AG- Ensalada tropical

What is the primary source of conditioned air for the cockpit? (737-300/500). Left pack. Right pack.

In flight, two pack operation from a single bleed air source is not recommended. (737-300/500). True. False.

A single air conditioning pack is: (737-300/500). Capable of maintaining airplane pressurization. Capable of maintaining an acceptable temperature throughout the airplane. Not capable of maintaining pressurization above FL250. Both a and b.

This light will be illuminated anytime the flaps are extended. (737-300/500).

These switches open the valves that permit airflow into the air conditioning packs. (737-300/500).

This light illuminates whenever the pack experiences an automatic shutdown.

This switch activates a system that collects air in a shroud located above the forward cargo compartment, then filters the air, and delivers it back to the air conditioning distribution manifold.

This switch is used to select the temperature at which the cockpit will be maintained. (737-300/500).

This switch is used to re-establish normal operation after any part of the pneumatic or air conditioning system has automatically shut down due to an overheat. (737-300/500).

These indicators should be in the full cold position when the respective DUCT OVERHEAT light is illuminated.

This indicator can show the temperature in either the supply duct or the passenger cabin.

The TRIP RESET switch will not extinguish these lights when illuminated.

This switch is used to select which part of the airplane will be monitored for temperature indication. (737-300/500).

The purpose of the recirculation fan(s) is to: (737-300/500). Improve the cabin temperature distribution. Reduce air conditioning pack load. Reduce engine bleed air demand. Both b and c.

What part of the system has overheated when the right DUCT OVERHEAT light is illuminated?. Passenger cabin duct. Bleed air duct. Compressor discharge. Pack temperatures exceeding limits.

What will be the position of the air mix valves after the DUCT OVERHEAT light illuminates?. Full cold. Full hot. Mid-range. Same position as when light illuminated.

If the FLT/GRD switch on the panel below is moved to FLT while the airplane is on the ground, the airplane will: (737-300/500). Remain depressurized. Pressurize to the selected cabin altitude. Pressurize to approximately .1 psid.

When should the RAM DOOR FULL OPEN light be illuminated? (737-300/500). Only on the ground. Only in flight when the flaps are extended. Whenever the pack temperature is above 110°C. In flight when the flaps are extended or on the ground.

What modes of the pressurization controller use the AC motor to control the outflow valve? (737-300/500). AUTO and STBY. AUTO and MAN AC. STBY and MAN AC. AUTO, STBY and MAN AC.

What modes of the pressurization controller use the DC motor to control the outflow valve? (737-300/500). AUTO and STBY. STBY and MAN DC. AUTO and MAN DC. AUTO, STBY and MAN DC.

If the FLT/GRD switch were inadvertently moved to GRD while in flight, what would happen to cabin altitude? (737-300/500). Increase. Decrease. Remain the same.

At what cabin altitude does the intermittent cabin warning horn sound? (737-300/500). 8,000 feet. 14,000 feet. 10,000 feet. 17,000 feet.

What does the illumination of the OFF SCHED DESCENT light indicate? (737-300/500). The airplane has leveled off below the selected flight altitude. The selected landing altitude is higher than the selected cabin altitude. The selected landing altitude is lower than the selected cabin altitude. The airplane has descended before reaching the selected flight altitude.

On the panel below, with the airplane in cruise, the cabin altitude will: (737-300/500). Increase. Decrease. Remain the same if the auto controller has not failed.

The Outflow Valve Position Indicator operates in all modes? (737-300/500). True. False.

In STBY, what is the range of the Cabin Rate Selector? (737-300/500). 100 to 500 feet/min. 50 to 2000 feet/min. 50 to 350 feet/min. 300 to 1000 feet/min.

The rate of outflow valve operation in MAN AC is faster than that in MAN DC. True. False.

The First Officer selects a CAB ALT below field elevation. The airplane will: (737-300/500). Pressurize to the selected CAB ALT. Pressurize to a maximum of .125 psi. Remain depressurized.

The FLT/GRD Switch is moved to FLT. The airplane will: Pressurize the cabin to 0.1 psid (approximately 200 feet below airport elevation). Begin to pressurize after takeoff. Remain depressurized.

When using the cabin rate selector, what is the rate of cabin climb or descent at the index mark?. 50 feet/min. 100 feet/min. 300 feet/min. 500 feet/min.

If required to operate in either MAN AC or MAN DC for pressurization control, the cabin rate of change can be controlled with the CABIN RATE selector. (737-300/500). True. False.

While in cruise you experience a failure of both the AUTO and STBY modes. To make the cabin altitude decrease, what should you do? (737-300/500). Close the outflow valve. Open the outflow valve. Turn OFF one pack. Turn OFF both packs.

Following an unpressurized takeoff, when should the No. 2 Engine Bleed Air Switch be positioned ON. (737-300/500). Prior to 400 feet AGL. Prior to 400 feet MSL. After the gear is up and obstacle clearance has been attained. Not less than 400 feet and prior to 2000 feet above the ground.

When operating in MAN AC or MAN DC, the FLT/GRD switch operates normally. (737-300/500). True. False.

Used to select cabin altitude for STBY operation. (737-300/500).

This indicator shows the actual cabin altitude. (737-300/500).

This light illuminates if the airplane descends before reaching the selected cruise altitude. (737-300/500).

These lights illuminate when the respective operating mode is active. (737-300/500).

This switch is used to depressurize the airplane on the ground. (737-300/500).

This knob is used to select the cruise altitude. (737-300/500).

With this switch in AUTO, the associated system shuts off when both packs are operating in high.

This indicator shows the position of the main outflow valve. (737-300/500).

These lights will illuminate if AC power is lost. (737-300/500).

This selector is used to vary the cabin rate of change. (737-300/500).

This switch will silence the altitude warning horn. (737-300/500).

This light will illuminate when the AUTO FAIL light illuminates when operating in the AUTO mode. (737-300/500).

This knob is used to select the mode of operation. (737-300/500).

