____ from the date of its approval. fifteen (15) days thirty (30) days sixty (60) days ninety (90) days.
R.A. 9497: The Philippine president who signed this R.A. was _____. Ferdinand E. Marcos Joseph E. Estrada Fidel V. Ramos Gloria M. Arroyo.
R.A. 9497 was signed last _____. June 20, 1952 June 11, 1978 July 15, 2003 March 4, 2008.
It refers to all charges based on gross business or sales, or gross or net profit Landing fees Terminal fees Royalties Reasonable charges.
It refers to charges for parking at or near the ramp, terminal area, or building, for purposes of loading or unloading passengers and/or cargo. Landing fees Terminal fees Royalties Reasonable charges.
It refers to any parts, appurtenances, and accessories of aircraft, aircraft engines, propellers, and appliances, maintained for installation or use in an aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance, but which at the time are not installed therein or attached thereto. Aircraft engine Propeller Supplies Spare parts.
It includes any and all items of whatever nature or description that may be necessary for, or incidental to the operation of an aircraft. Aircraft engine Propeller Supplies Spare parts.
It refers to an inclusive term for all parts, appurtenances, and accessories of a propeller. Aircraft engine Propeller Supplies Spare parts.
It refers to any engine use, or intended to be used for propulsion of aircraft and includes all parts, appurtenances, and accessories thereof other than propeller. Aircraft engine Propeller Supplies Spare parts.
Which is considered a practice of aeronautical engineering? Commercial flying Selling cleaning agents for aircraft Teaching Algebra Research about Fluid Dynamics.
It refers to an aircraft operation of a civil aircraft for other than a commercial air transport operation or aerial work operation. Aerial work Air transport Commercial air transport operation General aviation.
It refers to an aircraft operation in which an aircraft is used for specialized services such as agriculture, construction, photography, surveying, observation and patrol, search and rescue, aerial advertisement, etc. Aerial work Air transport Commercial air transport operation General aviation.
It refers to and includes scheduled or non-scheduled air transport services for pay or hire, the navigation of aircraft in furtherance of a business, the navigation of aircraft from one place to another for operation in the conduct of a business, or an aircraft operation involving the transport of passengers, cargo, or mail for remuneration or hire. Aerial work Air transport Commercial air transport operation General aviation.
It refers to the transportation of persons, property, mail, or cargo by aircraft. Aerial work Air transport Commercial air transport operation General aviation.
Republic Act No. 9497: ___ Chapters and ____ Sections. 10 Chapters and 56 Sections 10 Chapters and 26 Sections 56 Chapters and 10 Sections 12 Chapters and 94 Sections.
Section 22 of P.D. 1570 states that the Board may refuse to issue Certificate of Registration to any person who is/has the following, except _____. unsound mind guilt of civil offense incurable disease None of the above.
He shall act in professional matters as a faithful agent or trustee, and treat as confidential all matters and information concerning business affairs, technical processes, and others. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
Section 2 of the P.D. 1570 describes its objectives. Which of the following is not an objective of the P.D. 1570? Creation of a Society for Aeronautical Engineers in the Philippines. Provide for and govern the examination for registration of Aeronautical Engineering. Standardization and regulation of Aeronautical Engineering. Supervision, control, and regulation of the practice of Aeronautical Engineering in the Philippines.
Which of the following is not considered an Aeronautical Engineering practice? Selling of aircraft components Directing and controlling an aircraft in flight Construction of aircraft structures All of these.
The Rules and Regulations including the Code of Ethics of the Board of Aeronautical Engineering shall be published in the Official Gazette and shall take effect in how many days after the date of their publication? 15 days 30 days 60 days 90 days.
In the interest of national economy and well-being, he shall always strive in the execution of his work for optimum efficiency, economy, and safety. This code of ethics is under _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
What is the maximum diameter of the seal of the Board of Aeronautical Engineering? 45 mm 48 mm 50 mm 52 mm.
The keystone of professional conduct is _____ justice integrity honesty courtesy.
He shall be dignified in explaining and discussing his work and shall refrain from self-laudatory advertising or propaganda. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with Profession Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with State.
The Code of Ethics for Aeronautical Engineers encompasses relations with certain entities. Which of the following is not among the specified entities? State School Profession Public.
The qualifications for a person to be appointed as member of the Board of Aeronautical Engineering is provided in P.D. 1570 at what section? 3 4 5 6.
What should be issued to all successful examinees of the technical written examination for aeronautical engineers upon payment of the required fee? Certificate of Competence Certificate of Recognition Certificate of Reciprocity Certificate of Registration.
President Decree No. 1570 was signed last _____. June 11, 1968 June 11, 1973 June 11, 1976 June 11, 1978.
What document must a foreigner submit to qualify to take the technical written examination prior to registration for the practice of aeronautical engineering? Proof of Residency Proof of Competency Proof of Registration Proof of Reciprocity.
Presidential Decree No. 1570 shall be known as the “_____.” Philippine Aerospace Engineering Decree Philippine Aeronautics Empowerment Decree Philippine Aeronautical Engineering Decree Philippine Aeronautical Entitlement Decree.
The Certificate of Registration given to the successful examinees of the technical written examination is signed by _____. the members of the Board of Aeronautical Engineering the members of the Board of Aeronautical Engineering and SAEP president the members of the Board of Aeronautical Engineering and Philippine president the members of the Board of Aeronautical Engineering and PRC chairperson.
The Board of Aeronautical Engineering under the Professional Regulation Commission is composed of how many members? 2 3 5 7.
The members of the Board of Aeronautical Engineering shall hold office for a term of _____ year/s. one (1) two (2) three (3) four (4).
No member of the Board shall serve for more than _____ successive complete terms. one (1) two (2) three (3) four (4).
Who shall conduct the written examinations? Commission alone Board alone Commission and Board SAEP and Board.
The Board shall, within _____ days following the end of each fiscal year, submit to the Commission an annual report on its activities. fifteen (15) thirty (30) sixty (60) ninety (90).
Any person who shall apply for admission to take the written examinations for aeronautical engineers should possess all the qualifications stated in section _____. 4 14 25 27.
Written examinations of candidates desiring to practice aeronautical engineering in the Philippines shall be given by the ______ once a year at a date and place to be fixed by the _____. Board; Board Board; Commission Commission; Commission Commission; Board.
The relative weight for every subject shall always be divisible exactly by _____. three (3) four (4) five (5) ten (10).
In order to pass the written examination, the candidate’s GWA must be equal to or greater than _____%, with no rating below _____% in any subject. 75; 75 75; 50 50; 75 50; 50.
Within ______ days after the last day of the examinations or on such date as may be determined by the Commission, the Board shall submit its report on the ratings obtained by each candidate to the Commissioner of the Commission for approval or other appropriate action. fifteen (15) thirty (30) seventy (70) ninety (90).
All ratings shall be released at least _____ days before the next examination period. fifteen (15) thirty (30) seventy (70) ninety (90).
All successful candidates in the written examinations shall receive a _____ upon payment of the required fee. Certificate of Excellence Certificate of Public Convenience Certificate of Reciprocity Certificate of Registration.
