Which one of the following statements is true? The APU is supplied by the aircraft fuel system via two APU fuel pumps (forward or aft). The APU is supplied by its own fuel reservoir. The APU is supplied by the aircraft fuel system via the single APU fuel pump .
During take off and go around, the APU can supply the pneumatic power. To reduce pressure changes for greater passenger comfort. To increase bleed pressure at high engine RPM To increase aircraft performance during critical phases of flight .
On the ground with engines not running, the APU can be started using: All three aircraft batteries The engine bleed air. APU battery .
In flight if the APU is started on batteries only: The APU may be started up to FL 410 The APU start is limited to FL 300 The APU will not start .
If APU is operating during flight: You may use APU ELEC plus bleed air up to FL 230 Use of electric power only is restricted to FL 250 There are no altitude restrictions on use of APU electrics or bleed air.
A 60 minutes cool down period must be observed: After 3 start attempts without a cool down After 2 consecutive start attempts After 2 start attempts provided a 1 minute cool down was observed after the first start. .
An emergency shutdown of the APU can be performed from the: Refuel/ Defuel panel and blue hydraulic service panel Refuel/ Defuel panel , external power panel and APU fire pb The APU cannot be shut down from outside the aircraft. .
The emergency ram air inlet flap can be opened: To provide air to pack compressor. For aircraft ventilation or smoke removal. Provided the differential pressure is greater than 1 psi. .
Air for ventilation of the toilets and galleys comes from: Individual air outlets in the pack bay. The cabin trim air system. Two bleed sources in the air conditioning trim air system.
The pressurization system is: Capable of fully automatic operation only. Capable of automatic operation, backed up by manual operation if needed. Capable of manual operation only. .
In the normal operation, landing elevation: Must be selected from one of the FMGCs. May be selected from an FMGC or manually selected from LDG ELEV selector. Must be selected manually. .
While operating in the AUTO PRESS mode, the aircraft will depressurize: Immediately after landing because the outflow valves will fully open when touchdown is sensed. At a scheduled rate after landing. One minute prior to landing. .
Which statement is true about the cabin pressure controllers? Both cabin pressure controllers have backup power supplies for cabin altitude sensing and ECAM display in the manual mode. Both cabin pressure controllers have no backup power supplies. Only one cabin pressure controller has a backup power supply for cabin altitude sensing and ECAM display in the manual mode. .
Shortly after takeoff, the crew decides to level-off and return to the point of departure. Which statement is true? The new landing elevation must be reset manually to stop the cabin from climbing. The new landing elevation must be reset manually or automatically to stop the cabin from climbing. The cabin altitude will stop climbing without any action on the pressurization system. .
The outflow valves can be: Controlled independently in the manual mode, depending on the selections on the CABIN PRESS panel. Controlled manually or automatically, but must both be controlled in the same mode. Controlled independently in the automatic mode, must be controlled together in the manual mode. .
Two cabin fans are used to: Ventilate the avionics by the recirculated air from the cabin. Ventilate the lavatories and galleys. Ventilate the pack bays. .
According to the ECAM BLEED page, Pack operation is normal and pack flow is high. This is normal operation indication. PACK 1 air cycle machine has failed, the air is being cooled by the heat exchanger and the flow is bypassing the air cycle machine through the bypass valve. .
The electric fan which discharges LAV and GALLEY ventilation air overboard: Is controlled by the pilot from the VENTILATION panel. Is controlled by the cabin crew from the forward attendant control panel. Cannot be controlled by the crew, it operates automatically. .
PAK BAY ventilation: Is controlled from the VENTILATION panel and monitored on the PRESS ECAM page. Is controlled from the VENTILATION panel, normal system operation cannot be monitored. Cannot be controlled or monitored by the pilot when operating normally.
The pilot has just set the BULK cargo compartment ISOL VALVES to off. This closes the bulk cargo ventilation: ISOL VALVES only; closure can be observed on the ECAM CRUISE page. ISOL VALVES and stops the extract fan; these actions can be observed on the COND ECAM page. ISOL VALVES and stops the extract fan; actions cannot be viewed on the ECAM. .
In the cargo compartment, isolation valves close in case of: CAB FANS pb set to off. HOT AIR pbs set to off. ISOL VALVES pb set to off. .
What is the function of the trim air valves? To optimize zone temperature by adding mixed air to cold air To optimize zone temperature by adding hot air to mixed air. To regulate hot air pressure. .
Which statement is correct for a PACK1 overheat? When the PACK 1 pb is set to off, the FAULT light will extinguish automatically. The FAULT light will remain on as long as an overheat condition exists regardless of the PACK pb sw position. The FAULT light must be reset on the ground.
What is the function of each pack controller? To control the trim air valves. To control the zone controller. To control the corresponding pack.
The zone controller controls: The hot air valves. The trim air valves. The pack flow control valves.
The safety valves are designed to: Replace the outflow valves. Prevent excessive positive or negatives differential pressure. Avoid negative differential pressure. .
If only one outflow valve is manually selected Both outflow valves are controlled the remaining CPC. The other one remains under the actives CPC control. The other one remains under the other CPC control.
Which motor is controlled from the CABIN PRESS panel by the MAN V/S switch, when manual mode is selected on the MODE SEL pb? Motor 1 and motor 2. Motor1 Motor 3. .
The purpose of the autoflight system is to: Improve the comfort, safety, and fuel efficiency of the aircraft. Automate the aircraft so that the A330 can fly itself without pilot input. Act as a third pilot monitoring the flight of the aircraft.
When autothrust is active, thrust levers: Move by themselves according to thrust demands. Move only when the pilot moves them. Thrust levers 1 moves by itself 2 moves only when the pilot moves it.
You can disengage the Auto pilot by: Moving the sidestick or extending the flaps. Moving the thrust levers to A/P disconnect or using the speed brakes. Pushing the disconnect pb on the sidestick, overriding the rudder pedals or pushing again the AP pb (on thr FCU). .
The flight envelope is part of: The auto throttle system. The flight management system. The flight management and guidance computer.
The auto throttle (A/THR) system: Has its own computer with dual channels. Is associated with auto pilot system, either 1 or 2. Always uses auto pilot system with 2 as backup. .
To display localizer and glide slope indications on the PFD, you need to: Press the APPR pushbutton on the glaredhield. Press the LS pushbutton on the EFIS control panel Press the LOC pushbutton on the glareshield.
You are climbing. To level off immediately, you should: Push the altitude selector knob. Push the ALT pushbutton on the glareshield. Pull the altitude selector knob. .
To change the values of speed to Mach on the FCU, you need to: Push the speed knob. Push the Speed/Mach pushbutton. Push the HDG-V/S/TRK-FPA pushbutton. .
The second column on the FMA represens: AP/FD lateral modes. Autothrust operation. AP/FD longitudinal operation .
Select the true statement regarding the FMA: Speed mode is engaged. G/S mode is armed FD2 is not engaged. A/THR is armed but not active. LOC* MODE IS engaged thru the V/S mode.
The A330 thrust levers are not only used to supply thrust but also send input to the FMGC: For extension and retraction of the landing gear. To command particular autoflight modes To add back pressure to the sidestick. .
If requested information such as GW, CRZ FL, and COST INDEX are not entered into the MCDU: The FMGC cannot command managed speed. You cannot select a speed on the FCU. The FMGC cannot provide guidance commands. .
The flight management part of the FMGC: Automatically extends flaps and slats when normally needed. Predicts time, speed, altitude, and fuel along the flight plan. Will display a warning if you select an off course heading. .
The NAV DATA BASE: Has to be charged every 28 days. Can be changed in flight if needed. Change automatically at every AIRAC cycle.
The PERF BASE: Must be update every 28 days. Is readily accessible by the crew. Can only be modified by the maintenance team. .
In the normal operations, interfacing with the FMGCs is carried out by: All three MCDUs MCDU 1 and 3 while number 2 is used for data entries only. MCDU 1 and 2 while the third MCDU is used for other functions.
MCDU 3 is a stand-by unit capable of replacing MCDU one or two: Anytime MCDU 1 or 2 is switched to off, failed or not. Only when 1 or 2 has a failure and then switched to off. Automatically when MCDU 1 or 2 fails. .
To select BACK-UP NAV on the MCDU: Set the FM switching panel to "BOTH ON 2". Set your mode selector switches on the IRS panel to off. Select the BACK-UP NAV function on the MCDU menu page.
The MIX IRS position is: The FMGC position and the radio position averaged together. An average of the bias and the radio position. The average of the IRS1, IRS2, and IRS3 positions. .
Normally, to load the latitude and the longitude of the departure airport into the 3 IRSs, the pilot should: Type this data into the IRS keypad on the overhead panel. Depress the line select key next to the amber "ALIGN IRS" prompt. Start a short IRS realignment using the IR rotary selectors. .
The FM managed altitude/speed energy transfer (for altitude change combined with speed change) is done with: 70% potential energy and 30% kinetic energy 30% potential energy and 70% kinetic energy 50% potential energy and 50% kinetic energy .
The g load threshold is increased to 0.30g in case: Full pitch up/ down order on the side stick. Altitude interception. loc or Glide interception. .
soft altitude mode consists in: maintaining precisely the altitude and the speed +/_4kt. maintaining the altitude +/_50ft and precisely the speed. Maintaining the altitude +/_50ft and the speed +/_4kt.
The Flight Guidance performs: The AP function, the FD function and the A/THR function. Only the FD function and the cross track information. The flight envelope computation and the flight path control.