This indicator shows the selected landing altitude. (737-300/500).

This indicator shows the differential between cabin and ambient pressure. (737-300/500).

When this green light is illuminated, an entire flight may be conducted with only minor variations to normal operations. (737-300/500).

Before engine start the CAB ALT should be set for: (737-300/500). Landing field elevation minus 200 feet. Takeoff field elevation minus 200 feet. Cruise altitude for the planned flight altitude. Takeoff field elevation minus 300 feet.

What is the correct position of the FLT/GRD switch during engine start? (737-300/500). FLT. GRD.

After takeoff, the CAB ALT window should be adjusted to: (737-300/500). The actual flight altitude for the flight. The landing airfield altitude, minus 200 feet. The computed cabin altitude from the Cabin/Flt Altitude Placard. None of the above.

Before descent the CAB ALT selector must be adjusted to: (737-300/500). Landing field elevation. Landing field elevation plus 200 feet. Landing field elevation minus 200 feet. Landing field elevation minus 300 feet.

With the DUCT OVERHEAT light illuminated, the mix valves should go full cold. What should be your next action?. Wait 15 to 20 seconds for the light to extinguish automatically. Select a cooler temperature, then press the TRIP RESET Switch when the system has cooled sufficiently. Select a warmer temperature with the automatic temperature controller. Monitor cabin altitude as one air conditioning pack is not working.

What is the position of the air mix valve when the amber PACK TRIP OFF light is illuminated?. Full cold. Any mid position. Full hot.

With the PACK TRIP OFF light illuminated: Position the Pack switch to OFF. The pack valve closes automatically and may be reset. Position the Bleed switch to OFF. Open the isolation valve.

One of the steps in the Pack Trip Off procedure is to select a warmer temperature. This is done to reduce: Cabin air outflow. The heat required from the other pack. The cooling work load of the pack. The air load on the mix valves.

When illuminated, the amber AUTO FAIL light indicates: (737-300/500). The airplane will soon lose all pressurization. The automatic controller has failed. Pressurization control will switch to the standby mode in 5 seconds. The mode selector must be moved to STBY to control pressurization.

When the amber AUTO FAIL light, and the green STANDBY light illuminate, the crew must: (737-300/500). Rotate the mode selector to STBY to extinguish the AUTO FAIL light. Select MAN AC or DC to control the cabin pressurization. Rotate the mode selector to STBY to regain control of the cabin pressurization. Press the Master Caution light to Extinguish the AUTO FAIL light.

List the order of the steps necessary to control the cabin altitude after an unscheduled pressurization change. (737-300/500).

What is the primary source of conditioned air for the cockpit? (737-400). Left pack. Right pack.

In flight, two pack operation from a single bleed air source is not recommended. (737-400). True. False.

A single air conditioning pack is: (737-400). Capable of maintaining airplane pressurization. Capable of maintaining an acceptable temperature throughout the airplane. Not capable of maintaining pressurization above FL250. Both a and b.

This light will be illuminated anytime the flaps are extended. (737-400).

These switches open the valves that permit airflow into the air conditioning packs. (737-400).

This light illuminates whenever the pack experiences an automatic shutdown, or failure of both primary and standby pack controls.

These switches activate a system that collects air in a shroud located above the forward cargo compartment, then filters the air, and delivers it back to the air conditioning distribution manifold.

This switch is used to select the temperature at which the cockpit will be maintained. (737-400).

This switch is used to re-establish normal operation after any part of the pneumatic or air conditioning system has automatically shut down due to an overheat. (737-400).

This light indicates a failure of both primary and back-up temperature controls, or a duct temperature overheat.

This indicator can show the temperature in the supply ducts or the passenger cabin zones.

This light indicates an air leak which is causing a high temperature to occur within the airplane structure.

This switch is used to select which part of the airplane will be monitored for temperature indication. (737-400).

The purpose of the recirculation fan(s) is to: (737-400). Improve the cabin temperature distribution. Reduce air conditioning pack load. Reduce engine bleed air demand. Both b and c.

What is the function of trim air in the air conditioning system?. Provide better mixing of air between zones. Lower air temperature. Raise air temperature. Reduce total airflow through the system.

Each zone has a primary and a back-up temperature control. True. False.

If the FLT/GRD switch on the panel below is moved to FLT while the airplane is on the ground, the airplane will: (737-400). Remain depressurized. Pressurize to the selected cabin altitude. Pressurize to approximately .1 psid.

When should the RAM DOOR FULL OPEN light be illuminated? (737-400). Only on the ground. Only in flight when the flaps are extended. Whenever the pack temperature is above 110°C. In flight when the flaps are extended or on the ground.

What modes of the pressurization controller use the AC motor to control the outflow valve? (737-400). AUTO and STBY. AUTO and MAN AC. STBY and MAN AC. AUTO, STBY and MAN AC.

What modes of the pressurization controller use the DC motor to control the outflow valve? (737-400). AUTO and STBY. STBY and MAN DC. AUTO and MAN DC. AUTO, STBY and MAN DC.

If the FLT/GRD switch were inadvertently moved to GRD while in flight, what would happen to cabin altitude? (737-400). Increase. Decrease. Remain the same.

At what cabin altitude does the intermittent cabin warning horn sound? (737-400). 8,000 feet. 14,000 feet. 10,000 feet. 17,000 feet.

What does the illumination of the OFF SCHED DESCENT light indicate? (737-400). The airplane has leveled off below the selected flight altitude. The selected landing altitude is higher than the selected cabin altitude. The selected landing altitude is lower than the selected cabin altitude. The airplane has descended before reaching the selected flight altitude.

On the panel below, with the airplane in cruise, the cabin altitude will: (737-400). Increase. Decrease. Remain the same if the auto controller has not failed.

The Outflow Valve Position Indicator operates in all modes? (737-400). True. False.

In STBY, what is the range of the Cabin Rate Selector? (737-400). 100 to 500 feet/min. 50 to 2000 feet/min. 50 to 350 feet/min. 300 to 1000 feet/min.