Section _____ of the P.D. 1570 states that “The Board shall have the power suspend or revoke a certificate by reason of malpractice, incompetence, gross negligence, use or perpetration of any fraud, deceit, or false statement in obtaining such certificate, or refusal to join and to remain a member of the accredited organization. 4 14 23 25.
Under what section of the P.D. 1570 is the seal discussed? 4 14 23 25.
Under what section of the P.D. 1570 is the practice of aeronautical engineering defined? 23 25 27 36.
Who signed the P.D. 1570? Ferdinand E. Marcos Fidel V. Ramos Joseph E. Estrada Gloria M. Arroyo.
The IRR of the P.D. 1570 including the Code of Professional Ethics, when approved by the Commission, shall take shall take effect _____ days following the date of their publication in the Official Gazette. fifteen (15) thirty (30) seventy (70) ninety (90).
The P.D. 1570 was adopted by the Board of Aeronautical Engineering at the Metropolitan Manila, Philippines last _____. September 23, 1982 October 12, 1982 June 11, 1978 June 20, 1952.
The P.D. 1570 was approved and promulgated as the Rules and Regulations of the Board of Aeronautical Engineering last _____. September 23, 1982 October 12, 1982 June 11, 1978 June 20, 1952.
Who is not a member of the first Board of Aeronautical Engineering? Recaredo R. Albano Teofilo P. Alberto Timoteo A. Cordova Jr. Numeriano G. Tanopo Jr.
What is the relative weight of the subject Aerodynamics in the written examination? 10% 15% 20% 25%.
What is the relative weight of the subject Aircraft Powerplant in the written examination? 10% 15% 20% 25%.
What is the relative weight of the subject Engineering Economics & Management, Laws & Ethics in the written examination? 10% 15% 20% 25%.
The _____ in the seal of an Aeronautical Engineer symbolizes that aeronautical engineering is a dynamic and progressive profession. wing section shockwaves electrons atom.
Per Section 17, the _____ shall have the power to prescribe, amend, or revise the subjects and their corresponding relative weights. Commission Board Commission and Board SAEP President.
In the interest of the good government, he shall extend cooperation to the State in the accomplishment of its goals and objectives. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
In the interest of social efficiency, he shall extend assistance, guidance and training to subordinates under his jurisdiction in order to increase their skill and ability, knowledge and experience for purposes of eventually increasing their responsibilities. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
Each and every engineer shall recognize and respect the supreme authority of the State as expressed through its laws implemented by its agencies, whenever and wherever such laws do not infringe upon the rights and privileges of citizens as guaranteed by the Constitution. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
He shall recognize that the well-being of the public and the interest of the State are above the well-being and interest of any individual. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
In the interest of justice, he shall aid the State, if and when the technology he is involved in is needed in the prevention and/or prosecution of unjust, criminal, or unlawful acts. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
In the interest of the national economy and well-being, he shall always strive in the execution of his work for optimum efficiency, economy, and safety. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
In the event of any national emergency, he shall offer his technology, skill, ability, and experience to the services of the State, even if it will involve personal sacrifices. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
He shall interest himself in public welfare and be ready to apply his special knowledge for the benefit of mankind. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
In the interest of national security, the State shall be given primary consideration in all its inventions and/ or devices on aeronautical science and technology useful for national security and defense. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
He shall guard against conditions that are dangerous or threatening to life, limb, or property on the work for which he is responsible, or if he is not responsible, he shall promptly call such conditions to the attention of those responsible so that the conditions can immediately and effectively be corrected. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
He shall have due regard for the safety of life and health of the public who may be affected by the work for which he is responsible. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
He shall endeavor to extend public knowledge of aeronautical engineering and he shall strive to win or maintain public confidence by discouraging the spread of untrue, unfair, and exaggerated statements regarding his profession. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
As a witness before a court, commission, and/or other tribunal, he shall express an opinion only when it is founded on adequate and honest conviction. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
He shall not issue statements on matters connected with public policy, and ex-parte statements, criticisms, or arguments which are inspired or paid for by private interest, unless he identifies on whose behalf he is making the statements. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
He shall refrain from expressing in public any opinion on an engineering subject unless he is fully familiar and knowledgeable with all facts relating to the subject. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
His integrity shall be unquestionable and he shall discharge his duties and responsibilities with fidelity to the public, his employers, and clients and with fairness and impartiality to all. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
He shall exercise fairness and justice when dealing with contracts between his clients or employers and the contractors. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
He shall act in professional matters as a faithful agent or trustee, and treat as confidential all matters and information concerning business affairs, technical processes, and others, of his clients and/or employers. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
He shall inform his client or employer of any financial interest on inventions, equipment, and/or any other device, before undertaking any engagement in which he may be called upon to decide on the use thereof. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
He shall not accept any other compensation, financial or otherwise, except from an interested party for a particular service or other services related therewith, without the consent of all parties concerned. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
He shall not accept any commissions or allowances, directly or indirectly, from contractors, suppliers, and all other parties dealing with his clients and/or employers in connection with the work for which he is responsible. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
He shall not be financially interested in the bid or bids of contractors, suppliers, and other interested parties participating in a competitive work or job on which he has been employed as engineer without full knowledge and consent of his clients or employers. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
He shall promptly inform his clients or employers of any business in which he has any interest, business connection, or affiliation which may compete with or affect the business of his clients or employers. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
He shall not allow any decision in connection with his work for which he has been employed or on which he may be called to perform, to be affected by interest in any business. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
He will present clearly the consequences to be expected from deviations proposed if his engineering judgment is overruled by the nontechnical authority in cases where he is responsible for the technical adequacy of engineering work. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
He shall undertake only those engineering assignments for which he is qualified. He shall engage or advise his employer or client to engage specialists and shall cooperate with them whenever his employer’s or client’s interests are served best by such an arrangement. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
He shall individually or collectively with others in the profession protect the profession from misunderstanding and/or misrepresentations. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
He shall not directly or indirectly injure the professional reputation, prospects, and advancement, and/or practice of other engineers. However, if he has proof or personal knowledge that an engineer has been unethical and/or illegal in his practices he shall inform in writing the proper authorities for appropriate action. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
He shall uphold the principle of appropriate and adequate compensation for those engaged in the engineering profession, including those in the subordinate capabilities in the interest of public service, and maintain the standards of the profession. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
He shall not try to supplant another engineer in a particular employment after becoming aware that definite steps have been taken towards the other’s employment. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
He shall not compete, by underbidding through reduction in his normal fees on the basis of charges for work, after having been informed of the charges submitted by another engineer. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
He shall be fair and tolerant in his dealings with fellow engineers and give credit to those to whom credit is properly due. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
He shall uphold the honor and dignity of his profession and avoid association in responsibility for work with engineers who do not conform to ethical practices. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
He shall exercise due restraint in criticizing another engineer’s work in public, recognizing the fact that the engineering societies and the engineering press provide the proper forum for technical discussions and criticism. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
He shall cooperate in extending the effectiveness of the engineering profession and endeavor to be well-informed of the latest development in the profession by sharing or exchanging information and experience with other engineers, other professionals, and students, and by contributing to engineering publications and participating in the activities of engineering societies. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
He shall be dignified in explaining and discussing his work and shall refrain from self’- laudatory advertising or propaganda. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
In the interest of national security, the State shall be given primary consideration in all his inventions and/ or devices on aeronautical science and technology useful for national security and defence. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
He shall cooperate in upholding the integrity and honor of the profession by avoiding all conduct and practices that will be discrediting and injurious to the profession. This code of ethics is included in _____. Relationship with State Relationship with Engineers Relationship with Clients and Employers Relationship with the Public Relationship with Profession.