The Flight Guidance function displays information on: PFD-ND and ECAM displays. Only ECAM and FCU. PFD-FCU-FMA and ECAM. .
The AUTO PILOT function: Is lost in case of both FM failure. Remains available in case of both FG failure.
The FE part performs GW and CG calculations: To determine necessary lift force on tail To compare with crew entry. For display only on the ECAM page. .
In case of loss of both FCMC: Fuel transfers must be manual. The FE part is in charge of the fuel transfers. Auto-trim is lost. .
The crew entry of the ZFW and the CG is: Mandatory on INIT B or FUEL PRED pages. For display only. Not necessary because defaulted on ground by the WBS. .
To extinguish the SELCAL light on VHF 2 the captain must: Select the VHF 2 transmission key. Select the ON VOICE pushbutton. Push the RESET pushbutton. .
RMP 1 can tune: VHF1 and VHF2 only. VHF1 only. Any VHF .
To transmit on VHF1, the Captain: Can use sidestick radio selector, interphone radio or hand mike. Must first deselect the INT reception knob. Must first deselect the INT and VHF2 reception knobs.
The CIDS provides for: Communication with the mechanic in the nose wheel well. Short range VHF communication. Public address announcements. .
If CIDS is lost, which of the following will be inoperative? PA system and cabin/cockpit interphone. Communications with mechanic in nose wheel well. SELCAL system.
To make a PA annoucement the pilot can: Use the ON VOICE pushbutton. Select CAB transmission key and use the boom mike Use the cockpit hand-set on the pedestal.
To extinguish the ATT call light the pilot should: Push the RESET button. Answer the call from the cabin. Press the appropriate button on the overhead CALLS panel.
To test the CVR during preflight the pilot should turn on the CVR with the RCDR GND CTL pb, push the test button and: Check for one green in the LED sequence. Check for all green in the LED sequence. Check for one red in the LED sequence. .
The cockpit voice recorder records annoucements on the passenger address system provide PA reception knob is selected on: The Captain's ACP The third occupant's ACP. The fourth occupant's ACP.
To erase the CVR tape the aircraft must: Be on the ground and parking brake on. Have all engines shutdown. Be operating on external power only.
A SELCAL gives visual and aural indications: To the ground mechanics when they are called by the crew. To the crew when they are called by a ground station. To the flight attendants when they are called by the crew. .
The cabin interphone system provides communication: Between the flight crew and the cabin stations. Between the ground station and the cabin attendant stations. Between the flight crew and the ground station. .
The passenger address provides voice announcements: Only from the cockpit to the cabin passengers. From the cockpit to the flight attendant stations. From the cockpit and the flight attendant stations to the cabin passengers. .
For the captain, to transmit on VHF2 he must: Select VHF2 on his RMP. Select VHF2 transmission key on his ACP. Select VHF2 on his RMP and VHF2 transmission key on his ACP. .
If the captain selects VHF2 on RMP1: Only the SEL light on RMP1 will illuminate. Only the SEL light on RMP2 will illuminate. The SEL light on RMP2 and RMP1will illuminate. .
With the INT/RAD switch on the Audio Control Panel in the INT position and the sidestick radio selector in the radio position, you are transmitting on the: Interoom at all times. Radio selected by the left-most reception knob on the Audio Control Panel. Radio selected by the Transmission key on the Audio Control Panel. .
Electrical Contactor Management Unit (ECMU) function is: Control of AC and DC bus ties. TR contactors monitoring. Automatic management and monitoring.
Loss of one generator or TR: Results in the loss of the corresponding AC or DC bus. Has no effect on flight. Requires to have the APU generator operational. .
The minimum number of generators required to supply all the network (in a non-overload condition) is: One engine generator. One engine generators and the EMER generator. Two engine generators. .
The Emergency Generator is powered by: A Ram Air Turbine. The green hydraulic system which is pressurized by engine 1 or 2 driven hydraulic pump or by a Ram Air Turbine. The Static Inverter.
An engine generator is driven: At a ratio of 5:1 to engine speed. Direct from the Accessory Gear Box. By an Integrated Drive (IDG). .
Each engine generator supplies power to: Its assigned AC BUS in normal operation. The opposite side AC bus in normal operation. Only its assigned BUS in all cases.
The APU battery: Can be used as a backup for Battery one or Battery Two. Is dedicated to APU start only. May be used for Engine Start when the APU is not available. .
In flight, APU not running, an engine generator has failed. Which source is supplying the corresponding AC BUS? The static inverter. The AC BUS is lost. The other side engine generator.
Two Electrical Contractor Management Units (ECMU) provide: Control of TR contactors. AC and DC contactors control and monitoring except for TR contactors. AC and DC contactors control and monitoring galley shedding and no break power transfer except TR contactors which have their own control.
During EMER GEN automatic start up sequence: The MAN ON pb must be pushed to extinguish red FAULT light on the EMER ELEC CTRL PANEL. It is not recommended to push the MAN ON pb to confirm EMER ELEC config on the EMER ELEC PANEL. Red FAULT light on EMER ELECT PANEL will remain on until the EMER GEN reaches its norminal output. .
The EMER GEN is being powered by a hydraulic system pressurized by an engine driven hydraulic pump. Pressing the LAND RECOVERY pushbutton switch will: Operate when the gear is extended. Normally recover the AC and DC LAND RECOVERY BUSES and the DC SHED LAND RECOVERY BUS. This will power some components for approach and landing. Energize the landing gear. .
The main function of the GROUND SELECT CTL switch is: To power the AC & DC systems when the aircraft is on the ground. To allow ground service equipment to be powered directly from external power without powering the entire electrical system. To allow external power to supply directly AC and DC ESS buses and their ESS SHED buses without powering the entire electrical system. .
When the GROUND SELECT CTL switch is on: The electrical network supply is limited to Ground Service items. Only the DC buses are powered. It is for the purpose of operating the cargo door only. .
The GROUND SELECT CTL switch is located: On the overhead system panel in the cockpit. On the FWD Circut Breaker Panel behind the cockpit. On the Purser's Control Panel in the FWD cabin. .
When ECAM shows "ELECT ECMU 1 FAULT"(ECMU= Electrical Contactor management unit) ECMU 1 controls Generator Line Contractor (GLC) 2. you should reset generator 2. ECMU 1 controls GLC 1 and you should not reset the corresponding generator. ECMU 1controls GLC 1 and you should try to reset the corresponding generator. .
The FAULT light of the GALLEY pb switch will illuminate amber when: Galley circuits are shed. An overload is detected and the automatic galley shedding is not operative. The overload detection, automatic galley shedding and its manual override function are not operative. .
The IDG switch on the ELECT control panel is used: To disconnect the generator. To disconnect the generator and open the GCU. To disconnect the IDG from the accessory gear box.
Engine fire protection is provided by 2 detection loops which provide information to a computer. Which statement about these loops is true? If both loops are working and one loop senses a certain temperature, a fire indication is generated. If both loops are working, both loops must sense a certain temperature to generate a fire indication. If both loops break and breaks occur more than 5 seconds apart, fire indications are generated. .
This Engine 1 Fire pushbutton is illuminated red. This indicates: A fire has been detected in Engine1. A fire has been detected in Eng1 and both Eng1 fire extinguisher bottles are armed. Both Engine 1 fire detection loops have failed.
The APU fire extinguishing system includes: One fire extinguisher bottle. Two fire extinguisher bottles, just like the engines. No fire extinguisher bottle.
When an APU fire is detected on the ground, the red APU fire light on the external power panel comes on. In addition: A horn sounds, APU auto shutdown occurs, pilot must discharge the fire extinguisher bottle. A horn sounds, APU must be shut down using APU SHUT OFF switch on the external power panel. A horn sounds, APU auto shutdown occurs and the fire extinguisher bottle is automatically discharged. .
When the pilot sets the EXTRACTS pb to OVRD: The Avionics fire extinguishing agent is discharged. Air to the avionics compartment is cut off. Ventilation air is vented overboard. .
Cargo fire protection is provided by: Automatic smoke detection, automatic fire extinguishing. Automatic smoke detection, manual fire extinguishing. Automatic fire detection, automatic fire extinguishing.
For lavatory smoke detection, each lavatory is equipped with: One smoke detector. Two smoke detectors. One heat sensor. .
ENG1 FIRE pb and FIRE light below ENG1 Master switch will extinguish: When the Fire in Engine 1 no longer exists. When the ENG 1 FIRE pb is pressed and released. When the Master switch is selected to OFF. .
The fire protection system provides: Fire detection and extinguishing for the avionics compartment. Smoke detection and extinguishing for cargo compartments and lavatories. Portable fire extinguishers for engines and APU.
Which of the following statement is true? Only fire detection is provided for each engine and the APU. Two Smoke Detection Control Units are installed for the cargo compartments. Each engine and the APU are equipped with a fire and overheat detection, and extinguishing system. .
For fire extinguishing: There are two bottles per engine. There is one bottle per cargo. There is one bottle for each engine.
Fire and overheat detection for the engines is provided by: A centralized fire detection unit for the two engines. A primary and secondary fire detection unit for the two engines. A fire detection unit for each engine.
For the engine, where are the fire detectors located? on the core and the gearbox On the pylon, the gearbox and the turbine. Only on the fan and the turbine. .
What does each enginefire and overheat detection system consist of: Two fire detection units, two fire detection loops equipped with two detectors. one fire detection loop and three detectors. Two fire detection loops equipped with four detectors. .
Releasing out the FIRE pb accomplished several things. One thing that is not accomplished is: Closing of the high pressure fuel valve. Cancelling the aural warning if not already done. Closing the engine bleed valve on the related side. .
