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The captain must conduct the takeoff (ground roll through clean-up) when visibility is less than _____ft. RVR for any RVR on that runway, or ¼ statue mile (if no RVR is reported for that runway). 5000. 4800. 2400. 1600.

The Takeoff and Approach Legality Tables can be found in: Performance Manual. FOM and QRH on some fleets. MEL. Aircraft Operating Manual.

If established _______and ATC issues a microburst alert for the runway of intended landing, a go-around must be executed, and if necessary, accomplish windshear escape procedures. in the procedure turn. in the hold for the approach. on the final approach segment of an approach. on the OPD descent from altitude.

For extended ground delays, the Tarmac Delay clock starts ________. when the aircraft departs the gate. 4 hours after door closure on a domestic flight. when the last cabin entry door used by passengers is closed. 30 minutes after an aircraft has left the gate.

Should the required equipment fail prior to entering Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) airspace_______. Contact ATC to get clearance that avoids flight within RVSM airspace. Continue on route and squawk 7600. Continue on route and send ACARS message to IOC. Contact IOC and continue on planned route.

ATC phraseology for taxiing into position for takeoff on the departure runway and waiting for takeoff clearance is: "Taxi in position and hold". "Taxi to holding point". "Line up and wait at hot spot". "Line up and wait".

What are the minimums for the "Circle to Land Approach Maneuver"?. 2000/5. 3000/3. 1000/3. 2000/3.

The Flight Operations Manual sets forth corporate policies, procedures, _________. Aircraft limitations. Quick reference Handbook procedures. Aircraft systems information. FARs and AA operations specifications.

The following operational priorities, which must be taken into consideration to ensure operating integrity and consistency in American Airlines' system of service are: Passenger comfort, on-time departures, and safety. On-time arrivals, fuel conservation, and on-time departures. Safety, customer service, and operating economics. Fuel savings, customer service, and operating economics.

______ come at the crew, _______ come from the crew. Threats; Errors. Distractions; Complacency. PM; PF. Task Loading; CERs.

In reference to the Threat and Error Management (TEM) Model, what does it mean to be in the yellow?. You are safe and have the big picture. You are unsafe and have tunnel vision. You must now rely solely on knowledge, skills, and aircraft handling. You are marginal and your focus has narrowed.

The ABCs in the Threat and Error Management (TEM) Model stand for?. Assess & Account for duties, Brief Barriers, CRM, Standards & Policies. Allow Assessments, Balance & Brief Threats, Crew Communications, Follow SOPs. Actively Monitor & Assess, Balance available Barriers, Communicate, Follow SOPs. Actively Assess for threats, Brief available Barriers, Communicate with Crew, Standardize task loading.

Air Total Halon extinguisher can be used on _______ type fires. Class A, B, and C. Class A. Class B. Class A and Class C only.

When operating any of the Halon fire extinguishers, the first step is to: twist the handle counterclockwise to puncture the cartridge. twist the handle clockwise to puncture the cartridge. break the safety wire holding the pin or lever on the handle. check for CO2 cartridge.

Notes direct the pilot to review the Attention All Users Page. This page is to be reviewed... on a missed approach. prior to conducting a PRM approach. during a PRM approach. after conducting a PRM approach.

Regarding ILS/PRM breakout procedures, if you receive instructions from the controller that conflict with a TCAS RA vertical guidance, you should... comply with the controller's vertical and lateral instructions. follow RA guidance and comply with the controller's vertical instructions. comply only with the RA guidance and report the RA deviation to the controller. follow RA vertical guidance and comply with the controller's lateral instructions.

The NO Transgression Zone (NTZ) is...?. an area at least 2000 feet wide between the simultaneous parallel approach courses. a restricted area for deicing trucks. not used with ILS/PRM approaches. an area of undefined width between the runways.

A person with a communicable disease cannot be refused boarding as long as he/she has a letter from the ________ certifying travel is not a danger to others. Center for Disease Control (CDC) or a physician. Complaint Resolution Official (CRO) or Center for Disease Control (CDC). MedAire or System Customer Service Manager (SCSM). AA Medical Department or Physician On Call (POC).

American Airlines ______ limit the number of disabled individuals and _______ refuse transportation to a person based on their disability. can, can. cannot, can. can, cannot. cannot, cannot.

For general thunderstorms with radar tops between 25,000-30,000 feet, avoid all detectable precipitation and visible cloud by: at least 5 miles. at least 35 miles. at least 15 miles. a sufficient distance between the radar returns on the weather radar.

The ______ is recognized as potentially the most dangerous form of windshear. moderate windshear. mountain wave windshear. onshore windshear. microburst windshear.

Volcanic ash: can cause rapid damage to the engine. is not very abrasive. is not very hazardous to aircraft. can be seen at night.

What is FLT 649's planned takeoff weight?. 179.3. 184.7. 149.6. 177.3.

If the temperature stays the same on FLT 649 with the current TPS, Departing on RWY 07L, which of the following intersections can you accept for departure?. E11. E4. E12. B4.