An aircraft that is due an annual inspection may be flown for the purpose of performing maintenance. if a special permit has been issued for the aircraft. for a period of time not to exceed 10 hours.
A certified mechanic with airframe and powerplant ratings may perform minor repairs to aircraft instruments. perform minor repairs and minor alterations to aircraft instruments. not perform repairs to aircraft instruments.
What marking color is used to indicate if a cover glass has slipped? Red. White. Yellow. Blue.
In a hovering helicopter equipped with a tail rotor, directional control is maintained by changing the tail rotor RPM. tilting the main rotor disk in the desired direction. varying the pitch of the tail rotor blades.
The primary purpose of an aircraft's fuel jettison system is to quickly achieve a lower landing weight. balanced fuel load. reduced fire hazard.
Sec. 23.603 — Materials and workmanship:
The suitability and durability of materials used for parts, the failure of which could adversely affect safety, must Be established by experience or tests; Meet approved specifications that ensure their having the strength and other properties assumed in the design data; Take into account the effects of environmental conditions, such as temperature and humidity, expected in service. All of the above.
The Civil Aeronautics Board is composed of _____. five members six members four members three members.
The Director of Air Transportation is appointed by _____. Commission on Appointments President of the Philippines Director of Civil Aeronautics Board Secretary of Transportation and Communication.
The power to regulate the economic aspect of air transportation is with the _____. Department of Transportation and Communication PADC Civil Aeronautics Board Air Transportation Office.
The chairman of the Civil Aeronautics Board is the _____. Secretary of Tourism Director of ATO President of PADC Secretary of Transportation and Communications.
Issuance of the Certificate of Public Convenience is the duty of which office? Civil Aeronautics Board Civil Aviation Authority of the Philippines PADC Department of Transportation and Communication.
In what year does the formation of Society of Aerospace Engineers of the Philippines (SAEP) occurred? Who headed the formation? 1960 Timoteo Cordova 1960 Gregorio Zara 1950 Timoteo Cordova 1950 Gregorio Zara.
Its mission is to develop and advance the Aeronautical Engineering profession toward its recognition in the international aviation industry. Board of Aeronautical Engineering Civil Aeronautics Board Civil Aviation Authority of the Philippines Society of Aeronautical Engineers of the Philippines.
What are the permits issued by the CAB? Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity (CPCN) Foreign Air Carrier’s Permit (FACP) Letter of Authority All are correct.
It indicates a mandatory requirement. Shall Should Acceptable Approved.
It indicates a recommended requirement. Shall Should Acceptable Approved.
It means the Authority has reviewed the method, procedure, or policy in question and issued a formal written approval. Shall Should Acceptable Approved.
It means the Authority has reviewed the method, procedure, or policy and has neither objected to nor approved its proposed use or implementation. Shall Should Acceptable Approved.
Which among the following statements regarding changing of name is incorrect? A copy of the marriage license, court order, or other document verifying the name change should be included in the request. The current license or certificate must be included in the request. A holder of a license or certificate issued under these regulations may apply to change the name on a license or certificate. A holder of a license or certificate issued under these regulations may not apply to change the name on a license or certificate.
Within how many days should the holder of an airman license/certificate or approved training organization certificate notify the authority for a change in address? 15 days 30 days 60 days 90 days.
A person whose license, certificate, rating, or authorization has been revoked may not apply for any license, certificate, rating, or authorization _____. for 1 year after the date of revocation for 2 years after the date of revocation during the period of suspension.
A person whose license has been suspended may not apply for any license, certificate, rating, or authorization _____. for 1 year after the date of revocation for 2 years after the date of revocation during the period of suspension.
Which is not a psychoactive substance? Volatile substance Cannabinoids Coccaine and other stimulants Alcohol Sedatives and hypnotics Hallucinogens Caffein Opiods.
It is the minimum speed at which climb shall be achieved with the critical power unit inoperative, and the remaining power units operating within approved operating limits. VCRIT VMIN VTOSS VY.
The validity of a medical certificate for an Airline Transport Pilot is _____. six (6) months twelve (12) months twenty-four (24) months thirty-six (36) months.
No person shall serve as a pilot on a civil aircraft of the RP engaged in domestic or international commercial air transport in a single pilot operation if that person has reached his/her _____ birthday. 55th 60th 65th 70th.
Where is the headquarters of ICAO and IATA? Paris Cologne, Germany Montreal, Canada Hoofdorp, North Holland.
EASA was created last _____. July 13, 2005 June 13, 2005 June 15, 2003 July 15, 2003.
Where is the headquarters of EASA? Paris Cologne, Germany Montreal, Canada Hoofdorp, North Holland.
An agency of the European Union (EU) with regulatory and executive tasks in the field of civilian aviation safety. ICAO EASA FAA IATA.
Where is the headquarters of JAA? Paris Cologne, Germany Montreal, Canada Hoofdorp, North Holland.
It is a specialized agency of the United Nations that codifies the principles and techniques of international air navigation and fosters the planning and development of international air transport to ensure safe and orderly growth. ICAO EASA FAA IATA.
The Secretary General of ICAO holds the office for _____ years. three (3) four (4) five (5) six (6).
At what year did EASA reached full functionality? 2005 2006 2007 2008.
It is the trade association of the world’s airlines. Airports Council International CANSO IATA ICAO.
It is the trade association of airport authorities Airports Council International CANSO IATA ICAO.
The forerunner to ICAO was the _____. Airports Council International CANSO IATA ICAN.
ICAN continued to operate until _____. 1903 1906 1912 1945.
International Civil Aviation Organization ICAO International Civil Aviation Organization.
International Air Transport Association IATA International Air Transport Association.
European Aviation Safety Agency EASA European Aviation Safety Agency.
International Commission for Air Navigation ICAN International Commission for Air Navigation.
Joint Aviation Authorities JAA Joint Aviation Authorities.
Joint Aviation Requirements JAR Joint Aviation Requirements.
Federal Aviation Administration FAA Federal Aviation Administration.
Federal Aviation Regulations FAR Federal Aviation Regulations.
Civil Air Navigation Services Organisation CANSO Civil Air Navigation Services Organisation.
The privilege to fly into the territory of the grantor state and there is take on traffic designated for the flag state is called _____. Fourth freedom Fifth freedom Sixth freedom Third freedom.