When the FIRE pb is released out: Fuel crossed valve closes. High pressure fuel valve closes. Low pressure fuel valve closes.
The fire and overheat detection and extinguishing system for the APU includes: Two fire detection units (FDU), two loops (A & B) and one fire bottle. one fire detection unit (FDU), two loops (A & B) and one fire bottle. one fire detection unit (FDU), two loops (A & B) and two fire bottles. .
An APU fire is depicted when: A certain temperature is sensed by one loop if the other loop is inoperative. A certain temperature is sensed by either loop in all cases. The system is inoperative with only one loop.
Cargo fire protection is provided for: FWD compartment only. AFT/BULK compartments only. FWD, AFT and BULK cargo compartments. .
When the engine fire pb is pressed: The Lp fuel valve closes, the engine bleed valve on the related side close, the
hydraulic shut off valve closes, squib is armed and the engine generator is deactivated. The HP fuel valve closes, SQUIB and DISCH lights are illuminated, both engine
bleed valves on the same side close and the engine generator is De-activated. The LP fuel valve closes, both engine bleed valves close, the hydraulic shut off
valve closes, SQUIB and DISCH lights are illuminated the engine generator is
activated.
Cargo smoke detection is provided for: Only the FWD and AFT cargo compartment. The FWD, the AFT and the BULK cargo compartments. only the BULK cargo compartment.
In normal operation, most flight controls are: Electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated. Electrically controlled with mechanical back up control and hydraulically
actuated. Electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated with mechanical reversion
capability.
All flight controls are actuated by hydraulic servos which are controlled by
computers. Or cables. But the stabilizer and rudder trim may also be controlled by cables. But the stabilizer and rudder servos may also be controlled by cables.
The sidestick inputs result in adjusting: The pitch and roll only The pitch, roll. and yaw (for turn coordination) The elevators. ailerons, and nosewheel steering (during ground operation).
Pitch control is provided by: Two independent elevators and a Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer Two inter-connected elevators and a Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer Two inter-connected elevators with trim tabs and a Trimmable Horizontal
Stabilizer.
The ailerons are each actuated by: Two hydraulic servos, each powered by one of two hydraulic systems Two hydraulic servos, each powered by one of the three hydraulic systems Three hydraulic servos, each powered by one of the three hydraulic systems.
The speedbrake surfaces are: Spoilers 2 to 4 Spoilers 2 to 5 Spoilers 1 to 6.
The autopilot function is lost in case of: FRIM 1+2 failure with SEC 1+2 available FRIM 1 and SEC1 failure FRIM 1+2 +3 failure with SEC 1+2 available.
Each PRIM provides: Normal control law and characteristic speed computations only Normal, alternate, Direct laws, speed brake and ground spoiler control logic,
characteristic speed computations Normal and alternate laws only, speed brake and ground spoiler control logic.
Each SEC provides at least: Direct control law, rudder trim, yaw damper, rudder and rudder pedals travel
limits Direct control laws, speed brake and ground spoiler control logic. Alternate control laws characteristic speed computations.
For elevators control, each servo jack has: 2 control modes: Active and Damping 2 control modes: active and Centering 3 control modes: Active, damping and Centering.
On one control surface if an active servo jack fails: The related surface is lost. The damped servo jack on the same The surface deflection is reduced.
Normal pitch control uses: PRIM 1, the elevator green hydraulic jacks, and the number 1 THS electrics
control motor. PRIM 1, the elevator green hydraulic jacks, and the number 2 THS electrics
control motor. PRIM 2, the elevator green hydraulic jacks, and the number 1 THS electrics
control motor.
If neither PRIM 1 nor PRIM 2 are available, pitch control is transferred to: SEC 2 for elevator control and PRIM 3 using the number 2 electric motor for THS
control SEC 1 for elevator control and PRIM 3 using the number 3 electric motor for THS
control PRIM 3 for elevator control and SEC 2 using the number 2 electric motor for
THS control.
If all three PRIM computers are not available with B or Y hydraulic system
available: The THS is controlled by the manual pitch trim wheel only The THS is controlled by the manual pitch trim wheel and the number 2 electric
motor. The THS is controlled by the manual pitch trim wheel and the number 3 electric
motor.
Aileron droop: Occurs when the slats and flaps are extended Occurs when the flaps are extended and is a variable droop setting Occurs when the flaps are extended and is a single droop setting.
When the RAT is extended to recover hydraulic pressure or electrical power, the
servo jacks that revert to damping mode control: The outboard ailerons The inboard ailerons Spoilers 1 to 6.
Loss of hydraulic power to one of the single spoiler servos will cause that
surface to: Retract Remain at the existing deflection or less if pushed down by aerodynamic forces. Extend fully.
With yaw damping or turn coordination functions: You can "feel" the inputs with rudder pedal movement No feedback to the rudder pedals are provided Feedback is provided only when the autopilot is off.
When you use this panel to set rudder trim, the input Is fed back to the rudder pedals Is not fed back to the rudder pedals Is fed back to the rudder pedals only when you push reset.
If one hydraulic system is inoperative: The corresponding slats or flaps are operating at half speed. The wing tip brakes (WTB) are activated and the corresponding slats or flaps
remain at previous position The corresponding slates or flaps are normally operating.
This aircraft is in a slight climb in Normal law. Immediately after the pilot
releases the stick to neutral, the flight controls will: lower the nose to regain a level flight path Maintain the current flight path Raise the nose to a steeper flight path.
This aircraft is in level flight in Normal law. With stick released and airspeed
slowed by 20kts, the flight controls will: Maintain the current pitch attitude and allow the aircraft to begin to sink Lower the nose to be maintain the current airspeed Raise the nose as necessary to maintain the current flight path.
This aircraft is being flown manually in Normal law. It is established in a 20
degree right bank turn. To maintain altitude, the pilot: Must continually apply aft pressure to the sidestick Does not need to make additional pitch inputs, the flight control system will
maintain a level flight path Is required to apply minor forward stick inputs.
The sidesticks are used to Control the aircraft in pitch and roll only and are spring loaded to the neutral
position Control the aircraft in pitch, roll, and yaw are manually returned to the neutral
position. Control the aircraft in pitch, roll, and yaw are spring loaded to the neutral position.
The RESET pb on the Rudder Trim Control Panel, when pushed: Resets the rudder trim to zero degree Resets the rudder trim to the value displayed on the position indicator Resets the rudder trim to the last position prior to autopilot activation.
The aircraft is in descent, in normal law and is being flown manually. If the pilot
applies and holds full forward sticks, the aircraft will: Accelerate untill it automatically pitches up and will stabilize the airspeed at Vmo
plus a preset number of additional knots. Continue in the current pitch attitude and continue to accelerate well beyond Vmo
as long as the pilot maintains forward stick Experience a continued lowering of the pitch attitude and continued acceleration.
Using the ECAM F/CTL page as a reference, select the correct list of flight
control surfaces which will be inoperative following the loss of both GREEN and
YELLOW hydraulic systems. Some of the spoilers, both inboard ailerons and the left elevator Some of the spoilers, both outboard ailerons and the right elevator all the spoilers, both inboard ailerons and the left elevator.
The aircraft is in a nose up attitude, in alternate law and is being flown
manually. If the pilot applies and hold full aft stick, the aircraft will: Experience an automatic pitch input which will prevent the pilot from slowing the
aircraft to a speed less than alpha max Continue to respond to the stick input and reach stall speed. Stall recovery
procedure is mandatory Maintain the current pitch attitude and not allow airspeed to reach stall speed.
Automatic load factor protection prevents the pilot from exceeding preset G
limits depending on the aircraft's current configuration. Load factor protection,
which is not depicted on the PFD or ECAM, is available in: Normal law and direct law Normal law and alternate law. Normal law only.
The aircraft is in approach with flaps extended in position z and speed brakes
extended. What will happen when the flaps are extended to position 3 ? The flaps don't extend to 3 and the speed brakes remain extended to FULL The flaps extend to 3 and the speed brakes remain extended to FULL The flaps extend to 3 and the speed brakes retract automatically.
The aircraft is being flown manually. if the pilot releases the side stick to
neutral, the aircraft will Maintain the current bank angle Roll to and maintain 330 of bank Roll to wing level.
An engine has failed shortly after lift-off. The sideslip symbol on the PFD has
charged to blue. What should the pilot do to achieve optimum climb performance? Apply right rudder to center the sideslip indicator Apply left rudder to center the sideslip indicator No pilot action is required, the flight control computers will apply sufficient
rudder input to center the sideslip indicator.
When a pilot has pressed and held the take over pushbutton for more than 40
seconds; what has the other pilot to do to reactivate his side stick? He can do nothing, his side stick is deactivated for the rest of the flight He has to press the take over pushbutton for more than 40 seconds He has to press and release the take over pb.
In normal operation, engines are always fed from: Outer tank for Takeoff Inner tanks (collect boxes) Outer tanks in case of overfull condition.
The fuel system is fully automatic. the only actions required between flights are Selection of the proper fuel load and insertion of Zero Fuel Weight (ZFW) and
Zero Fuel Weight Center of gravity (ZFWCG) in the FMGS Check of block fuel automatically inserted in the FMGS Selection of the proper fuel load and insertion of Gross Weight CG in the FMGS.
Fuel temperatures are: Not available to the crew except in case of excessive temperature measured in all tanks and displayed on ECAM Measured in the left outer tank, left and right inner tanks, trim tank and are
displayed on the ECAM FUEL page.