The rate of operation in MAN AC is faster than that in MAN DC. True. False.

The First Officer selects a CAB ALT below field elevation. The airplane will: (737-400). Pressurize to the selected CAB ALT. Pressurize to a maximum of .125 psi. Remain depressurized.

The FLT/GRD switch is moved to FLT. The airplane will: Pressurize to the selected CAB ALT. Begin to pressurize after takeoff. Remain depressurized.

What is the rate of cabin climb or descent at the index?. 50 feet/min. 100 feet/min. 300 feet/min. 500 feet/min.

If required to operate in either MAN AC or MAN DC for pressurization control, the cabin rate of change can be controlled with the CABIN RATE selector. (737-400). True. False.

While in cruise you experience a failure of both the AUTO and STBY modes. To make the cabin altitude decrease, what should you do? (737-400). Close the outflow valve. Open the outflow valve. Turn OFF one pack. Turn OFF both packs.

Following an unpressurized takeoff, when should the No. 2 Engine Bleed Air Switch be positioned ON. (737-400). Prior to 400 feet AGL. Prior to 400 feet MSL. After the gear is up and obstacle clearance has been attained. Not less than 400 feet and prior to 2000 feet above the ground.

When operating in MAN AC or MAN DC, the FLT/GRD switch operates normally. (737-400). True. False.

Used to select cabin altitude for STBY operation. (737-400).

This indicator shows the actual cabin altitude. (737-400).

This light illuminates if the airplane descends before reaching the selected cruise altitude. (737-400).

These lights illuminate when the respective operating mode is active. (737-400).

This switch is used to depressurize the airplane on the ground. (737-400).

This knob is used to select the cruise altitude. (737-400).

With the airplane on the ground, with this switch in AUTO mode, the associated system shuts off when both packs are operating in high.

This indicator shows the position of the main outflow valve. (737-400).

These lights will illuminate if AC power is lost. (737-400).

This selector is used to vary the cabin rate of change. (737-400).

This switch will silence the altitude warning horn. (737-400).

This light will illuminate when the AUTO FAIL light illuminates when operating in the AUTO mode. (737-400).

This knob is used to select the mode of operation. (737-400).

This indicator shows the selected landing altitude. (737-400).

This indicator shows the differential between cabin and ambient pressure. (737-400).

When this green light is illuminated, an entire flight may be conducted with only minor variations to normal operations. (737-400).

Before engine start the CAB ALT should be set for: (737-400). Landing field elevation minus 200 feet. Takeoff field elevation minus 200 feet. Cruise altitude for the planned flight altitude. Takeoff field elevation minus 300 feet.

What is the correct position of the FLT/GRD switch during engine start? (737-400). FLT. GRD.

After takeoff, the CAB ALT window should be adjusted to: (737-400). The actual flight altitude for the flight. The landing airfield altitude, minus 200 feet. The computed cabin altitude from the Cabin/Flt Altitude Placard. None of the above.

Before descent the CAB ALT selector must be adjusted to: (737-400). Landing field elevation. Landing field elevation plus 200 feet. Landing field elevation minus 200 feet. Landing field elevation minus 300 feet.

With the PACK light illuminated: Position the Pack switch to OFF. The pack valve closes automatically and may be reset. Position the Bleed switch to OFF. Open the isolation valve.

One of the steps in the PACK light illuminates procedure is to select a warmer temperature. This is done to reduce: Cabin air outflow. The heat required from the other pack. The cooling work load of the pack. The air from the Trim Air Modulating valve.

When illuminated, the amber AUTO FAIL light indicates: (737-400). The airplane will soon lose all pressurization. The automatic controller has failed. Pressurization control will switch to the standby mode in 5 seconds. The mode selector must be moved to STBY to control pressurization.

When the amber AUTO FAIL light, and the green STANDBY light illuminate, the crew must: (737-400). Rotate the mode selector to STBY to extinguish the AUTO FAIL light. Select MAN AC or DC to control the cabin pressurization. Rotate the mode selector to STBY to regain control of the cabin pressurization. Press the Master Caution light to Extinguish the AUTO FAIL light.

List the order of the steps necessary to control the cabin altitude after an unscheduled pressurization change. (737-400).

When the V/S mode is armed, a climb or descent away from the selected MCP altitude is possible. True. False.

When control wheel pressure is released during CWS roll operation, the airplane will roll wings level when the bank angle is ______. 5 degrees or less. 6 degrees or less. 10 degrees or less. Always holds attitude.

The Automatic Flight System (AFS) consists of ______. Autopilot (A/P). Flight director (F/D). Autothrottle (A/T). All of the above.

Normally, the N1 limits and target N1 values are provided to the A/T by the. A/T computer. AFDS. Flight Management Computer (FMC). ADC.

How many independent Flight Control Computers (FCC) are there in the Autopilot Flight Director System (AFDS)?. One. Two. Three. Four.

The autopilot cannot be engaged while force is applied to the control wheel. True. False.

After a F/D takeoff, the A/T remains in THR HOLD until: 1000 ft. and 2 1/2 min. 800 ft. and 18 sec. 800 ft. and 2 1/2 min. 400 ft. and 18 sec.

Moving the Stabilizer Trim Autopilot Cutout Switch to the CUTOUT Position will disengage the autopilot. True. False.

Trimming the stabilizer with the electrical trim switch on the control wheel disengages the autopilot. True. False.

When can both autopilots be engaged in "CMD" at the same time?. V NAV engaged. VOR/LOC mode engaged. APP mode selected. L NAV engaged.

Which of the following occurs during a single autopilot ILS approach and the TO/GA switch is pressed for a missed approach at minimums?. Autopilot will disengage. TO/GA mode of the F/D is engaged. A/T advances thrust levers to reduced go-around N1. All of the above.

Which pitch mode does the A/P initially engage in when a F/D takeoff has been made and the first A/P is engaged in "CMD"?. CWSP. MCP SPD. V NAV engaged. V/S mode.