The privilege for an airplane registered in one state and enroute to or from that state, to take on passengers, mail and cargo in a second state and put them down in a third state is the _____. 5th freedom right 6th freedom right 7th freedom right 9th freedom right.
An airline is planning a flight that will require a technical landing in a neighboring state. Which freedom of the air will be exercised? 2nd 3rd 6th 8th.
The right of an airline from a particular country to originate a flight from foreign country and carry passengers from one point to another within that foreign country. This occurrence is also known as _____. beyond rights cabotage stand-alone cabotage transit agreement.
Which among the following statements best describe the 6th Freedom of the Air? Revenue traffic flown between two nations (C to A) by carrier of a third nation (B) The right to carry revenue traffic between two points within a treaty nation (B) by the carrier of another nation (A) The right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more treaty partner nations (B to C to D) A combination of freedoms 3 and 4. Revenue traffic flown between two treaty partner nations (C to A) through carrier’s base nation (B).
Which freedom gives the privilege to land for non-traffic purposes in another ICAO contracting state? 1st 2nd 3rd 4th.
Which freedom gives the right to fly over a foreign country? 1st 2nd 3rd 4th.
It grants the privilege to fly over the territory of a treaty country without landing. 1st 2nd 3rd 4th.
It is also known as technical freedom. 1st 2nd 3rd 4th.
This freedom allows technical stops without the enplaning or deplaning of passengers or cargo. 1st 2nd 3rd 4th.
It is the right to stop in one country solely for refueling or other maintenance on the way to another country. 1st 2nd 3rd 4th.
It is the right to carry passengers or cargo from one's own country to another. 1st 2nd 3rd 4th.
It is known as the first commercial freedom. 1st 2nd 3rd 4th.
The right to carry passengers or cargo from another country to one's own. 1st 2nd 3rd 4th.
Also referred to as “beyond right”. 5th 6th 7th 8th.
It is the right to carry passengers from one's own country to a second country, and from that country to a third country (and so on) 5th 6th 7th 8th.
The “unofficial” freedom to carry traffic between two foreign countries via the carrier's home country by combining third and fourth freedoms. 5th 6th 7th 8th.
It is the right to carry passengers or cargo between two foreign countries without any continuing service to one's own country. 5th 6th 7th 8th.
It is the right to carry passengers or cargo between two or more points in one foreign country. 5th 6th 7th 8th.
also known as "stand alone" cabotage 9th 6th 7th 8th.
also known as "consecutive cabotage" 9th 6th 7th 8th.
What is cabotage? Domestic air service by a national carrier Aircraft from a foreign country picking up passengers in another country Aircraft providing a commercial air service within the EEC An airline disembarking and embarking passengers in another country.
How are the 3rd, 4th, and 5th freedoms generally referred to?
The commercial freedoms The general freedoms The technical freedoms The traffic freedoms.
The uniform rules governing air carrier’s liabilities in respect of passengers and goods carried in most international flights were first established during the _____. Hague Protocol Warsaw Convention Guadalajara Convention Rome Convention.
It is the convention that deals with offences against penal law. Rome Madrid Warsaw Tokyo.
Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by aircraft to third parties on the surface? Rome Convention Guatemala Convention Montreal Convention Tokyo Convention.
The Paris Convention defined the status of international airspace and gave the authority to the commander of the aeroplane to act in accordance with what law? The Law of the State of the Aerodrome before Departure The Law of the State of the Operator The Law of the State of Registration International Law.
Within Europe, certain non-scheduled commercial flights between ECAC States may be carried out without the obligation to request prior permission from the state concerned by the operator of the aircraft. This is based on which international agreement/convention? Warsaw Agreement Cyprus Convention Agreement of Paris Convention of The Hague.
This is also known as the Convention on Offenses and Certain Other Acts Committed On-board Aircraft. Chicago Guadalajara Montreal Tokyo.
The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage, and freight. Chicago convention Geneva convention Montreal convention Warsaw convention.
This convention discusses terrorism against international civil aviation at airports and their facilities. Chicago convention Geneva convention Montreal convention Warsaw convention.
Per Rome Convention, an operator is liable for any damage, but the liability is limited to a sum that is proportionate to the _____. net profit of the flight number of injured persons number of deceased persons weight of the aircraft.
Who is responsible for exercising jurisdiction and taking legal steps over offences and acts committed on board? State of Design State of Manufacture State of Operator State of Registry.
Which convention lays down uniform rules governing the air carrier’s liabilities in respect of passengers and goods? Chicago convention Rome convention Tokyo convention Warsaw convention.
Which convention established the ICAO? Chicago convention Rome convention Tokyo convention Warsaw convention.
The Convention concerning offences and certain other acts committed on board an aircraft is _____. Paris Chicago Tokyo Rome.
Which convention deals with unlawful interference with aircraft? Rome Tokyo Madrid The Hague.
Which international convention was concerned with terrorism against internal civil aviation at airports and their facilities? Tokyo Montreal Rome Warsaw.
From which convention was ICAO formed? Warsaw Montreal Chicago Rome.
A commander is authorized, in the event that a passenger has committed an offence or is suspected to be about to commit an offence, to _____. disable them require passengers to assist in restraining request cabin crew to assist deliver the person to the appropriate authority.
You are on the surface and are injured by an object from a foreign aeroplane. Which convention allows you to claim damages? The Hague Rome Warsaw Paris.
To what did Tokyo Convention of 1963 address itself? Licensing of scheduled air services Damage caused by a contracting state’s aircraft to property in the same state Damage caused by a contracting state’s aircraft to property in the another state Law applicable to an aircraft in flight.
What International Convention first attempted to deal with hijacking? Montreal Warsaw Chicago Tokyo.
Which International Agreement relates to Penal Law? Tokyo Montreal Hague Rome.
Radio equipment installations made in accordance with Supplemental Type Certificate data require approval for return to service by a field approval from the FAA by an airframe and powerplant mechanic by the holder of an inspection authorization.
Instructions concerning the type of fluid and amount of air pressure to be put in a shock strut are found on the airplane data plate in the aircraft operations limitations in the aircraft manufacturer's service manual.
How much clearance from the seat bottom is required when installing radio equipment under a seat? 3 inches with the seat unoccupied. No set minimum as long as the equipment receives adequate cooling and damage protection. 1 inch with the seat occupied and subjected to maximum downward seat spring deflection.
14 CFR Part 23: In aircraft electrical systems, automatic reset circuit breakers should not be used as circuit protective devices. are useful where only temporary overloads are normally encountered. must be used in all circuits essential to safe operation of the aircraft.
Where would you find precise information to perform a symmetry alignment check for a particular aircraft? Aircraft Specification or Type Certificate Data Sheet. Manufacturer's service bulletins. Aircraft service or maintenance manual.
If a new safety belt is to be installed in an aircraft, the belt must conform to the strength requirements in which document? STC 1282. TSO C22. 14 CFR Part 39. 14 CFR Part 29.
Stability about the axis which runs parallel to the line of flight is referred to as longitudinal stability. directional stability. lateral stability. .
The requirements for testing and inspection of instrument static systems required by Section 91.411 are contained in Type Certificate Data Sheets. AC 43.13-1A. Part 43, appendix E.