The A330 fuel system inner tanks: Are divided into four boxes each Are divided into two parts each Maintain equal fuel quantity by gravity.
The A330 fuel system: Store fuel in wing tanks and the Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer tanks has surge vent tanks in the outer, inner and trim tanks. Has two inner tanks divided into three parts which are normally interconnected.
Automatic fuel transfer from outer to inner tanks is accomplished by the outer
tank transfer valves. In case of automatic fuel transfer failure: outer tank fuel on affected side is unusable Crew must take action to carry out a manual transfer outer tank fuel on both sides is unusable.
Outer tank fuel is being transferred to the inner tanks only because The inner tanks contents have reached the transfer level The transfer logic to the inner tanks has failed The ECAM is not readable.
The low Pressure (LP) valve is controlled by: The engine master switch only The engine master switch and the engine fire pb The engine master switch, the engine fire pb and the FCMC.
There are two fuel pumps in each collector box. They are normally both selected
on with: Both running One running and one in standby one running and one in stand-by, alternating every flight.
Minimum electrical power requirements for refueling are AC from external power or APU DC from external power or APU Battery power is sufficient.
Automatic refueling ensures that: TRIM tank is refueled only if INNER tanks are expected to be full. May take as long as one hour if all tanks are to be filled. INNER tanks are filled firsts, followed by TRIM tanks.
Refueling can be accomplished From the left side only From the right side only Simultaneously from the right and left sides of the aircraft.
the OPEN legend on the X-FEED pb will illuminate when: The X-FEED pb is selected ON if both pumps in one collector cell have failed Both fuel pumps on the same side are faulty The crossfeed valve is fully open.
With all pump failed on the left inner tank Left engine can be fed from right side until fuel is needed from left side Left tank fuel is unuseable Left engine can be fed only by gravity.
The inner tank Split pb are used to Divide fuel inside inner tanks Isolate the Inner Tanks into 2 separate sections in the event of tank damage Cross feed fuel between Inner tanks.
In the event of low pressure, heavy load users are isolated to give priority to: Rudder, elevators and ailerons Rudder, elevators, ailerons and Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS) Rudder, elevators, ailerons, spoilers and braking.
The corresponding hydraulic system can be pressurized by: Two engine driven pumps, an electric pump and a ram Air Turbine (RAT)for the
green system Two engine driven pumps for the blue system Two engine driven pumps for the yellow system.
The Hydraulic System Monitoring Unit (HSMU) controls Fluid transfer between the three systems Blue and Yellow hydraulic fire shut off valves closure Automatic activation of electric pumps and Ram Air Turbine (RAT) extension.
After takeoff, engine 2 fails prior to raising the landing gear. When the gear
handle is selected Up: The green electric pump comes ON automatically to assist gear retraction. The RAT extends automatically to assist gear retraction The green engine driven pumps only are used to retract the gear. Retraction time is
not a factor.
The RAM Air Turbine (RAT) deployment is automatically controlled the
HSMU (Hydraulic System Monitoring Unit) when: Low level in blue and yellow hydraulic reservoirs hydraulic reservoirs is detected Low level in green and blue hydraulic reservoirs is detected Engine 1 or 2 has failed and the landing gear is in retraction phase.
In case of green reservoir LOW LEVEL the HSMU (Hydraulic System
Monitoring Unit) will: Automatically close both green system fire shut off valves Automatically extend the RAT. Automatically start the green electric pump.
The A330 hydraulic system id composed of: Three hydraulic systems sharing the same pressure source Three fully independent systems working simultaneously Three hydraulic systems which interchange hydraulic fluid.
In the event of low hydraulic pressure, the priority valve and pressure
maintaining valves give priority to primary flight controls and brakes. The pilot: Controls the priority valve from the HYD panel Cannot control the priority valve, but monitors their operation on the HYD ECAM
page. Can neither control nor monitor the priority valve (automatic operation).
Leak measurement valve push buttons on maintenance panel Are for maintenance purpose and ground operation only May be used by the crew to isolate flight controls during flight May be used to isolate heavy users.
If the pilot sees the blue hydraulic system label displayed amber Hydraulic pressure is lower than normal Hydraulic system overheat Hydraulic system overpressure.
What is the difference when we compare the blue electric HYD pump to the
green and yellow electric pumps? The blue electric pump has no automatic operation The blue electric pump has a higher flow The blue electric pump has a higher pressure.
During landing gear retraction, engine 1 has failed and Green electric pump is
automatically activated. How will it stop? The Green electric pump spring loaded switch must be pressed The Green ENG 1 pump pb must be selected OFF to stop both pumps The Green Electric pump will stop automatically after 25 seconds.
If there is an unknown fault in the RA, would the crew be alerted if the green
and blue systems are in low levels? Only if the RAT is manually extended Yes, due to the automatic extension of the RAT No, because the RAT is not available.
Crew wants to re-establish the blue hydraulic system after Blue engine pump pb
selected off due to overheat condition. When does the crew determine weather the
overheat condition still exists or not? Fault light on Blue engine pump pb must be checked by setting to ON. Fault light on Blue engine pump pb can be checked in this configuration since it
will go out only when the pb is at OFF and overheat condition no longer exists FAULT light on Blue engine pump pb can be checked in this configuration since
when overheat condition no longer exists, it will go out either when pb is at ON or
OFF.
Which one of the following statements is true? The blue electric pump must be set to ON to recover the system The Blue system cannot be restored for approach The Blue system can be restored for approach.
If the pilot pushes the RAT MAN on PB The RAT will extend in flight only The RAT will extend at any time The RAT will not extend as the HSMU has not detected a Green+ Blue
(or+Yellow) reservoir low level.
Hot air from the pneumatic system provides wing anti-ice to: The four outboard slats and the horizontal stabilizer The four outboard slats All slats.
When we are on the ground and the WING anti-ice pb is set to the ON position Wing anti-ice valves will remain open until the wing anti-ice pb is selected off Engine anti-ice valves will open Wing anti-ice valves will open for 30 seconds and then close as a ground test is
initiated.
There is an inner and outer wing anti-ice valve on each wing. If the left inner
valve fails to open All slats remain heated One slat is not heated and you must avoid icing conditions No slats are heated.
Both ENG 1 and 2 pbs are turned ON, each engine nacelle is anti-iced by: The pneumatic system. Electric heat elements Independent bleed air source from HP compressor.
A FAULT light illuminates in the ENG1 ANTI-ICE pb: When there is an engine 1 anti-ice valve fault Only when the wing anti-ice valve fails When the wing anti-ice valve is faulty or the valve is in transit.
When the rain repellent is needed: You should press and hold repellent pb Press and release the repellent pb to utilize a timer for spray Press and release the repellent pb every 10 seconds.
On the ground and at ramp, windshields, windows and probes are heated Automatically when one engine is running or manually by switching ON the
PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb On high heat only. On low heat when one engines running and high heat using manual
PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb.
If both windshields heating have failed: WHC 2 takes over and all windshields and windows remain heated Only demisting of side windows is lost All windshields and window heating are lost, and it might be recovered.
Which one of the following statements is true There are two wing anti-ice valves installed (one on each wing) When the engine anti-ice is operating, continuous ignition is automatically
activated. When the wing anti-ice is operating, continuous ignition is automatically
activated.
Provided the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb is on AUTO position, window heat
and side window demisting comes on automatically: When at least one engine is running or in flight When AC power is supplied When batteries are on.
In flight, if both windshields automatic heat has failed: Probe/window Heat pb should be set to ON Both Window Heat Computers have failed and Window Heat pb will not recover
heat Probe/window Heat pb should be set to off and back to AUTO.
IF Captain's pilot heat has failed: He must disregard his air data for rest of flight Captain's pilot will be heated by First Officer's Captain can recover his air data by using air data switching.
The Flight warning Computers (FWCs) acquire data to generate? Alert messages, aural alerts, red warnings and amber caution, synthetic voice
messages. The display on System pages and Engine Warning pages Only red warnings.
Which one of the following statements is true? 3 Display Management Computers (DMCs) generate the alert messages and the
red warnings. 3 DMCs generate the images displayed on CRTs 3 DMCs are used to collect Aircraft data sensors information.
In normal operation: DMCs and DMC2 supply information to PFDs, NDs and ECAM DMC3 (ECAM part) supplies information to upper and lower ECAM DMC1 and 2 supply information to PFDs only, DMC3 supplies information to
NDs and upper and lower ECAM.
What is the function of the System Data Acquisition Concentrators (SDACs)? To generate all visual and aural warnings To supply information to the FWCs for warning calculations and data to the
DMCs to be displayed To generate displays to be sent to the various display
units.
Aural alerts and voice messages are transmitted: Through the loudspeakers even if the speakers are switched off Through the loudspeakers only if the speakers are switched on. Only through the pilots' headsets.
In case of DU failure: The information can be transferred to another DU to be displayed ECAM data cannot be transferred to another DU. The data is lost ND or PFD data cannot be transferred to another DU. The data is lost.
Where is the PFD normally located on the instrument panel: One PFD is located in front of each pilot on the inner display unit One PFD is located on the center Display unit for both pilots One PFD is located in front of each pilot on the outer display unit.
The Airspeed scale contains: Only the data shown on a conventional airspeed indication The data on a conventional airspeed indicator plus limit protections and target
speeds Only limit protections and target speeds.
The FMA displays: Annunciations and messages regarding FMGS operations Annunciations and messages regarding tr4ajectory deviation Flags telling you which PFD information is lost.
The word "TRU" appears above the heading display: To signify that the aircraft will be changing from true to magnetic reference Automatically at high latitudes to signify that magnetic heading is replaced by true
heading Only when you push the NORTH REF pb to TRUE.