The airplane can be flown in the CWS mode even though the A/P is engaged in CMD. True. False.

The MCP altitude change required to arm the V/S mode when operating in the ALT HOLD pitch mode must be greater than ______. 100 feet. 500 feet. 1000 feet. V/S will not ARM.

Level change climbs and descents are made at the airspeed selected on the. FMC. A/T computer. MCP. Always 250 or 300 knots.

With V NAV mode engaged, the AFDS pitch and A/T modes are commanded by the. MCP. FMC. FCC. F/D.

If the autopilot ALT HOLD mode is overridden with control column pressure, which of the following occurs?. A/P disengages. L NAV mode disengages. A/P engages CWSP. Level Change automatically engages.

The control wheel force required to override the A/P COMMAND mode to CWS P or CWS R is ______. Less than normal CWS force. Greater than normal CWS force. The same as normal CWS force.

Which A/T modes permit manual thrust changes without A/T interference?. SPEED and ARM. N1 and ARM. THR HLD and ARM. Only THR HLD.

Once the A/T is armed, engaging an AFDS pitch mode automatically engages the required A/T mode. True. False.

The A/T will not exceed an N1 limit that has been manually set in the N1 Manual Set Indicator. True. False.

With only the Captain's F/D turned ON and the B autopilot engaged in CMD, which MA light will be illuminated?. Captain's. First Officer's. Both MA lights illuminated. Both MA lights extinguished.

Which flight modes will be annunciated when the autopilot is initially engaged in the CMD mode and both F/D's are OFF?. HDG SEL, MCP SPD. HDG SEL, CWS PITCH. ALT HOLD, CWS ROLL. CWS ROLL, CWS PITCH.

Below which altitude (AGL) does the F/D Go-Around mode arm?. 3000 feet. 2000 feet. 1000 feet. 500 feet.

At which altitude (AGL) should the FLARE mode become engaged?. 300 feet. 200 feet. 150 feet. 50 feet.

Dual A/P operation requires which of the following?. Both F/D switches ON and A/T armed. Both NAV receivers tuned to the ILS frequency. APP mode selected. Both B and C are correct.

What is the minimum altitude (AGL) for engaging the second A/P to execute a dual channel A/P approach?. 2000 feet. 1500 feet. 800 feet. 500 feet.

The ALT HOLD mode of the AFDS is inhibited after the glide slope is captured during an ILS. True. False.

During V NAV PATH descent, V NAV remains engaged until: G/S capture. Another pitch mode is selected. Flaps are extended beyond 15. Any of the above.

Which statement is true of the Autothrottle?. The autothrottle can move the thrust levers separately. The autothrottle can be manually overridden. The autothrottle will reduce thrust toward idle at 27 feet AGL in the landing flare retard mode. All of the above are correct.

After LOC and G/S are both captured, the APP mode can be exited only by pressing a TO/GA switch or by disengaging the A/P and turning off both F/D switches or retuning a VHF NAV receiver. True. False.

When performing an ILS approach, the glide slope can be captured from above or below. True. False.

L NAV must be manually disengaged in order to capture the ILS localizer when performing an ILS approach. True. False.

Pressing this switch disengages both A/Ps.

Extinguishes A/P disengage lights and silences A/P warning tone after A/P disengagement.

Illuminates steady red if the stabilizer is out of trim below 800 feet on a dual channel approach.

When this light illuminates, the A/P is not trimming the stabilizer properly.

Pressing either of these switches disengages the A/T.

Pressing either of these switches engages the AFDS and autothrottle in takeoff or go-around mode, if previously armed.

These switches illuminate amber during Test 1.

Placing this switch to ON enables the command bars to be displayed on the respective pilot's ADI.

Rotating this dial sets the course in the course display for the respective VHF NAV receiver, AFDS and HSI.

When this light is illuminated, the A/T switch is in the ARM position.

Each time this switch is pressed, the IAS/MACH DISPLAY changes between IAS and MACH.

Engaging this mode allows the AFDS and A/T to execute automatic climbs and descents to an MCP selected altitude at an MCP selected airspeed.

This mode terminates when HDG SEL mode is engaged or upon VOR LOC capture.

This dial sets the maximum bank angle for AFDS operation in HDG SEL and VOR modes.

Pressing this MODE SELECTOR SWITCH signals the AFDS to turn to and maintain the heading set in the heading display.

Pressing this switch arms the Autopilot and Flight Director to capture an ILS localizer and glideslope.

This display is active only when the vertical speed mode is engaged.

Rotating this selector moves the heading markers on both pilots HSI's.

A mode change highlight symbol (rectangle) is drawn around each mode annunciation for a period of 10 seconds after each engagement. True. False.

An engaged mode is annunciated by green lettering. True. False.

An armed mode is annunciated by white lettering. True. False.

This autopilot status display inidcates which one of the following?. The APP mode is armed and one A/P is selected in CMD. The APP mode is armed and one A/P is selected in CWS. Both A/Ps are OFF and the respective F/D is ON.

The APU oil cooler and electrical generator are cooled by: Bleed air pressure. A gear driven fan. An oil/fuel intercooler. An electric fan.

Fuel for APU operation is normally obtained from _____. The APU tank in the aft fuselage. Right wing tank. Left wing tank. Centerline tank.

APU fuel is heated automatically, if required. True. False.

The APU oil is cooled by: A fuel/oil exchanger. A heat exchanger in the #1 (left) fuel tank. Positive airflow by a gear-driven fan. APU bleed air through temperature-controlled inlet guide vanes.

The APU/OVERSPEED light will illuminate when ______. APU RPM is excessive. During normal operation when APU overspeed protection has been lost. During APU shutdown when overspeed protection has been lost. Both a and C.

The maximum altitude for use of the APU bleed air is ______ ft. 10,000. 17,000. 25,000. 35,000.

The Battery Switch must be on during APU operation on the ground. True. False.

The maximum altitude for using both an electrical load and the bleed air on the APU is ______ ft. 10,000. 17,000. 25,000. 35,000.