Seals used with a mineral base hydraulic fluid are identified by which color code? Green dash. Blue dot or stripe. Yellow dot or stripe.
Each powerplant installed on an airplane with a Standard Airworthiness Certificate must have been type certificated. manufactured under the TSO system. originally certificated for that aircraft.
(1) Airworthiness Directives are Federal Aviation Regulations and must be complied with unless specific exemption is granted.
(2) Airworthiness Directives of an emergency nature may require immediate compliance upon receipt.
Regarding the above statements, only No. 1 is true. only No. 2 is true. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
The Federal Aviation Regulations require the fuel flow rate for gravity systems (main and reserve) to be 125 percent of the takeoff fuel consumption of the engine. 125 percent of the maximum, except takeoff, fuel consumption of the engine. 150 percent of the takeoff fuel consumption of the engine.
If more space is needed for a work description entered on FAA Form 337, what information should be included on the attached sheet(s), in addition to the rest of the work description? Make, model, and serial number of the aircraft. Aircraft nationality and registration mark, and the date the work was accomplished. Name, date, and office designator of the FAA inspector from the supervising district office.
When work is performed on an aircraft that necessitates the use of FAA Form 337, who should prepare the form? The person who performs or supervises the work. The person who approves for return to service. The aircraft owner or operator. Manufacturer.
What is the maximum duration of a temporary airman certificate? 60 days. 90 days. 120 days. 30 days.
The issuance of an Airworthiness Certificate is governed by: 14 CFR Part 23. 14 CFR Part 21. 14 CFR Part 25. 14 CFR Part 39.
Where is the record of compliance with Airworthiness Directives or manufacturers' service bulletins normally indicated? FAA Form 337. Aircraft maintenance records. Flight manual.
When determining the empty weight of an aircraft, certificated under current airworthiness standards (14 CFR Part 23), the oil contained in the supply tank is considered a part of the empty weight. a part of the useful load. the same as the fluid contained in the water injection reservoir.
14 CFR Part 65 contains information for the certification of pilots, flight Instructors, and ground instructors. airmen other than flight crewmembers. flight crewmembers other than pilots. ground instructors other than flight crewmembers.
Specifications pertaining to an aircraft model manufactured under a type certificate, of which less than 50 are shown on the FAA Aircraft Registry, can be found in the: Aircraft Listing. Summary of Discontinued Aircraft Specifications. FAA Statistical Handbook of Civil Aircraft Specifications.
What FAA-approved document gives the leveling means to be used when weighing an aircraft? Type Certificate Data Sheet. AC 43.13-1B. Manufacturer's maintenance manual.
How long does the holder of a certificate issued under 14 CFR part 65 have to notify the FAA after any change in permanent mailing address? 30 days. 60 days. 90 days. 120 days.
Who is responsible for upkeep of the required maintenance records for an aircraft? The maintaining repair station or authorized inspector. The maintaining certificated mechanic. The aircraft owner.
When may an otherwise qualified mechanic who does not read, write, speak, and understand the English language be eligible to apply for a mechanic certificate? When a special authorization has been granted by the Administrator. When employed outside the United States by a U.S. air carrier. When employed outside the United States.
The useful load of an aircraft consists of the crew, usable fuel, passengers, and cargo. crew, usable fuel, oil, and fixed equipment. crew, passengers, usable fuel, oil, cargo, and fixed equipment.
Suitability for use of a specific propeller with a particular engine-airplane combination can be determined by reference to what informational source? Propeller Specifications or Propeller Type Certificate Data Sheet. Aircraft Specifications or Aircraft Type Certificate Data Sheet. Alphabetical Index of Current Propeller Type Certificate Data Sheets, Specifications, and Listings.
Most modern aircraft are designed so that if all seats are occupied, full baggage weight is carried, and all fuel tanks are full, what will be the weight condition of the aircraft? It will be in excess of maximum takeoff weight. It will be at maximum basic operating weight (BOW). It will be at maximum taxi or ramp weight.
What is the speed ratio of an input gear with 36 teeth meshed to a gear with 20 teeth? 9:5. 1:0.56. 1:1.8. 5:9.
Scratches or nicks on the straight portion of aluminum alloy tubing may be repaired if they are no deeper than 1/32 inch or 20 percent of wall thickness, whichever is less. 20 percent of the wall thickness. 10 percent of the wall thickness. 1/16 inch or 15 percent of the wall thickness. .
When starting and ground operating an aircraft's engine, the aircraft should be positioned to head into the wind primarily: To aid in achieving and maintaining the proper air flow into the engine induction system. To help cancel out engine torque effect. For engine cooling purposes. .
Zone numbers on aircraft blueprints are used to locate parts, sections, and views on large drawings. indicate different sections of the aircraft. locate parts in the aircraft.
What does the Type Certificate Data Sheet designation code '2 PCSM' mean? Two place (number of seats), closed, sea, monoplane. Two wing (biplane), primary category, semimonocoque (airframe). Neither of the other two choices.
Primary responsibility for compliance with Airworthiness Directives lies with the: Aircraft owner or operator. Certificated mechanic holding an Inspection Authorization who conducts appropriate inspections. Certificated mechanic who maintains the aircraft.
Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall use a checklist that contains at least those items in the appendix of: 14 CFR Part 43. 14 CFR Part 65. AC 43.13-3.
Which regulation provides information regarding instrument range markings for an airplane certificated in the normal category? 14 CFR Part 21. 14 CFR Part 25. 14 CFR Part 23.
If a radial engine has been shut down for more than 30 minutes, the propeller should be rotated through at least two revolutions to: Check for hydraulic lock. Check for leaks. Prime the engine.
Caustic cleaning products used on aluminum structures have the effect of improved corrosion resistance. corrosion. producing passive oxidation. .
Which maintenance record entry best describes the action taken for a control cable showing approximately 20 percent wear on several of the individual outer wires at a fairlead? Wear within acceptable limits, repair not necessary. Removed and replaced the control cable and rerigged the system. Cable repositioned, worn area moved away from fairlead.
Type Certificate Data Sheets are issued for which of the following products? Aircraft, engines, and propellers. Aircraft, engines, and appliances. Aircraft, engines, propellers, and appliances.
Select the solvent recommended for wipedown of cleaned surfaces just before painting. Aliphatic naptha. Dry-cleaning solvent. Aromatic naptha.
When approaching the front of an idling jet engine, the hazard area extends forward of the engine approximately: 10 Feet. 15 Feet. 25 Feet.
What is ATA iSpec 2200? Fuel specifications for transport-category airplanes. Standardized electronic documentation for aircraft models. Airline transport catalog for aircraft parts.
When a discrepancy list is provided to an aircraft owner or operator after an inspection, it says in effect that: The item inspected is unairworthy. Except for these discrepancies, the item inspected is airworthy. The item inspected may or may not be airworthy depending on the discrepancies found.