In emergency electrical configuration: Both PFD are available: CPT's PFD and ND are available CPT's PFD and F/O's ND are available.
An amber PFD flag reading " CHECK ALT" indicates: A discrepancy of the altitude information on the two PFDs A failure of this PFD altitude data only Altitude data is not available.
During normal operations: An ECAM page is automatically displayed for the corresponding flight phase You need to press a key on the ECAM Control Panel to display the ECAM page
for that flight phase You need to press the ENG key to display the Engine during an engine start.
Which statement is true about the use of the ALL key on the ECAM Control
Panel? When you press the ALL key, all the systems pages are displayed in succession When you press the ALL key, you cannot stop at a particular systems page until
all have been displayed. The ALL key is not operable in case of failure of the ECAM Control panel.
What action must the crew perform in case of DMC1 fault? Nothing, the transfer to the other DMC is automatically done The pilot must transfer to EFIS DMC3 The pilot must transfer to EFIS DMC2.
What happens, when a discrepancy between the signal sent to the E/WD and the
feedback signal, is detected A "CHECK E/WD" message appears on the upper ECAM and on the ND A "CHECK E/WD" message appears on the upper and lower ECAM ECAM operation is not affected because there are 3 identicals DMCs.
In case of FWC1 fault: A message " FWC fault" appears on the upper ECAM. A message " FWC fault" appears on the upper and lower ECAM. ECAM operation is not affected because there are 2 identicals FWCs.
The system page automatically displayed on ECAM during TAXI is : DOOR/OXY FLIGHT CONTROLS WHEELS.
DMC1 normally processes: CAPT PFD, CAPT ND F/O PFD, F/O ND and E/WD display CAPT PFD, CAPT ND and E/W display.
DMC2 normally processes: CAPT PFD, CAPT ND F/O PFD, F/O ND CAPT PFD, CAPT ND and E/W display.
If the DMC rotary selector is in " AUTO" and a failure of DMC 3 is detected
what DMC will process the ECAM displays? DMC 1 DMC2 ECAM displays are lost.
What effect does the ECAM DMC rotary selector have on EFIS displays? It enables an ECAM image to be displayed on CAPT. or F/O ND. It enables the PFD and ND images to be interchanged. It has effect on EFIS displays.
Which computer generates all aural warnings signals (except GPWS warnings) annunciated in the cockpit ? DMC SDAC FWC.
What information is permanently displayed on the upper part of the E/WD Engine parameters, fuel quantity slats and flaps position. engine parameters. fuel quantity and memo messages Engine parameters, fuel quantity warnings and caution messages.
If the landing gear is not down, the landing memo will appear at: 1500 ft 800ft 500 ft.
The T.O memo is displayed automatically after the second engine start or: 2 minutes after slats and flaps extension 2 minutes after doors are closed When the T.O config test pb is pressed.
If the ECAM control panel fails, how can the pilot view a particular system. Hold the "AL" button down until the page of interest comes up and then release
the button. Hold the STS button down until the page of interest comes up and then release the
button Hold the RCL button until the page of interest comes up and then release the
button.
In case of one LGCIU failure, is the landing gear system affected? Yes No.
In case of green hydraulic system loss what is the correct statement? Gear extension is done using the BLUE hydraulic system, nose wheel steering is
lost. Gear extension is done by gravity, nose wheel steering is lost but braking is
unaffected. Gear extension is done by gravity, nose wheel steering and braking are unaffected.
Which hydraulic system powers the landing gear normal operation ? BLUE GREEN YELLOW.
The purpose of the RESET position on the LDG GEAR GRVTY EXTN panel is to: Manually reset the landing gear downlocks Reset the system to the normal extension and retraction mode Actuate the BLUE hydraulic system electric pump to provide an alternate source
of hydraulic pressure to the landing gear system.
There are two braking systems available, the normal and the alternate system: Each system is powered by a different hydraulic system Each system is equipped with its own set of accumulators The accumulators are part of the normal braking system.
Braking commands: are given by the pilots only are generated by the FMGS come from the pilots, or from the autobrake system.
The purpose of the anti-skid is to: Reduce the braking delay in the event of a rejected takeoff Prevent wheel skid to improve braking efficiency Establish and maintain a selected deceleration during landing.
In the event of an aborted take off with autobrake armed, automatic braking is initiated: At ground spoiler extension provided that the speed is above approximately, 70 kts. At ground spoiler extension provided that the speed is below approximately, 70 kts At 100 KTS.
Auto brake system (MAX) is disarmed by: Depressing both pedals. Depressing one pedals only Depressing the rudder pedal disconnect push button.
The crew may arm the autobrake system provided all following conditions are
met: Green pressure available- Anti skid deactivated- No failure in the braking system Blue pressure available- Anti skid electrically powered- No failure in the braking
system Green pressure available- Anti skid electrically powered- No failure in the braking
system.
Inputs to the nose wheel steering are available from: The steering hand wheels only The steering handwheels for full authority and the rudder pedals for limited
authority. The captain's side only.
Nose wheel steering is available At any speed on the ground Below 100 kts Below approximately 70 kts.
When depressing the pedal disconnect pb on a steering handwheel Rudder pedal and steering handwheel orders to nose wheel steering are
disconnected Hydraulic isolation valve is closed, cutting hydraulic supply to nose wheel
steering Rudder pedal order to nose wheel steering are disconnected.
With the A/SKID and N/W STRG switch set to OFF Nose wheel steering is not energized but anti-skid is energized only when aircraft
is moving on ground Both N/W STRG and A/SKID are de-energized Normal brake is lost but alternate brake with anti-skid is available.
If the pilot selects landing gear down at 300 kts, what will happen? The landing gear will extend, and the pilot will have to write up an overspeed The landing gear will not extend until Vlo (270 kts) Being protected by a safety valve down to 280 kts,the landing gear will not extend.
With these indications, the pilot should Wait, left main gear is simply slow to extend As the gear is not downlocked, apply ECAM actions Apply positive "G' forces to attempt to lock the gear down.
These indications mean: LGCIU 1+ 2 FAULT, the L/G must be extended by gravity LGCIU 1+ 2 FAULT, the L/G operations will be slower than normal A wheels up landing has to be prepared as it is the only solution.
While taxiing, if the Captain's handwheel is deflected full left, and the First Officer's handwheel is deflected full right The aircraft should continue straight ahead as the handwheel takes precedence over the F/O's. The aircraft should turn left because Captain's handwheel takes precedence over the F/O's The aircraft should turn left or right, depending on which handover pb was last activated.
How is the tire pressure measured ? By the LGCIU By a sensor Directly by the TPIU.
If the crew selects the DOME light brightness switch to STORM position: Dome lights will not illuminate until CTL switch is selected to turn the lights on Dome lights will illuminate at FULL intensity independently of the CTL switch position Dome lights will illuminate at DIM intensity and can be changed to FULL intensity by repositioning CTL switch.
In emergency electrical configuration: Both dome lights are available Dome lights will not operate Only the first officer dome light is available.
RWY TURN OFF LIGHTS are located On the nose gear and automatically extinguish at gear retraction On fuselage at wing root and must be turned ON or OFF by switch. On the main gear and automatically extinguish at gear retraction.
With strobe switch set to AUTO, strobe lights will illuminate: When T/O power is set When T/O speed is above 40 kts the shock absorber is not compressed.
ADURUs provide navigation information: By referencing ground stations By referencing satellites. On an independent basis, without referencing ground stations or satellites.
Ground dependent position determining systems such as VOR, DME, ILS Are used only as a backup to the independent position determining systems such as ADIRS Provide information which overrides information supplied by ADIRS Cross check and refine the Flight Management and Guidance System (FMGS) position computed by independent systems such as. ADIRS.
ADIRU 3 includes: ADR 1 and IR 2 ADR3 ADR3 and IR3.
The information produced by the ADITUs: Is never seen by the pilot Is displayed on the PFD, ND and DDRMI and supplied to other systems. Is only used in when TRUE/MAG pb is set to true.
Barometric settings to the ADIRUs are made: On the Baro setting knobs on the FCU Via the MCDU On the ADIRS switching panel.
The white/ black color on the left drum of the altitude counter means: The computer supplying information to this instrument has failed The aircraft altitude is below sea level The aircraft altitude is below 10000 feet.
In normal operation, the nav aids are tuned: Manually through the Radio Management Panel Manually through the RAD NAV page Automatically through the Flight Management and Guidance System. (FMGS).
Pressing the IDENT pb on this panel will Put the backup IDENT code in the Code Display Put the IDENT code on the POS MONITOR page in the Code Display Transmit the Identification signal for 20 seconds.
Which of the following is true about GPWS warnings ? You cannot inhibit GPWS warnings If the loudspeakers are off, you will still hear GPWS warnings GPWS warnings generate Master Caution lights and ECAM messages.
Pushing the GPWS-G/S pb switch on the ground will Inhibit all GPWS warnings Test the GPWS system warnings Inhibit the DONT'T SINK warnings after takeoff.
The weather radar may be displayed on the ND in any mode except: ILS rose ARC and ENG PLAN and ENG.
The pneumatic sys tem supplies high pressure air: Only for air conditioning, engine starting, and wing anti-ice. Only for the hydraulic and water reservoir pressurization For air conditioning, engine starting and wing anti-ice as well as for hydraulic and water reservoir pressurization.
The engine bleed system is controlled and monitored by: The central computer Two computers, one primary and the second in standby One dedicated Bleed Monitoring Computer (BMC) for each engine.