The maximum altitude for APU operation is ______ ft. 10,000. 17,000. 35,000. 37,000.

Momentarily positioning the APU switch to START will ______. Open the air inlet door. Open the Fuel Shutoff valve. After the air inlet door is open, cause the starter motor to engage. All of the above.

Automatic shutdown will occur for ______. Overspeed or fire. Low oil pressure. High oil temperature. All of the above.

The APU LOW OIL PRESSURE light will illuminate when. APU oil pressure is low. Starting APU. The APU switch is placed to the OFF position. Both a and b.

The APU bleed air valve may be open after engine start as long as engine RPM does not go above idle. True. False.

The Battery Switch should not be turned off until ______ after the APU shuts down. 20 sec. 30 sec. NO DELAY. 1 min.

The APU GEN OFF BUS light will illuminate when the APU is at governed speed, ready to accept a load. True. False.

The illumination of the APU DET INOP light indicates ______. APU fire detection is inoperative. That the APU should not be started. That the APU should be shut down if operating. All of the above.

If positioning the APU Switch to the OFF position fails to shut down the APU, then. Pull the APU FIRE WARNING Switch. Turn off the Center Tank fuel boost pumps. Turn off the left Tank fuel boost pumps. Manually close the APU Fuel Shutoff Valve.

Illumination of the APU FIRE WARNING light will ______. Automatically discharge the APU fire bottle. Shutdown the APU. Unlock the APU FIRE WARNING Switch. Both b and c.

Pulling and rotating the APU FIRE WARNING Switch will ______. Close the APU Fuel Shutoff Valve. Discharge the APU fire bottle. Close the APU air inlet door. All of the above.

Galley electrical loads will be automatically shed should airplane power requirements exceed APU generator design limits. True. False.

There is no requirement to monitor EGT during APU start. True. False.

The illumination of the MAINT light indicates that the APU should not be used for an extended period of operation. True. False.

The maximum altitude for having an electrical load on the APU is ______ ft. 10,000. 17,000. 35,000. 37,000.

Which of the following will illuminate the APU OVERSPEED light?. APU RPM is excessive. APU automatic start is aborted by the pilot. Overspeed shutdown protection is lost during APU shutdown. a and c.

Illumination of the APU FAULT light ______. Will cause an automatic shutdown; the APU may not be restarted. Will cause an automatic shutdown; the APU may be restarted. Is only caused by high oil temperature. Will not cause an automatic shutdown.

The maximum altitude for having an electrical load on the APU is. 10,000 ft. 17,000 ft. 35,000 ft. 37,000 ft.

In the event of an APU EGT overtemp, ______. The Bleed Air Valve will close rapidly. The APU will continue to operate. The APU will automatically shut down. Both a and b.

The maximum EGT for starting and transient conditions is ______ °C. 700. 710. 750. 760.

The maximum continuous EGT is ______ °C. 700. 710. 750. 760.

It is recommended that the APU be operated for ______ with no pneumatic load prior to shut down. 30 sec. 15 sec. 1 min. 5 min.

Illumination of the FAULT light means that the oil is too hot for normal operation and the APU will shut down. True. False.

AC power frequency and voltage is ______. 240 CPS/115V. 400 CPS/115V. 60 CPS/110V. 400 CPS/240V.

The DC voltage of the battery and transformer/rectifier output is ______. 12V. 115V. 28V. 36V.

All generator bus sources must be manually connected through the movement of a switch. True. False.

When a new power source is switched onto a bus, the source that was previously powering the system is automatically disconnected. True. False.

On the ground, all the electrical busses may be supplied by ______. The APU generator. External AC ground power. One engine driven generator. Either a or b.

If one engine driven generator fails in flight, the ______ may be used to power all its busses. Other engine driven generator. APU generator. Battery. Battery charger.

Each transfer bus has an associated transfer relay which automatically selects the opposite generator bus as a power supply if its normal source fails and the transfer switch is in AUTO. True. False.

This light illuminates any time the engine generator is not connected to its respective bus.

This indicator shows the frequency of the selected source.

When this light is illuminated, the AC Standby Bus is inactive.

With this switch in the STBY PWR position, only the bus voltage will be displayed on the DC voltmeter.

This light illuminates whenever an operating external power source is connected to the airplane.

The OFF position of this switch deactivates the battery bus on the ground.

This switch is used to disconnect the generator drive when abnormal operation is detected.

This switch is used to deactivate the automatic transfer of AC power sources.

This light illuminates when the generator drive operating pressure is below a safe value.

Positioning this switch to ON will simultaneously trip both engine generators.

This switch connects the engine generator to its respective bus.

This amber light illuminates whenever electrical power is lost to its respective bus.

The BAT position of this switch powers the No. 1 VHF through the battery bus.

This amber warning light is normally illuminated before the engines are started.

Battery voltage can be checked by positioning this switch to the BAT position.

Under normal in flight operating conditions, what is the relationship of the No. 1 electrical system to the No. 2 electrical system?. Completely independent AC and DC busses. Independent AC busses, paralleled DC busses. Paralleled AC busses, independent DC busses. Parallel AC and DC busses.

Each transfer bus has an associated transfer relay which automatically selects the opposite generator bus as an alternate power supply if its primary source fails. (BUS TRANSFER - AUTO). True. False.

In flight, the Standby AC and DC busses can be powered from ______. Battery Bus. Transfer Bus No. 1. Transfer Bus No. 2. Either a or b.

DC power required for systems control, light, communications and navigation equipment can be supplied by ______. Transformer/Rectifier (T/R) units. Battery. No. 1 Main Bus. Both a and b.

The AC Standby Bus is normally powered by ______. Transfer Bus No. 1. Main Bus No. 1. Main Bus No. 2. Transfer Bus No. 2.

The DC Standby Bus is normally powered by. Battery Bus. No. 1 DC Bus. No. 2 DC Bus. T/R No. 3.