Holdover time is defined as the: time you are allowed to hold after deicing while awaiting the removal of the jetbridge. estimated time that it takes for ice to form on the windshield. estimated time that it takes for ice to form on heated surfaces. estimated time between the start of the fluid application and fluid failure.

If FLT 649 plans to depart from RWY 07L, what are the V1, VR, and V2 speeds?. 156, 164, 164. Request new TPS. 155, 163, 164. 153, 162, 164.

The Primary source for holdover time calculations is the: Flight Operations Training Manual (FOTM). Flight Operations Manual. HOT iPad app. QRH.

Per CFR 121.629 and the Winter Ops Part | CBT, Clean Aircraft policy states: The captain may dispatch, release, takeoff and continue to operate an aircraft enroute, or land an aircraft that in the opinion of the pilot or aircraft dispatcher icing conditions are expected or met that might adversely affect the safety of the flight. No person may dispatch, release, takeoff and continue to operate an aircraft enroute, or land an aircraft that in the opinion of the pilot or aircraft dispatcher icing conditions are expected or met that might adversely affect the safety of the flight. The flight crew may dispatch, release, takeoff and continue to operate an aircraft enroute, or land an aircraft that in the opinion of the pilot or aircraft dispatcher icing conditions are expected or met that might adversely affect the safety of the flight. The dispatcher may dispatch, release, takeoff and continue to operate an aircraft enroute, or land an aircraft that in the opinion of the pilot or aircraft dispatcher icing conditions are expected or met that might adversely affect the safety of the flight.

If, inflight, you recognize the onset of any of the symptoms of hypoxia: Notify ATC for an emergency descent. Don your oxygen mask immediately. Inform the #1 Flight Attendant. Send ACARS message to IOC and then don PBE.

The onset of hypoxia can be affected by _______ and overall health condition. Age, height. Age, weight, being a smoker. Weight, height. Being a smoker, height.

Compliance with an RA is required unless: ATC advises differently. Not approved by IOC. In the captain's opinion, doing so would compromise the safe operation of the flight. One pilot disagrees with the advisory.

When responding to a Resolution Advisory, the pilot must: Monitor the other aircraft's intentions, then react. Call ATC immediately. Disregard if in VFR. Disconnect the autopilot and hand fly.

The "LEVEL OFF, LEVEL OFF" RA requires crews to: Descend. Monitor weather. Reduce vertical speed of the aircraft to 0 feet per minute. Climb.

Regaining aircraft control __________. Should never be delayed to use automation. Should be delayed to use automation. Can best be handled by using the highest levels of automation. By not hand flying and let automation correct the situation.

The pilot flying is incapacitated if they fail to respond to _______ verbal requests for a checklist item: 1. 2. 3. 4.

Pilots must be proficient at _______ of automation. All levels. The Minimum levels. The Thrust only level. The Navigation only level.

Regaining aircraft control ____________ . Should never be delayed to use automation. Should be delayed to use automation. Can best be handled by using the highest levels of automation. By not hand flying and let automation correct the situation.

The pilot flying is incapacitated if they fail to respond to _________ verbal requests for a checklist item: 1. 2. 3. 4.

The key to early recognition of pilot incapacitation is ________ . Chatting during sterile flightdeck. The regular use of the appropriate crew resource management concept. To purposefully not respond to a checklist item to see if the other pilot is alert and aware. To tell the other pilot if you are not feeling well and you should assume PF duties.

If the pilot flying is confirmed to be incapacitated, ________ . Take over control and declare an emergency. Let the flight attendants know. Open the flightdeck door to get more air to the flightdeck. Take over control but wait to declare an emergency.

Dimensions of RVSM airspace extend from: FL180 and FL330 (inclusive). FL290 and FL330 (inclusive). FL290 and FL410 (inclusive). FL290 and FL400 (inclusive).

You have leveled off in cruise and are accomplishing your altimeter check. Maximum divergence between both primary altimeter systems is: 200 feet. 300 feet. 400 feet. 100 feet.

Where can the flight crew find the total souls on board count information?. The gate agent provides the total passenger count information. The PSGR count plus the number of crew equals the TSOB. TSOB number listed on the load closeout. TSOB equals PSGR count plus the number of W and X passengers.

Refer to the Load Closeout for Flight 42 to answer the next 2 questions. What is the closeout zero fuel weight for Flight 42?. 137,864. 17,184. 93,300. 120,680.

The flight crew will use the _________ as the final weight and balance for each flight. Load Closeout. ОСС Numbers. Dispatch Release. The Ramp Agent Closeout.

A Weight Restricted Flight is designated via a warning issued on the TPS Departure Plan when the planned weight of the aircraft is within ________ pounds of any structural or inflight weight limitation. 1000. 1500. 1200. 200.

When an enroute clearance is received, it is the flightdeck crew's responsibility to ensure hat the clearance is in conformance with such factors as ________ for terrain clearance. Minimum Crossing Altitude (MCA). Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA). MEAS, MOCAS, & MORAS. ATC assigned altitudes.

What are your MINIMUM safe altitudes for IFR operations on an airways?. Flight Release assigned altitudes. Dispatch assigned altitudes. Above 1000' within 35 nm from a VOR. Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA) & Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude (MOCA).