The useful load of an aircraft is the difference between the maximum takeoff weight and basic empty weight. maximum ramp or takeoff weight as applicable, and zero fuel weight. (1) the weight of an aircraft with all seats filled, full baggage/cargo, and full fuel, and (2) aircraft weight with all seats empty, no baggage/cargo, and minimum operating fuel.
The "SHEL" model is another human factors tool. The goal is to determine not only what the problem is, but also where and why it exists. how we prevent the problem. how many factors contribute to the error.
According to Dr. James Reason, there are two types of human failure which can occur. They are: active and latent. mental and physical. proper and improper.
Many areas of aviation have shifted their focus from eliminating error to preventing and managing error. identifying and mitigating error. reducing and containing error.
A gas or fluid line marked with the letters PHDAN is a dual-purpose pneumatic and/or hydraulic line for normal and emergency system use. used to carry a hazardous substance. a pneumatic or hydraulic system drain or discharge line.
When flaring aluminum tubing for use with AN fittings, the flare angle must be 37º. 39º. 45º.
What regulations are covered by 14 CFR Part 1? Certification of airmen other than crewmembers. General operating and flight rules. Definitions and abbreviations.
In what type of electrical diagram are images of components used instead of conventional electrical symbols? A pictorial diagram. A schematic diagram. A block diagram.
Tetraethyl lead is added to aviation gasoline to: Retard the formation of corrosives. Improve the gasoline's performance in the engine. Dissolve the moisture in the gasoline.
If work performed on an aircraft has been done satisfactorily, the signature of an authorized person on the maintenance records for maintenance or alterations performed constitutes: Approval of the aircraft for return to service. Approval for return to service only for the work performed. Verification that the maintenance or alterations were performed referencing approved maintenance data.
Which of the following are sometimes used as authorization to deviate from an aircraft's original type design?
1. FAA Form 337.
2. Supplemental Type Certificate.
3. Airworthiness Directive.
4. Technical Standard Order 1, 2, 3, and 4. 1, 2, and 4. 1, 2, and 3.
Characteristics of aviation gasoline are: High heat value, High volatility. High heat value, Low volatility. Low heat value, Low volatility.
If electrolyte from a lead-acid battery is spilled in the battery compartment, which procedure should be followed? Apply boric acid solution to the affected area followed by a water rinse. Rinse the affected area thoroughly with clean water. Apply sodium bicarbonate solution to the affected area followed by a water rinse.
Nickel-cadmium battery cases and drain surfaces which have been affected by electrolyte should be neutralized with a solution of boric acid. sodium bicarbonate. potassium hydroxide.
ll of the following are consequences of human error, except mental stressor. catastrophic. personal injury. little or no effect damage to equipment/hardware.
A Technical Standard Order (TSO) is issued by whom? The Aircraft industry. Part manufacturers. The Administrator.
CFR Subchapter A: Definitions and Abbreviations Procedural Rules Aircraft Airmen.
CFR Subchapter B: Definitions and Abbreviations Procedural Rules Aircraft Airmen.
CFR Subchapter C: Definitions and Abbreviations Procedural Rules Aircraft Airmen.
CFR Subchapter D: Definitions and Abbreviations Procedural Rules Aircraft Airmen.
CFR Subchapter E: Airspace Air Traffic and General Operation Rules Air Carriers and Operators for Compensation or Hire: Certification and Operations Schools and Other Certificated Agencies.
CFR Subchapter F: Airspace Air Traffic and General Operation Rules Air Carriers and Operators for Compensation or Hire: Certification and Operations Schools and Other Certificated Agencies.
CFR Subchapter G: Airspace Air Traffic and General Operation Rules Air Carriers and Operators for Compensation or Hire: Certification and Operations Schools and Other Certificated Agencies.
CFR Subchapter H: Airspace Air Traffic and General Operation Rules Air Carriers and Operators for Compensation or Hire: Certification and Operations Schools and Other Certificated Agencies.
CFR Subchapter I: Airports Navigational Facilities Administrative Rules War Risk Insurance.
CFR Subchapter J: Airports Navigational Facilities Administrative Rules War Risk Insurance.
CFR Subchapter N: Airports Navigational Facilities Administrative Rules War Risk Insurance.
CFR Subchapter K: Airports Navigational Facilities Administrative Rules War Risk Insurance.
PCAR Part 1: General Policies and Procedures and Definitions Personnel Licensing Approved Training Organization Aircraft Registration and Marking.
PCAR Part 2: General Policies and Procedures and Definitions Personnel Licensing Approved Training Organization Aircraft Registration and Marking.
PCAR Part 4: General Policies and Procedures and Definitions Personnel Licensing Approved Training Organization Aircraft Registration and Marking.
PCAR Part 3: General Policies and Procedures and Definitions Personnel Licensing Approved Training Organization Aircraft Registration and Marking.
PCAR Part 5: Airworthiness Approved Maintenance Organization Instrument and Equipment Operations.
PCAR Part 7: Airworthiness Approved Maintenance Organization Instrument and Equipment Operations.
PCAR Part 6: Airworthiness Approved Maintenance Organization Instrument and Equipment Operations.
PCAR Part 8: Airworthiness Approved Maintenance Organization Instrument and Equipment Operations.
PCAR Part 9: Air Operator Certification and Administration Commercial Air Transport by Foreign Air Carriers within Republic of the Philippines Aerial Work and Operating Limitations for Non-Type Certificated Aircraft Accident and Incident Reporting and Investigation.
PCAR Part 10: Air Operator Certification and Administration Commercial Air Transport by Foreign Air Carriers within Republic of the Philippines Aerial Work and Operating Limitations for Non-Type Certificated Aircraft Accident and Incident Reporting and Investigation.
PCAR Part 11: Air Operator Certification and Administration Commercial Air Transport by Foreign Air Carriers within Republic of the Philippines Aerial Work and Operating Limitations for Non-Type Certificated Aircraft Accident and Incident Reporting and Investigation.
PCAR Part 13: Air Operator Certification and Administration Commercial Air Transport by Foreign Air Carriers within Republic of the Philippines Aerial Work and Operating Limitations for Non-Type Certificated Aircraft Accident and Incident Reporting and Investigation.
PCAR Part 18: Transportation of Dangerous Goods by Air Commercial Air Transport by Foreign Air Carriers within Republic of the Philippines Aerial Work and Operating Limitations for Non-Type Certificated Aircraft Accident and Incident Reporting and Investigation.
Which article of the Chicago Convention requires the Republic of the Philippines to issue certificates of competency and licenses or validate such certificates or licenses issued by other Contracting States to the pilot of every aircraft and to other members of the operating crew of every aircraft engaged in international navigation? 32 42 52 62.
This part of Philippines’ Civil Aviation Regulations present medical standards for the granting of licenses and certification, and for the administration of medical examinations. 2 5 8 9.
Which annex to the Chicago Convention serves as the basis of licensing and medical standards? 1 6 8 14.
The consistent use of good judgment and well-developed knowledge, skills, and attitudes to accomplish flight objectives. Airmanship Competency Error management Quality system.
Which PCAR Part prescribes the requirements for issuing, renewal, and re-issue of aviation personnel licenses, ratings, authorizations and certificates? 2 5 8 9.