Transformer/Rectifier No. 3 receives its power from ______. No. 1 Generator Bus. No. 1 Main Bus. No. 2 Transfer Bus. No. 2 Main Bus.

Normal operation of a T/R may be confirmed by positioning the DC METER switch to the desired T/R position and observing a positive reading on the DC AMPS meter. True. False.

The T/R No. 3 disconnect relay automatically opens at glide slope capture. To prevent a single bus failure from affecting both navigation receivers and flight control computers. To provide more power to the AC Standby bus. To ensure that the Standby DC bus is powered. All of the above.

The maximum Generator Drive oil temperature is ______. 20°C. 157°C. 150°C. 145°C.

Illumination of the Generator Drive LOW OIL PRESSURE light requires the crew to. Trip the respective generator circuit breaker. Check the drive temperature for both IN and RISE. Land as soon as possible. Disconnect the Generator Drive.

When you disconnect the Generator Drive for Generator No. 1 in flight, what three lights of the electrical system illuminate? (APU not running). Generator Drive LOW OIL PRESSURE, GEN OFF BUS, BUS OFF. Generator Drive LOW OIL PRESSURE, APU GEN OFF BUS, STANDBY POWER OFF. TRANSFER BUS OFF, BUS OFF, GEN OFF BUS. STANDBY PWR OFF, HIGH OIL TEMP, GEN OFF BUS.

On the ground, the STANDBY PWR OFF light will normally extinguish when. The Battery Switch is positioned to ON. STANDBY POWER is positioned to BAT. Any AC source is connected to the generator buses. Either b or c.

An in flight loss of all generators requires the crew to immediately position the STANDBY POWER Switch to the BAT position. True. False.

The maximum generator drive oil temperature rise is ______. 20°C. 30°C. 160°C. 25°C.

The Battery Switch must be ON in order to connect ground power to the aircraft systems. True. False.

In flight, electrical load shedding automatically turns off the galley power when operating on one generator. This reduces power demand and ensures that the remaining generator will not be overloaded. True. False.

When the extinguisher test switch is placed to the 1 or the 2 position, 3 lights illuminate. This indicates that: The fire extinguisher bottles are full. The discharge circuits are normal.

If an engine OVERHEAT light cannot be extinguished by using the recommended overheat procedures, Engine ______ procedures should be followed. Failure and Shutdown. Fire, Severe Damage or Separation.

Pulling the No. 2 ENGINE FIRE WARNING SWITCH will discharge the right fire bottle into the No. 2 engine. True. False.

APU Fire Detection loop failure is indicated by the illumination of the: APU FIRE WARNING light. FAULT light. MASTER FIRE WARNING lights. APU DET INOP light.

The FAULT light monitors which detector loops?. Engine 1 and Engine 2. The APU. Engine 1, Engine 2 and the APU.

With the Overheat Detector Switch in NORMAL, which loops must sense an overheat or fire condition before an overheat or fire warning is activated?. Either the A or B loop. Both the A and B loop.

During a fire condition in any engine the APU Bleed Air Switch must be positioned OFF. True. False.

During an engine fire condition, the isolation valve: Should be selected to OPEN. Should be selected to CLOSE. Should be left in AUTO.

The Engine Fire Extinguishing circuits are powered by the ______ bus. AC Standby. Battery. Hot Battery.

The wing-body overheat lights are located on the FWD OVHD PANEL. True. False.

A bleed air leak in the APU duct over the aft cargo compartment will: Illuminate the left WING-BODY OVERHEAT light, AIR COND annunciator and MASTER CAUTION lights. Illuminate the APU annunciator and MASTER CAUTION lights. Illuminate the right WING-BODY OVERHEAT light, AIR COND annunciator and MASTER CAUTION lights.

If a white dot on the temperature-indicator placard below a lavatory sink has turned black, it has been exposed to: Smoke. A water spill. High temperature.

If the FAULT light illuminates in flight, the MASTER CAUTION lights and OVHT/DET annunciator illuminate. True. False.

Pressing either MASTER FIRE WARNING light or BELL CUTOUT switch, while the TEST switch is held to OVHT/FIRE, will silence the APU horn in the main wheel well. True. False.

Pulling an Engine Fire Warning switch: Closes the fuel, bleed air, thrust reverser, and hydraulic shutoff valves. Trips the generator control relay. Arms one discharge squib on each engine fire extinguisher. All of the above.

On the ground with No. 1 Transfer Bus powered, performing a fire warning system test will cause the alarm horn in the wheel well to sound. True. False.

APU fire detection circuits are powered when the BATTERY SWITCH is off. True. False.

Pulling and rotating a FIRE WARNING SWITCH will discharge the fire extinguisher selected even when the Battery switch is OFF. True. False.

The right fire extinguisher can discharge into the left engine. True. False.

The BOTTLE DISCHARGE light will illuminate after rotating the FIRE SWITCH. True. False.

An engine overheat alert results from dual loop indications of: Overheat/overheat. Overheat/fire. Overheat/fault. All of the above.

An engine fire alert results from dual loop indications of: Fire/fire. Fault/fire. Fault/fault. a and b above.

Fire Warning Switches may be unlocked manually by: Resetting the switch. Pulling harder on the switch. Pressing the override release while pulling the switch. Pressing the override release while turning the switch.

Illumination of the following lights indicates a satisfactory test during the Fault/Inop Detection Test with the overheat detection switches in the NORM position and FAULT/INOP selected with the TEST switch: MASTER CAUTION lights, OVHT/DET annunciator, FAULT light and APU DET INOP light. MASTER FIRE WARNING lights, MASTER CAUTION lights, OVHT/DET annunciator, FAULT light and APU DET INOP light. MASTER FIRE WARNING lights, ENG 1&2 OVERHEAT lights, FAULT light and the OVHT/DET annunciator. MASTER CAUTION lights, WHEEL WELL fire light, APU fire warning switch and the FAULT light.