With APU supplying the pneumatic system and cross bleed selected closed: All engine bleed valves will close All engine bleed valves will open Bleed valves on left side is closed and bleed valve on right side is open.
In flight with engine 1 shutdown Crew should select cross bleed to OPEN. Crew should not select cross bleed to OPEN as this will cause all engine bleed valves to close Cross bleed valves automatically opens after a time delay.
If an engine bleed pylon leak is detected, the bleed valve on same side closes, the crossbleed valve receives a closure signal and : A FAULT light appears only in the ENG BLEED pb associated with the pylon leak and wing anti-ice must not be used. FAULT light appears in both ENG BLEED bps Crossbleed valve receives a closure signal and wing anti-ice may be used.
In flight with the left wing leak warning you would not use wing anti-ice because: Pneumatic air pressure is insufficient Pneumatic air temperature would be out of limits Only one wing would be de-iced.
When ENG 1 BLEED FAULT appears on upper ECAM ( Engine Warning display) FAULT amber light ENG 1 BLEED pb remains on as long as the failure is present FAULT amber light goese off if ENG 1 BLEED pb pushed OFF with failure present FAULT amber light and OFF white light appear in ENG 1 BLEED bp.
The crossbeed valve is automatically controlled to : Close after all engine starts even if the APU bleed is still ON Open when the APU bleed is selected ON, and closed when a leak is detected Open when one engine bleed has failed.
In case of BMC failure: The engine bleed is lost The adjacent BMC takes over most of the monitoring functions The adjacent BMC takes over all of the control functions.
What is the function of the bleed valve? It acts only as a shut off valve It acts as a shut off and pressure regulating valve It closes at lower power settings to maintain system pressure.
How many ground units can be connected to the cross bleed duct? None One or two. One, two or three.
For engine start, air supplied from the ground air source: Is regulated Can only be used for emergencies Is not regulated.
Air leakage detection is based on : Double looped sensing units in pylon, APU and wing ducts Single loop for pylon and APU and double loops for wings. Single looped sensing units in pylon, APU and wing ducts.
The HP valves are open because The engines are at low power settings They have malfunctioned Anti-ice is causing increased bleed demand.
To supply ENG 1 BLEED air to right system Select ENG 1 BLEED bp on and crossbleed selector to OPEN Select APU BLEED bp to ON and crossbleed selector to OPEN Request removal of external pneumatic power then select ENG 1 BLEED bp on and crossbleed selector to OPEN.
To force the transfer from CMC1 to CMC2 you have to Set the CMC 2 pushbutton to ON Set the CMC 1 pushbutton to OFF Monitor the automatic transfer on ECAM.
What is the purpose of the Built In Test Equipment (BITE) ? To monitor the aircraft system To memorize failures To monitor the A/C systems and memorize failures.
In flight what are the 2 CMS functions available? The current flight report and the avionic status. The post flight report and the avionic status The current flight report and the system report test.
The normal mode or reporting mode can be used: In flight On ground In flight and on ground.
What can be found in the previous flight report? ECAM and failure messages recorded during the last flight ECAM and failure messages recorded during the 63 previous flight ECAM and failure messages recorded during the last flight and the 63 previous flight.
When must a class 1 failure be fixed ? Always before the next flight. At the next scheduled maintenance check. Before the next flight only when it is a NO GO item.
Which information can be found in the current flight report page? The list of computers affected by a class 1 or 2 failure. The list of all class 1 and 2 failures during the flight The list of all failures during the flight.
Which information can be found in the avionic status page ? All the failures The list of the computers affected by a class 1 and 2 failure ECAM messages when there is a failure.
In normal mode the UTC on the lower ECAM comes from: The external clock and transmitted by the CMC. Directely by the MCDU. Directely by the external clock.
In case of cockpit clock failure the UTC comes from: A second cockpit clock The internal clock of the CMC The MCDU.
In case of cockpit clock failure and a CMC power interruption: It is not possible to have the UTC on the lower ECAM The pilot must enter UTC/DATE INIT using the MCDU The pilot must initialize the CMC.
The operator interface with the Central Maintenance System (CMS) is : The ECAM The MCDU and the printer The FWC.
Air conditioning system operation is: Fully automatic, temperature control is manual for each conditioned control compartment. Automatic temperature control only when in flight Fully automatic, ensuring continuous renewal of fresh air and a constant temperature for cockpit, cabins, lavatories and galleys.
The main components of the air conditioning system are: Two packs, two zone controllers and one pack controller Two packs, two pack controllers and one pack controller Two packs, each one having its independent zone and pack controller.
In the event of failure of one pack air cycle machine The pack is inoperative and should be off with no flight restrictions with the other pack available The air is still cooled by the heat exchanger and no flight operational restrictions with the other pack available Aircraft can operate with one pack and no flight operational restrictions.
The crew can control the amount of air flow to the packs by using: The PACK FLOW selector The COCKPIT and CABIN selectors The RAM AIR pushbutton.
In case of air cycle machine failure: A bypass valve allows the air to be cooled by the associated heat exchanger only The pack must be shut off and the available pack will operate in high flow to satisfy demand. The pack is not affected since the bypass valve allows the compressor to still operate.
Pack flow will automatically go to HI During all ground operations When the cabin temperature exceeds a selected temperature During single pack operation or while the APU is the source of bleed air for the packs.
When "COND" page on ECAM indicates in green "PACK REG": This indicates both pack controllers have failed This means that hot air valves are closed and the pack cannot control the temperature. This means that a dual channel failure makes the zone controller inoperative.
The engine control is achieved through The Intergrated Drive Generator Unit (IDGU) The Engine Interface Unit (EIU) The Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC).
The reverse thrust system is actuated by: Pneumatic pressure Hydraulic pressure A mechanical release system and stowed pneumatically.
The Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) provides engine protection: Through the start phase of operation only Only at high thrust settings For overspeed limits (N1 and N2) in all flight phases and EGT monitoring during start phase only.
The Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) displays its engine parameters and information on: Engine Warning Display (Upper ECAM) only Engine Warning Display (Upper ECAM) and Cruise and Engine page (Lower ECAM) Lower ECAM engine page only.
The Idle modes provided by FADEC are Flight Idle and Reserve Idle Modulated Idle, Approach Idle and Reverse Idle Ground Idle and Flight Idle.
Which one of the following statements is true? Both engines are control by a computer called Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) Each engine and its sensors are controlled by a computer called FADEC that normally is powered by the aircraft electrical network Each engine and its sensors are controlled by a computer called FADEC that normally is powered by its own internal generator.
When engines are running, continuous ignition is provided: Only when flameout is detected Only when flameout is detected or engine anti- ice pushbutton is selected ON. When the engine anti- ice pushbutton is selected ON, slats are extended, take off power is selected or flameout is detected.
Fuel is normally provided to the engines by: Gravity to a high pressure fuel pump A low pressure fuel pump Both a low and a high pressure fuel pump.
The Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) system electrical power requirements are: Essential AC or DC aircraft power after start Aircaft power when IGN START is selected until approximately 15% N2 Battery power at all times.
During automatic start sequence , putting the master switch ON: Turns on ignition A and B Opens the HP fuel valve Opens the start valve.
Selecting the ENG MAN START pushbutton ON: Will open the start valve if the ENG START selector is in crank Will open the start valve and turn on ignition A and B Will open the start valve, turn on ignition A and B, and open the LP fuel valve if the FIRE pushbutton is in.
Automatic cranking is provided: By placing the engine start selector to CRANK By the FADEC following an automatic start abort In all cases of start abort.
An engine master switch in the ON position (Engine Fire pushbutton in): Sends a signal to open the LP fuel valve Sends a signal to open the LP and HP fuel valves during automatic start Sends a signal to open the HP fuel valves during automatic start.
Thrust reverser deployment requires The aircraft to be on ground, both engines at idle The aircraft to be on ground, associated pneumatic power available, TLA position confirmed by a PRIM The aircraft in final approach with idle power on associated engine.
Select the correct statement: Maximum tailwind for engine start is 20 kt Backing the aircraft with reverse thrust is not permitted A maximum of 5 consecutive start cycles is permitted.
At 50% N2 FADEC will: Close the start valve and turn ignition off during automatic start only Close the start valve only during automatic start Close the start valve and turn ignition off during both automatic and manual start.
The FADEC provides passive monitoring of the engine start sequence during a manual start. The crew must initiate start abort procedures in all cases The FADEC will automatically abort the starting sequence in case of excessive EGT The FADEC will automatically abort the starting sequence in case of excessive EGT or no ignition.
According to this N1 indicator: The reversers for that engine have failed The reverser doors are fully deployed Reverser doors are unstowed or unlocked.
Can the cockpit windows be opened from the outside? Yes, the sliding windows No No, not the windows, but the winshields.
An escape rope is located Above each of the 4 side windows Above both sliding windows Above both fixed windows.
Which passenger singns illuminate when the NO SMOKING selector is put in the ON position? Return to seat, no smoking and EXIT NO SMOKING and EXIT FASTEN SEAT BELTS and NO SMOKING.
The FASTEN SEAT BELTS selector in the cockpit is in the AUTO
POSITION. When do the FASTEN SEAT BELTS signs in the cabin illuminate? When the landing gear extends When the slats extend When the slats retract.
The lavatory OCCUPIED SIGN is controlled by: The lavatory door lock/ unlock handle The closing/ opening of the door A switch in the cockpit.
The cabin emergency lighting system consists of lamps over the aisles to ensure: Continuous illumination in the event of the failure of the general lighting system Illumination of the cabin in case of a failure of the EPSU Illumination of the cabin in case of a failure of the emergency lighting path.