A combination of skills, knowledge and attitudes required to perform a task to the prescribed standard. Airmanship Competency Error management Quality system.
Which of the following authorizations is not mention in PCAR Part 2? Student pilot authorization Inspection authorization Category I pilot authorization Category II pilot authorization Category III pilot authorization Examiner authorization.
Per PCAR Part 2, which of the following statements is not true regarding ratings on a pilot license? There are four category ratings of an aircraft: airplane, helicopter, glider, free balloon. Class ratings include single-engine-land-airplane, single-engine-sea airplane, multi-engine-land-airplane, and multi-engine-sea-airplane. Instruments rating are divided into two: instrument-airplane and instrument-helicopter. There are only two ratings for an instructor: flight and ground.
Aviation Medical Examiners (AME) shall receive refresher training at regular intervals, not more than _____ years. 2 3 4 5.
How long is the authorization for an Aviation Medical Examiner (AME) valid? 2 3 4 5.
The AME (Aviation Medical Examiners) shall have completed at least _____ examinations for a medical certificate per year. ten twenty twenty-eight forty-five.
Holders of licenses provided for in this Part shall inform the Authority of confirmed pregnancy or any decrease in medical fitness of a duration of more than _____ days or which requires continued treatment with prescribed medication or which has required hospital treatment. ten twenty twenty-eight forty-five.
How long is the validity period of the medical certificate for class 1 ATPL? 6 months 12 months 24 months 30 months.
How long is a class 2 medical certificate valid? 6 months 12 months 24 months 30 months.
How long is the class 3 ATCO medical certificate valid? 6 months 12 months 24 months 30 months.
Per PCAR Part 2, visual acuity tests must be conducted in an environment with a level of illumination that corresponds to ordinary office illumination of _____. six to twelve candela per square meter twelve to twenty-four candela per square meter twenty-four to thirty candela per square meter thirty to sixty candela per square meter.
What is the medical certificate appropriate for a commercial pilot? Class 1 Class 2 Class 3 Class 4.
What is the medical certificate appropriate for an airline transport pilot? Class 1 Class 2 Class 3 Class 4.
What is the medical certificate appropriate for a multi-crew pilot? Class 1 Class 2 Class 3 Class 4.
What is the medical certificate appropriate for a flight engineer? Class 1 Class 2 Class 3 Class 4.
What is the medical certificate appropriate for a flight navigator? Class 1 Class 2 Class 3 Class 4.
Referring to the requirements of class 1 and class 3 medical certificates, distant visual acuity with or without correction shall be _____ or better in each eye separately, and binocular visual acuity shall be _____ or better. 6/6; 6/9 6/12; 6/9 6/9; 6/6 6/12; 6/9.
In order to acquire a class 1 or class 3 medical certificates, an applicant should be tested on a pure-tone audiometer at first issue of license, not less than once every _____. three years five years thirty-five years fifty years.
Applicants for class 1 or class 3 medical certificates that have reached their 41st birthday should be tested on a pure-tone audiometer not less than once every _____. three years five years thirty-five years fifty years.
In general, the applicant for a medical certificate shall not have a hearing loss in either ear separately, of more than _____ dB at any of the frequencies 500, 1,000, or 2,000 Hz. three five thirty-five fifty.
In general, the applicant for a medical certificate shall not have a hearing loss in either ear separately, of more than _____ dB at 3,000 Hz. three five thirty-five fifty.
What is the medical certificate appropriate for a student pilot? Class 1 Class 2 Class 3 Class 4.
What is the medical certificate appropriate for a private pilot? Class 1 Class 2 Class 3 Class 4.
What is the medical certificate appropriate for a glider pilot? Class 1 Class 2 Class 3 Class 4.
What is the medical certificate appropriate for a free balloon pilot? Class 1 Class 2 Class 3 Class 4.
What is the medical certificate appropriate for an FOO (Flight Operation Officer)? Class 1 Class 2 Class 3 Class 4.
Referring to the requirements of class 2 medical certificate, distant visual acuity with or without correction shall be _____ or better in each eye separately, and binocular visual acuity shall be _____ or better. 6/6; 6/9 6/12; 6/9 6/9; 6/6 6/12; 6/9.
Applicants whose uncorrected distant visual acuity in either eye is worse than 6/60 should be required to provide a full ophthalmic report prior to initial Medical Certificate and every _____ thereafter. (for class 2 and class 3) three years five years thirty-five years fifty years.
It means to examine by sight and touch. Check Overhaul Repair Service Troubleshoot Inspect.
It means to verify proper operation. Check Overhaul Repair Service Troubleshoot Inspect.
It means to analyze and identify malfunctions. Check Overhaul Repair Service Troubleshoot Inspect.
It means to perform functions that assure continued operation. Check Overhaul Repair Service Troubleshoot Inspect.
It means to correct a defective condition Check Overhaul Repair Service Troubleshoot Inspect.
It means to disassemble, inspect, repair as necessary, and check. Check Overhaul Repair Service Troubleshoot Inspect.
What is the correct height of a marking to be used on a lighter-than-air aircraft? 50 centimeters 48 centimeters 45 centimeters 30 centimeters.
The height of letters “M” and “W” should be _____ its width. 2/3 of 1/6 of 3/5 of equal to.
The number “1” should be ____ wide as it is high. 1/6 1/4 1/2 2/3.
In general, the width of the characters for marking should be _____ the height. 2/3 of 1/6 of 3/5 of equal to.
Where are the marks located in an unmanned free balloon? Two places diametrically opposite each other On identification plate On each side Above either the rigging band or the points of attachment of the suspension cables.
What does RP-R mean? Commercial aircraft Glider aircraft Rotorcraft Industrial purposes aircraft.
Considering a heavier-than-air aircraft, the size of markings at the fuselage is _____. 50 centimeters 48 centimeters 45 centimeters 30 centimeters.
Which among the following is not acceptable to be used as an aircraft marking? PAN TTT XXX All of the above.
The size of marks for a heavier-than-air aircraft located at the wings is _____. 15 cm 30 cm 48 cm 50 cm.
The nationality mark for a Philippine registered aircraft is _____. Phil PH RP RoP.
A non-type certificated aircraft has a marking of _____. RP-C RP-E RP-G RP-I RP-R RP-S RP-X.
Which PCAR Part sets forth the requirements for registration of aircraft in the Republic of the Philippines and governs the application of nationality and registration marks? 4 6 7 8.
What is the title of PCAR Part 4? Personnel Licensing Approved Training Organization Aircraft Registration and Marking Airworthiness.
Who issues the Certificate of Aircraft Registration? Civil Aeronautics Board Executive Director Commanding General of the Philippine Air Force Director of Flight Standards Inspectorate Service Secretary of Transportation.
Which nationality and registration marks classify aircraft, except gliders, as complying fully with the airworthiness requirements as the case may be for the purpose of carrying persons or property, for or without hire? RP-C RP-E RP-G RP-I RP-R RP-S RP-X.