Refer to the Flight Plan for Flight 649. Flight 649, what is the Min TO fuel?. 14448. 26691. 28550. 14102.

Refer to the Flight Plan for Flight 649 Flight 649, what is the total fuel burn from PHX to DFW?. 14102. 14448. 26691. 28550.

Refer to the Flight Plan for Flight 649 Flight 649, what is the initial planned top of climb altitude?. FL310. FL250. FL350. FL390.

Notify _______as soon as possible of a decision to divert to any airport other than the intended destination. the passengers. Dispatch. the flight attendants. the chief pilot.

A flight may not land at an airport that is not the destination or a designated alternate on the original dispatch release unless: FSS is contacted. The Chief Pilot's Office is contacted. Station operations is contacted. An amended dispatch release is obtained or the captain exercises emergency authority.

An MEL with a follow-up action will be shown on the release as _______ . "*P". "*F". "*A". "*M".

A _________ placard is used for MEL/CDL/NEF items if there are continuing maintenance actions or repetitive checks. Yellow. Green. White. Striped.

Prior to the first flight on a particular aircraft, all flight crewmembers shall review the AML. What should this include?. At least three calendar days worth of the AML pages. Verification of last Flight Competency Check (FCC) . A call to MOD-MOC. A call to the Flight Operations Manager.

Driftdown decision points and enroute alternate information will appear in _________, if applicable. The TPS. The special flight notifications section of the flight plan/dispatch release. The body section of the flight plan/dispatch release. The remarks section of the flight plan/dispatch release.

Per TSA regulations, the Gate Reader is the preferred method of verifying a crewmember's ID. If the Gate Reader is not operable, and the captain is present, the __________ may advise the agent that they have checked the identity and flight assignment of each working crewmember present prior to the crewmember entering the jetbridge. Captain. Ramp Agent. First Officer. Purser/FA 1.

Who is designated as the Inflight Security Coordinator?. Only the captain. Either the captain or first officer can be designated as the Inflight Security Coordinator. The senior flight crewmember. The dispatcher will note the ISC on the release.

FAMs __________ in a passenger disturbance in the cabin. will always intervene. will only intervene if requested by a crewmember. will never intervene. may or may not intervene.

ICAO standard intercept signals are located in the... Flight Operations Training Manual (FOTM). Flight Operations Manual (FOM). Operating Manual Volume 1 (OM Vol 1). Quick Reference Handbook (QRH).

What is the Threat Level category for disruptive or suspicious behavior?. Level 4. Level 3. Level 1. Level 2.

An attempted breach of the flight deck would be classified as what Threat Level?. Level 1. Level 2. Level 3. Level 4.

What actions by the flight crew are required for a Threat Level 4 in flight?. Declare an emergency with ATC, squawk 7700, expect intercept intervention, and land as soon as possible at the nearest suitable airport. Broadcast "mayday...mayday...mayday" and land at the nearest suitable airport. Notify the TSA, and land at the nearest suitable airport. Declare an emergency with ATC, squawk 7500, expect intercept intervention, and land as soon as possible at the nearest suitable airport.

If a suspect device is discovered aboard the aircraft while in flight, follow the least risk bomb location (LRBL)/bomb on board procedures located in the ____________ . Flight Operations Manual (FOM). Flight Operations Training Manual (FOTM). OM Volume 1, Non-Normal Operations (Chapter4). Quick Reference Handbook (QRH).

Watch for suspicious behavior any time the door is open and call out __________ anytime the door needs to be closed immediately. "Shut the door". "Close the door". "Security". "Door! Door! Door!".

To return to the flightdeck, the pilot will: Enter the door code in the flightdeck door key pad then wait to have their presence verified through the flightdeck door viewer (peep hole). Use the interphone and then wait to have their presence confirmed through the flightdeck door viewer (peep hole). Activate the flightdeck buzzer through the flightdeck door key pad and wait to have their presence confirmed through the flightdeck door viewer (peep hole). Knock two times on the flightdeck door and wait to have their presence confirmed through the flightdeck door viewer (peep hole).

_________ will fly the approach and land the aircraft when the reported visibility is less than CAT I minimums. The pilot in command. The first officer. The pilot who feels the most comfortable landing at the specified airfield. The purser.

Published Category II ILS approaches may be conducted when the reported RVR is less than ________, but not less than __________ . RVR 1800/RVR 1600. RVR 1600/RVR 1200. RVR 1600/RVR 1400. RVR 1800/RVR 1000.

An aircraft with a "Limited Extended Overwater" placard on the AML can operate no more than _______NM from shore in the Gulf of Mexico?. 162. 100. 50. 189.

American Airlines policy is to change the Altimeter setting from QNH to QNE when: Climbing and approaching the Transition Level. Climbing and approaching the Transition Altitude. Climbing through FL 290. Descending and approaching the Transition Level.

The ICAO Standard for altimeter setting units of measurement is. ___________ . Hectopascals. Inches of Mercury. MM of Mercury. Feet of water.