Which lights come on when the LIGHT EMER pushbutton is pressed? Escape path marking and cabin emergency lighting Auxiliary lavatory light Escape path marking, cabin emergency lighting and exit signs.
All the emergency lights in the cabin are automatically controlled from the emergency power supply units which are distributed in the cabin floor which are located in the galley areas which are distributed in the passenger cabin ceilling.
Should the normal power fail, the batteries (EPSUs) continue to supply emergency light for at least: 20 minutes 12 minutes 10 minutes.
Which computer allows cabin programming? PIM DIRECTOR DEU A.
If radio communication is established during an interception but
communication in a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing? You land Let down Descend Descend for landing.
If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but
communication on a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received? CAN NOT NOT POSSIBLE CAN NOT COMPLY UNABLE TO COMPLY.
A flashing red light from control tower during approach to land means: Give way to other aircraft in emergency The airport is temporarily, continue circling The airport is unsafe, do not land Continue circling and wait for further instructions.
On aerodrome aircraft taxying on manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to: other vehicles and pedestrians all vehicles moving on the apron except the “follow me” vehicle other converging aircraft aircraft taking off or about to take off.
The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is: The airliner/operator The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying The aircraft owner The commander.
Which of following flights has the greatest priority to land? VIP (Head of State) aircraft Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention Emergency aircraft Military aircraft.
An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL and 9000 feet MSL outside controlled airspace under VFR, must retain on principle at least: 1 500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility. clear of clouds and in sign of the surface; 8 km visibility 1 500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility 2 000 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility.
The VMC minima for an airspace classified as “B” above 10 000 feet MSL are: 1 nautical mile horizontaly and 1 000 feet verticaly from cloud; 8 km visibility clear of clouds; 8 km visibility 2 000 metres horizontaly, 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds; 8 km visibility 1 mile horizontaly and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds; 5 km visibility.
The VMC minima for an airspace classified as “G” above 10 000 feet MSL are: 1 500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility 1 mile horizontaly and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds; 8 km visibility 1 500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility 1 mile horizontaly and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds; 5 km visibility.
A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit
whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus: 10% 2% 5% 3%.
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR
transponder shall, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following code on mode “A” 7 700 7 600 7 500 7 000.
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies: 121.5 MHz – 243 MHz 121.5 MHz – 282.8 MHz 121.5 MHz – 125.5 MHz 243 MHz – 125.5 MHz.
Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft “ YOU MAY PROCEED”? Rocking the wings and flashing the navigation lights Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of aircraft Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight the intercepted aircraft.
Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? Switching on and off four times the navigation lights Switching on and off four times the landing lights The repeated switching on and off landing lights Switching on and off three times the landing lights.
Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be
maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace? 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated position of the aircraft 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of course 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course.
Aircraft “A” with ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft “B” with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right of way? Aircraft “B” regardless of the direction “A” is approaching Aircraft “A” if “B” is on its right Aircraft “A” regardless of the direction which “B” is approaching Aircraft “B” if “A” is on its left.
Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track? If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions Inform the ATC unit immediately Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions.
A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals: Arm down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards. continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight plan adopt VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination land on closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of landing.
An aircraft is flying under IFR in an area where the visibility is
unlimited and the sky is clear (free of cloud) when it totally loses radio communications. the procedure to be followed is: descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations. continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight plan adopt VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination land on closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of landing.
While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken? The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of action taken as soon as circumstances permit Squawk 7 700 Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan.
What is the primary source of conditioned air for the cockpit? LEFT PACK RIGHT PACK.
How is pack operation verified when the pack switch is positioned to Auto? A drop in duct pressure An increase in the pack operating temperature A change in the cabin altitude reading Air mix valve drives to full cold.
If the FLT/GRD switch on the panel is moved to FLT while the airplane is on the ground the airplane will: Remain depressurized pressurized to the selected cabin altitude Pressurize to approximately .1psid.
What mode of the pressurization controller uses the AC motor to
control the outflow valve? Auto and STBY Auto and Man AC STBY and MAN AC AUTO, STBY AND Man AC.
Why should the airplane never be pressurized to a differential pressure greater than 0.125 psi on the ground? The doors would be difficult or impossible to open in an emergency There would be no noticeable pressure bump during takeoff The air conditioning packs could be back pressured and trip off All of the above.
With the PACK light illuminated Position the pack switch to off The pack valve closes automatically and may be reset Position the bleed switch to off Open the isolation valve.
What fault(s) cannot be reset with TRIP RESET switch? BLEED TRIP OFF PACK ZONE TEMP WING BODY OVERHEAT.
What is the function of trim air in the air-conditioning system? Provide better mixing of air between zones Lower air temperature Raise air temperature Reduce total airflow through the system.
Each zone has a primary and a backup temperature control. True False.
What additional component improves the air circulation in the aft
fuselage, particularly the ventilation of the passenger cabin zones. right recirculation fan left recirculation fan Mix valve position indicators All of the above.
What happens when the air in the zone supply duct overheats? The Zone temp light illuminates and the associated trim air modulating valve
closes. The DUCT OVERHEAT light illuminates and the associated trim air
modulating valve opens. The Hot trim air shuts off and allows the cold pack air to flow through the duct to cool it. All of the above Both A and C are correct.
Trim Air is only available when the TRIM AIR switch is ON True False.
How many independent Flight Control Computers (FCC) are there in the Autopilot Flight Director System? One Two Three Four , two of each channel.
The Autopilot cannot be engaged while force is applied to the control wheel. True False.
Manually trimming the airplane w/ the electrical trim switch on the control
wheel disengages the autopilot. True False.
With the external AC power on both busses, the APU starter motor is powered by Generator bus No. 1 TR No. 3 The battery DC standby Bus.
If all temperature selector are positioned to OFF, the packs will operate in a fixed temperature mode. The packs will produce conditioned air in all zones at a fixed temperature sufficient to maintain what temperature? 23 degrees C 24 degrees C 25 degrees C 26 degrees C.
In which mode can two autopilots be engaged at the same time. VNAV VOR/LOC APP LNAV.
Which of the following occurs when a TO/GA switch is pressed for a flight director go-around from a single A/P ILS approach? Autopilot disengages TO/GA mode of the flight director disengages A/T advances thrust levers to reduced go-around N1 All of the above are correct.
The minimum MCP altitude change required to arm the V/S mode when
operating in the ALT HOLD mode is: 100 feet 500 feet 1000 feet V/S will not ARM.
What is the EGT limitation of the APU? Maximum 670 degrees C, max continuous 610 degrees C. Maximum 905 degrees C, max continuous 835 degrees C. Maximum 760 degrees C, max continuous 710 degrees C Maximum 710 degrees C, max continuous 670 degrees C.
Inflight , the APU can supply electrical power to: One bus, up to 35,000 feet Both busses up to 35,000 feet One Bus, up to 17,000 feet Both busses if the APU BLEED Valve is closed.
Of the four light located on the APU control panel, which light will NOT
cause an automatic shutdown of the APU when it illuminates? LOW OILPRESSURE LOW OIL QUANTITY HIGH OIL TEMPERATURE OVERSPEED.
Fuel to start and operate the APU is supplied from the No. 1 fuel tank and is heated by APU bleed air if required. True False.
The APU GEN OFF BUS light will illuminate: When the APU is at the operational speed and ready to accept an electrical load Whenever the APU is supplying power to BUS No. 1 Whenever the APU is supplying power to BUS No. 2 Whenever the APU is supplying power to a Main BUS but not to the associated transfer BUS.
The Apu will shutdown on the ground if: The Battery is placed to OFF The low oil quantity light illuminates. The fuel LOW PRESSURE LIGHTS in the main tank illuminates. All of the above.
Successful starts of the APU are not assured above: 10,000 ft 17,000 ft 25,000 ft 30,000 ft.
The APU maybe used as an electrical and pneumatic source simultaneously up to 10,000 ft 17,000 ft 25,000 ft 30,000 ft.
The APU maybe used as a pneumatic source up to 10,000 ft 17,000 ft 25,000 ft. 30,000 ft.
Inflight, the Ground Service Bus is normally: Not powered Powered from Main Bus No. 1 Powered from Generator Bus No. 1 Powered from Transfer Bus No. 1.
On the ground, with the Battery switch off and Standby Power switch in Auto, The Battery Bus is: Not powered Powered from TR 3 Powered from Hot Battery Bus Powered from battery charger.
The APU is inoperative. If generator No. 2 fails, the Battery Bus will be
powered from: TR 3 The Battery The Hot Battery bus, supplemented by the Battery charger The DC Standby Bus.
With external power connected to the airplane, the Battery charger will
operate: When the ground Service switch is positioned ON When generator Bus No. 1 is powered When generator Bus No. 2 is powered All of the above are correct.
When the generator No. 2 fails inflight. With the Transfer Bus powered,
which of the following components would be inoperative? Forward fuel pump in tank no. 2 Left fuel pump in the center tank Recirculation Tank All of the above are correct.
After the loss of all the generators, a fully charged Battery can furnish power to the Standby Bus equipment for a minimum of: 5 minutes 30 minutes 60 minutes No limit.
One Basic Principle of operation for the electrical system is: All generator Bus sources can be automatically connected by the Standby power System. There is no pararelling of the AC source of power. There is no pararelling of any source of power with any other source of power. An AC source of power maybe used in pararell with a DC power.