The Roman capital letters _____ will classify an aircraft as one that has applied for an experimental certificate. RP-C RP-E RP-G RP-I RP-R RP-S RP-X.
Which nationality and registration marks should be seen on aircrafts used for industrial purposes only? RP-C RP-E RP-G RP-I RP-R RP-S RP-X.
A glider complying fully with airworthiness requirements shall bear the Roman capital letters _____ immediately preceding the license number/s. RP-C RP-E RP-G RP-I RP-R RP-S RP-X.
Considering a heavier-than-air aircraft, the size of markings at the vertical tail structure is _____. 15 cm 30 cm 48 cm 50 cm.
Considering an airplane, what should be the height of the marking on its wing? 15 cm 30 cm 48 cm 50 cm.
Characters shall be formed by solid lines _____ thick as the character is high. 2/3 as 1/6 as 1/4 as equal.
PCAR Part 4 is derived from ICAO Annex _____. 4 7 6 8.
The space between each character may not be less than _____ the character width. 2/3 1/6 1/4 1/2.
Which is not a lighter-than-air aircraft? Airships Glider Non-spherical balloons Spherical balloons Unmanned free balloons.
Which lighter-than-air aircraft requires markings to appear in two places diametrically opposite each other and located near the maximum horizontal circumference of the balloon? Airships Glider Non-spherical balloons Spherical balloons Unmanned free balloons.
The operator shall apply marks on this lighter-than-aircraft on each side, located near the maximum cross-section of the balloon immediately above either the rigging band or the points of attachment of the basket suspension cables. Airships Glider Non-spherical balloons Spherical balloons Unmanned free balloons.
The operator shall place marks on a/an _____ to appear on the hull, located lengthwise on each side of the hull and on its upper surface on the line of symmetry. Airships Unmanned free balloons Non-spherical balloons Spherical balloons.
It is also known as “blimp.” Airships Unmanned free balloons Non-spherical balloons Spherical balloons.
Which among the following is a powered, steerable lighter-than-air aircraft? Airplane Balloon Dirigible Helicopter.
Any aircraft supported chiefly by its buoyancy in the air. Heavier-than-air Aerodynes Aerostats / Lighter-than-air.
Any aircraft deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic forces. Heavier-than-air / Aerodynes Lighter-than-air Aerostats .
A non-power-driven lighter-than-air aircraft. Airplane Balloon Glider Gyroplane Helicopter Ornithopter Airship.
A power-driven lighter-than-air aircraft. Airplane Balloon Glider Gyroplane Helicopter Ornithopter Airship.
A non-power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces that remain fixed under given conditions of flight. Airplane Balloon Glider Gyroplane Helicopter Ornithopter Airship.
A power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces that remain fixed under given conditions of flight. Airplane Balloon Glider Gyroplane Helicopter Ornithopter Airship.
A heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by the reactions of the air on one or more power-driven rotors on substantially vertical axes. Airplane Balloon Glider Gyroplane Helicopter Ornithopter Airship.
A heaver-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by the reactions of the air on planes to which a flapping motion is imparted. Airplane Balloon Glider Gyroplane Helicopter Ornithopter Airship.
A heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight by the reactions of the air on one or more rotors that rotate freely on substantially vertical axes. Airplane Balloon Glider Gyroplane Helicopter Ornithopter Airship.
Which is not another name for a gyroplane? Autogyros Gyrocopter Rotaplane None of the above.
Which is a is a type of rotorcraft that uses an unpowered rotor in autorotation to develop lift, and an engine-powered propeller, similar to that of a fixed-wing aircraft, to provide thrust? Autogyros Flettner airplane Tiltrotor VTOL.
It is a type of rotor airplane that uses a rotating cylinder in place of a fixed wing, obtaining lift from the Magnus effect. Autogyros Flettner airplane Tiltrotor VTOL.
It is an aircraft that can hover, take off, and land vertically. Autogyros Flettner airplane Tiltrotor VTOL.
Concerning an aircraft registration, no combination of letters can be used which can be confused with distress codes, for example _____. RCC DDD LLL PAN.
What cannot be included in a registration mark? LLL RCC TTT FFF.
What registration is disallowed because of possible confusion with distress/urgency signals? RCC NNN XXX ZZZ.
Which of the following registration marks would not be permitted? G-PRAT SY-PAN 3T-SSS YT-LLL.
Which of the following is not allowed in a registration mark? NNN XXX RCC DDD.
What is the minimum rest period of a person who will perform maintenance function? 8 10 12 16 20 24.
What is the maximum number of consecutive hours allowed to a person performing maintenance function? 8 10 12 16 20 24.
A person performing maintenance functions is limited only to _____ consecutive hours of duty. 8 10 12 16 20 24.
In situations involving unscheduled aircraft unserviceability, persons performing maintenance functions for aircraft may be continued on duty for up to _____ consecutive hours. 8 hours in 24 10 hours in 24 12 hours in 24 20 hours in 24 .
Following unscheduled duty periods, the person performing maintenance functions for aircraft shall have a mandatory rest period of _____ hours. 8 10 12 16 20 24.
How long (in hours) should the person performing maintenance functions be relieved from all duties during any 7 consecutive day period? 8 10 12 16 20 24.
A change in which of the following will result to a new certificate number? Name of organization Ownership Accountable manager List of management personnel.
Records are maintained in active file for _____ years then transferred to dead storage for _____ additional years. 2;5 2;2 5;2 5;5.
All 100-hour and annual inspection paperwork will comply with PCAR Part _____. 2 3 5 6.
What is the title of PCAR Part 7? Aircraft Registration and Marking Airworthiness Instruments and Equipment Operations.
what is the international aeronautical emergency frequency? 400 Hz 2.5000 MHz 290 Mhz 121.5 Mhz.
Bombardier Q400 NextGen can carry 90 passengers. How many portable fire extinguishers should be present in the airplane? 2 3 4 5 6 7 8.
Public address system is required for airplanes carrying _____ passengers. more than 19 more than 25 more than 30 more than 51.
Which should be installed or readily available on all seaplanes for flight? Anchor Drogue Maritime sound signaling device All of the above.
All persons who conduct aerial work in Republic of the Philippines must comply with certification requirements of which PCAR Part? 6 9 11 13.
In cases of an accident/incident involving dangerous goods, within how many hours should it be reported to the Civil Aviation Authority of the Philippines? 24 48 72 120.
The act creating the Civil Aeronautics Board and the Bureau of Air Transportation, which is known as Air Transportation Office, is the _____. RA 677 RA 778 RA 776 RA 887.
The first licensure examination for aeronautical engineers was conducted by the PRC last _____. July 1982 July 1983 November 1982 November 1983.
Creation of Mactan Cebu International Authority, or “The Charter of Mactan-Cebu International Airport Authority.” R.A. 6958 E.O. 778 P.D. 286 R.A. 9497.
Creation of the Manila International Airport Authority. R.A. 6958 E.O. 778 P.D. 286 R.A. 9497.
Creation of the Philippine Aerospace Development Corporation. R.A. 6958 E.O. 778 P.D. 286 R.A. 9497.
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