One of the several results of pulling the APU Fire Warning Switch is the: No. 1 engine bleed air valve closes. APU Bottle Discharge light illuminates. APU air inlet door opens. APU fuel shutoff valve closes.

Fire extinguishers provide freon for the following areas: Engine compartments, APU, lavatory and Wheel Well. Engine compartments and APU only. Engine compartments, APU and E&E compartment. Engine compartments, APU and lavatory.

An engine fire condition is indicated by the sound of the Alarm Bell and the illumination of Master Fire Warning lights, Engine Fire Warning Switch light, Engine Overheat light and the OVHT/DET light. True. False.

Detection of an APU fire condition automatically shuts the APU down. True. False.

The primary flight controls consist of rudder, ailerons, and. Spoilers. Flaps. Elevators. Speedbrakes.

In the event hydraulic Systems A and B fail, ailerons, elevators, and rudder can be operated with the Standby system. True. False.

The rudder is inoperative with all hydraulic systems turned OFF (Systems A, B Standby). True. False.

Roll control is provided by the ailerons, assisted by the ______. Flight spoilers. Ground spoilers. Both of the above.

After landing, the ground spoilers will extend: Automatically after wheel spin up occurs. When the Speed Brake lever is raised and the flaps are selected to 30/40. When the Speed Brake lever is raised and the right main gear strut is compressed. When Reverse thrust is selected after Speed Brake lever is raised.

How can the speed brakes be deployed during ground operation?. The pilot can raise the Speed Brake lever manually. Automatically if ARMED position selected while in flight. Selecting Reverse Thrust if Speed Brake lever was not ARMED. All of the above.

The SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light indicates that the speedbrake is not usable. True. False.

When using the speedbrake in flight, where should the lever be placed?. At any setting up to FLIGHT DETENT. In FLIGHT DETENT. At any setting.

The speedbrake lever will move forward and all spoilers will retract if either thrust lever is advanced after landing. True. False.

During a normal landing, flight spoilers and ground spoilers will always extend simultaneously. True. False.

Leading edge devices are normally operated by ______. Hydraulic System A. Hydraulic System B. Hydraulic Systems A and B. Standby hydraulic system.

At what flap setting(s) should the leading edge slats be in the EXTEND position?. 5-15. 15-40. 1-15. 1-5.

At what flap setting(s) should the leading edge slats be in the FULL EXTEND position?. 1. 1-5. Greater than 5. 5-40.

Leading edge devices can be extended by the standby hydraulic system. True. False.

Trailing edge flaps can be operated by the standby hydraulic system. True. False.

The autoslat feature is available ______. At all flap settings. At flaps 30-40. At landing flap settings. At flaps 1-5.

For takeoff, the stabilizer trim should be set ______. Anywhere in the green band. At maximum nose-up position. According to the CG of the airplane. Not selectable by pilots.

Flap asymmetry protection is not provided when using ALTERNATE FLAPS. True. False.

The LE FLAPS TRANSIT light illuminated indicates ______. Leading edge devices are in transit. Leading edge devices do not agree with trailing edge flap setting. Asymmetric leading edge devices. Any of the above.

Leading edge devices can be retracted by the standby hydraulic system. True. False.

Extending the flaps to flaps 15 using ALTERNATE FLAPS takes approximately. 30 seconds. 1 minute. 2 minutes. 4 minutes.

During a flaps 15 takeoff, flaps are retracted to 5 units at ______. 150 knots. 170 knots. V2. V2 + 15.

What do the MACH TRIM FAIL, SPEED TRIM FAIL and AUTO SLAT FAIL lights have in common?. Will illuminate if both system computers fail. Will illuminate during Master Caution Recall if only one computer has failed. Also illuminates the Master Caution and FLT CONT annunciator lights. All of the above.

Main electric trim has two speed modes: high speed and low speed. True. False.

The Mach Trim system provides speed stability above Mach: .715. .780. .615. .000.

If the stabilizer has been trimmed manually beyond the electric trim range, it may be returned electrically to the electric trim range. True. False.

What is the correct flap setting for a landing with hydraulic system B failed?. 15. 30. 40. 1.

With a loss of both system A and B, the elevator FEEL DIFF PRESS light will illuminate. True. False.

What is the correct flap setting for a jammed stabilizer landing?. 1. 5. 15. 40.

What is the command airspeed marker set at for an all flaps up landing?. V2 + 1/2 Headwind + gust. Vref. Vref 40 +55. Vref +5.

When the amber SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light illuminates, the speed brake lever should be placed to the DOWN detent. After touchdown, the speed brakes must be deployed manually. True. False.

If the yaw damper light remains illuminated, what is the autopilot engaged altitude limit. No limit. 15,000 feet. 20,000 feet. 30,000 feet.

The EADI is capable of displaying: ± 90° roll and ± 60° of pitch. ± 360° roll and ± 360° of pitch. ± 45° roll and ± 60° of pitch. ± 60° roll and ± 90° of pitch.

With approach engaged at 800 feet AGL the glide slope deviation scale changes color to yellow and the glide slope deviation pointer begins to flash. What does this indicate?. Glide slope signal is weak and unusable. The coded identification is missing from the glide slope signal. The airplane has deviated more than one dot above or below the glide slope. Partial color loss has occurred in the EADI.

(As installed) The rising runway symbol on the EADI moves: Up during the last 100 feet of radio altitude. Up during the last 300 feet of radio altitude. Up or down when descending or climbing below 100 feet AGL. Up or down when descending or climbing below 200 feet AGL.

An ILS approach is being flown and the expanded localizer scale is displayed on the EADI. What will occur if the localizer deviation exceeds one dot?. The display automatically switches to normal scale. The display remains in expanded scale. The runway stem flashes. The yellow LOC annunciation appears.

During an ILS approach the First Officer observes that the EADI decision height is blank and that the Captain's EADI shows a DH of 200. This means: The First Officer's radio altitude has failed. The First Officer's DH display has failed. The reset button should be pressed. The First Officer's DH value on the EFIS control panel is less than zero.