The TR 3 Diconnect relay: Must be manually openend using the BUS TRANSFER switch during flight Director Approach Normally powers the Battery Bus and back-ups TR units 1 and 2 throuh a diode Automatically opens at Glide Slope capture during a flight Director or Autopilot ILS Approach. Will trip off when AC volts reaches 26 volts ( plus or minus 4 volts) as displayed on the AC voltmeter.
How is the crew oxygen system pressure determine? Direct Reading gauge, viewed on walk-around inspection. Direct Reading gauge, viewed on walk-around inspection. Electrical gauge on the aft overhead panel. Direct reading gauge on each mask.
At what cabin Altitude is the passenger oxygen system activated? 10,000 ft 12,500 ft. 14,000 ft. 15,000 ft.
What does the crew oxygen system shutoff valve do? Controls the flow of low pressure oxygen. Acts as a high pressure reducer Controls the flow of high pressure oxygen Acts as a low pressure reducer.
The PASSENGER OXYGEN light illuminates. Whatn does this indicates? Passenger oxygen system pressure is low Passenger oxygen quantity is low. Passenger oxygen system is activated. Oxygen shutoff valve is ON.
What is the power source for the EMERGENCY EXIT lights? Hot Battery Bus Main Bus Transfer Bus Nicad Batteries.
What happens with the NO SMOKING/ FASTEN BELTS switches in
AUTO? The NO SMOKING signs illuminates when the landing gear is extended The NO SMOKING signs illuminates when the flaps are extended. The FASTEN BELT signs extinguish hen the flaps are extended.
What fluorescent flood lighting does the BACKGROUND light switch on the CAPTAINS panel regulate? Captain’s, First Officer’s and Center panels Captain’s and First Officer’s panels. Captain’s and Center panels First Officer’s and Center panels.
The indications for an engine fire warning are MASTER CAUTION and
OVHT/ DET annunciator lights, the ENG OVERHEAT light, the master FIRE WARN lights and the RED fire switch light. What else are indications? APU DET INOP light illuminates Red ENG OVERHEAT light illumintes. Fire bell sounds.
The MASTER CAUTION & OVH/DET annunciator lights illuminate. The fire sensors have detected a fire The wing-body overheat sensors detected an overheat condition. An immediate check on the fire panel is required. An overheat condition has been detected along the main bleed air duct.
Illumination of the APU DET INOP will cause the MASTER CAUTION &
OVHT/DET annunciator lights to illuminate. True False.
Placing the TEST switch in the FAULT/INOP position tests: The engine overheat detectors. The fault detection circuits for both engines and APU The APU DET INOP light, FAULT LIGHT, and APU BOTTLE
DISCHARGE light.
The engine fire detection system is operating normally as a dual loop system. An alert is initiated only if both loops detect an overheat or fire condition. True False.
Pulling up an engine Fire Warning switch: Discharge the respective fire extinguisher. Trips the generator control relay and generator breaker, deactivates the engine driven hydraulic pump LOW PRESSURE light, and closes the fuel shutoff valve. Arms one squib on each engine fire extinguisher, and closes the hydraulic, bleed air, and thrust reverser shutoff valves. Both B and C are correct.
Pulling up the APU Fire Warning switch: Discharge the APU fire extinguisher Trips the generator control relay and generator breaker, arms one squib on the APU fire extinguisher, and closes the bleed air valve. Closes the fuel shutoff valve, and the APU inlet door. Both B and C are correct.
The trailing edge flaps are at 15 units. The correct indications on the aft
overhead panel for the leading edge device is: All amber TRANSIT lights illuminated. All LE devices FULL EXT lights illuminated. All LE devices EXT lights illuminated LE slats EXT lights and LE flaps FULL EXT lights illuminated.
During alternate flaps extension for landing. The yaw damper must be disengaged. Assymetry protection is available Airspeed is restricted to 210 kts for this procedure. The flap lever must be in the up position.
After takeoff. What is the normal maneuvering airspeed for flaps5 at
120,000lbs (54,431 kgs). 150 knots 160 knots 170 knots 180 knots.
The ALTERNATE FLAPS Master switch: Fully extends the LE Devices using Standby Hydraulic pressure, and electrically extends the TE flaps. Closes the flight spoiler shutoff valve. Activates the standby Hydraulic Pump and pressurizes the Standby Rudder Power Control Unit. Arms the Alternate Flaps position switch, activates the standby hydraulic Pump, and closes the TL Flaps Bypass valve.
The LE TRANSIT light: Indicates all LE Devices are fully extended Indicates LE slats are fully extended Is inhibited during autoslats operation in flight Provides TE flaps asymmetry protection.
Which of the following is true when describing the pitot static system? The pitot lines are cross connected for the dynamic balance All static systems are cross-connected for dynamic balance. There are three primary pitot-static system. The GPWS is not affected by a blocked or frozen pitot-static system.
The electric MACH/AIRSPEED indicators Receive signals from their respective Air Data Computer. Receive signals from the pitot static system. Display warning flags when the display is unreliable. Both A and C are correct.
Should you change the FMC active NAV DATA base while inflight? Yes No.
Which of the following coordinates can be entered as the PPOS (present
position) for IRS alignment? Last position Airport Reference point Actual PPOS, if known Any of the above.
Inflight, two fuel pump LOW PRESSURE lights for the NO. 1 tank
illuminate. What happens with No. 1 engine? It receives fuel from the No. 2 tank automatically. It will shutdown due to fuel starvation. It receives fuel from the No. 1 tank through the fuel pump bypass valve. It continues to operate due to to the metering of the fuel by the fuel control unit.
What is the maximum fuel inbalance between tanks 1 and 2 for landing? 1500 lbs. (680 kgs.) 1300 lbs. (590 kgs.) 1100 lbs. (500 kgs.) 1000 lbs. (453 kgs.).
The power Transfer Unit provides a backup source of hydraulic pressure to operate the: Trailing Edge Flaps Landing gear Autoslats Outboard spoilers.
The AUTOSLATS system: Is normally powered by system B Uses system A pressure Uses system A fluid Uses standby system fluid.
What system normally provides hydraulic pressure for Nose Wheel Steering? System A System B Standby system Nose Wheel Steering accumulator.
The LOCKOUT PIN is installed in the steering depressurization valve. What does this do? Bypass system B pressure Bypass both system A and B pressure Allows airplane pushback or towing w/o depressurizing System A Both A and C are correct.
What is the airspeed restriction when the WINDOW HEAT is inoperative? 250 KIAS 280 KIAS 250 KIAS below 10,000 ft 280 KIAS below 10,000 ft.
What is the maximum external air pressure for the pneumatic system? 35 psi 45 psi 55 psi 60 psi.
What do the dashes in the AUTO frequency display window of the
navigation frequency selector panel indicate? FMC is using the IRS system as the primary navigation source No radio facility along the planned course Agility tuning in progress The DME function of the VORTAC or VOR/DME is inoperative.
What information is available with IRS mode selector in ATT? Only attitude information Only heading information Attitude and heading information Only altitude information.
What systems rely on the pneumatic system for operation? Airconditioning/ Pressurization, Wing Anti-ice, Apu Wing Anti-ice, APU, Engine Starting APU, Engine Starting, Aircondtioning / Pressurization Engine Starting, Airconditioning / Pressurization, Wing and engine Anti-ice, hydraulic reservoirs and water tank pressurization.
Illumination of the BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates what valve has
automatically closed? Modulating and Shutoff valve Engine Bleed Air Valve Isolation Valve All of the above are correct.
Engine oil pressure is in the yellow band at idle. Which of the following is
true? Normal, no action is necessary. Normal, but requires contiuous monitoring of the oil temperature. Undesirable, and permittied only for completion of the flight, preferably at reduced thrust setting. Unsafe and requires that the engine be shutdown.
What is the maximum time can an engine oil temperature can remain in the yellow band before the ENGINE FAILURE and SHUTDOWN checklist should be accomplished? 5 minutes 15 minutes 10 minutes No limit.
This ECAM page indicates that the RAM AIR is open. What is true about the operation of this valve? It opened automatically when both pack flow control valves were closed. It opened after the pilot has set the RAM AIR pb on the AIR panel to ON It has malfuntioned in the open position.
What is the status of the temperatures for PACK 1 on this ECAM BLEED page? The temperature limits have been exceeded. This is normal when the pack is off Temperature data are not available for PACK 1.
According to this ECAM BLEED page, pack 2 flow is high because: The pilot manually has selected HI flow Only one pack is in use. HI flow is the normal flow rate for all situations.
According to this ECAM BLEED page and this AIR panel. The RAM AIR inlet is stuck in the open position. The RAM AIR inlet is closed. The RAM AIR inlet is transit.
In this situation: All heading references switch to true. ND heading reference is in true but PFD and DDRMI remain magnetic. ND and PFD references are true and DDRMI reference is magnetic.
The aircarft is in approach, below 100ft. According to the FMA Alpha Floor protection is not available. Alpha Floor protection is available. Alpha Floor protection has been activated.
The aircraft is in flight after Take off. According to this FMA: Alpha Floor protection is not available. Alpha Floor protection is available. Alpha Floor protection has been activated.
The graphics ondicate an emergency call from the cabin. To answer the call the pilot should: Use the handset located on the pedestal Select the CAB transmission key and reception knob and use his boom mike Select INT on the INT/RAD switch and use his boom mike.
This aircraft is in a 45 degree bank and has entered high speed
protection. If the stick is released to neutral position, the aircraft will Maintain 45 degrees of bank. Roll to 33 degrees of bank Roll to 0 degrees of bank (wing level).
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