(As installed) The Captain observes the word "ROLL" displayed in yellow in the lower portion of the EADI during takeoff. This means: The airplane has exceeded 40 degrees of bank. No F/D or autopilot roll mode has been engaged. The Captain's roll attitude is more than 3° in error. The Captain's and First Officer's bank angle displays differ by more than 3°.

(As installed) The First Officer observes the word "PITCH" displayed in yellow in the lower portion of EADI during an ILS approach. This means that: The autopilot has defaulted to CWS pitch. Glide slope is not being tracked. The Captain's and First Officer's pitch angle displays differ by more than 3°. The First Officer's pitch attitude display is more than 3° in error.

Radio altitude is displayed: On the EADI when below 1,500 feet AGL. On the EHSI when below 1,500 feet AGL. On the EADI when below 2,500 feet AGL. On the EHSI when below 2,500 feet AGL.

The FMC automatically displays the decision height for the selected ILS approach on the EADI. True. False.

The decision height (DH) display on the EADIs is set: Automatically when the approach is selected. Independently by each pilot using his EFIS control panel. By entering the desired DH on the FMC CDU APPROACH REFERENCE page. By using the DH selector knob on the forward instrument panel.

During an ILS approach the Captain observes his radio altitude display turn yellow and begin flashing. This means that: Radio altitude data is unreliable. The airplane has descended below the Captain's selected decision height (DH). A windshear has been encountered. The airplane has descended below 1,000 feet AGL.

What will occur if the airplane pitch attitude becomes equal to the Pitch limit Symbol indication during slow speed maneuvering?. The airplane stalls. The airplane will experience initial stall buffet. The stick shaker warning activates. The stick nudger pushes the control column forward.

When would selections on the Captain's EFIS control panel change the displays on the First Officer's EADI or EHSI?. Never, the EFIS control panels independently control the respective EADI and EHSI displays at all times. Only when the EFI Instrument Transfer switch is in the BOTH ON 2 position. Automatically when the First Officer's EFIS control panel fails. Only when the EFI Instrument Transfer switch is in the BOTH ON 1 position.

The First Officer notices that his EADI no longer has an attitude display and that a yellow box with the letters "ATT" has replaced it. The flight crew should: Position the EFI switch to BOTH ON 1. Position the IRS switch to BOTH ON L. Position the EFI switch to BOTH ON 2. Position the IRS switch to BOTH ON R.

Manual adjustment of EFIS display brightness is accomplished using the controls on the associated EFIS control panel. It adjusts the brightness above and below the level set by the automatic system. True. False.

16-1. When the airplane battery is the only source of power: (sistema standby opcional). The Captain's EFIS operates until the battery is discharged and the First OFFICER'S EFIS operates for a minimum of 5 minutes. Only the Captain's EFIS remains operative until the battery is discharged. Both the Captain's and First Officer's EFIS displays are inoperative. Both Captain's and First Officer's EFIS displays remain operative but only the No. 1 symbol generator is powered until the battery is discharged.

16-2. When the airplane battery is the only source of power: (sistema estándar). The Captain's EFIS operates until the battery is discharged and the First OFFICER'S EFIS operates for a minimum of 5 minutes. Only the Captain's EFIS remains operative until the battery is discharged. Both the Captain's and First Officer's EFIS displays are inoperative. Both Captain's and First Officer's EFIS displays remain operative but only the No. 1 symbol generator is powered until the battery is discharged.

The V1 speed is: 124 KTS. 128 KTS. 130 KTS. 138 KTS.

The VR speed is: 124 KTS. 128 KTS. 130 KTS. 138 KTS.

What is the V1 speed?. 73 knots. 85 knots. 128 knots. Cannot be determined from this Speed Tape.

What is the VR speed?. 73 knots. 85 knots. 128 knots. Can not be determined from this Speed Tape.

138 is: The speed entered on the Takeoff page of the CDU for V2. The speed computed by the Air Data Computer for V2. The speed computed by the FMC for V2. The speed selected on the MCP Speed Display.

The minimum flap retraction speed for the current flap setting is: 120 knots. 141 knots. 172 knots. 250 knots.

What is the slowest speed that the airplane can be flown at and maintain a 40° bank margin to stick shaker. 120 knots. 141 knots. 172 knots. 250 knots.

What will occur at 120 knots?. Stick shaker. Stall. The autothrottle will revert to MCP speed. The ADI will annunciate WINDSHEAR.

214 knots is: The maximum gear retraction speed. The maximum flap extension speed. The flap up maneuvering speed. The flaps one maneuvering speed.

The airplane is: Maintaining the current speed. Just above stick shaker speed. Accelerating. Decelerating.

The FMC/MCP commanded speed is: 214. 182. 164. 134.

The Vmo/Mmo limit speed is: 280 knots. 312 knots. 325 knots. 340 knots.

The high speed buffet limit is: 280 knots. 312 knots. 325 knots. 340 knots.

The flap placard speed for the current flap setting is: 125 knots. 134 knots. 185 knots. 190 knots.

The flaps are currently at 15. What is the placard speed for flaps 25?. 125 knots. 134 knots. 185 knots. 190 knots.

What is the Vref speed?. 125 knots. 134 knots. 185 knots. 190 knots.

The fuel pumps for the main and center tanks are powered by which electrical system?. DC. AC.

The purpose of the fuel vent system is to: Dump fuel in flight. Allow fuel to flow from the main tanks to the center tank during refueling. Prevent damage to the wings due to excessive buildup of positive or negative pressures inside the fuel tanks. Both a and c are correct.

The airplane does not have a fuel dump system. True. False.

Each tank supplies pressurized fuel by using ______ boost pumps. One. Two. Three. Four.

With the crossfeed valve closed, the left center tank boost pump will feed the left engine and the right center tank boost pump will feed the right engine, until the center tank is dry. True. False.

With a complete loss of electrical power, only fuel from the ______ will be available. Main tanks. Center tank.

The fuel quantity indicators are found on the center instrument panel and require standby AC power to operate. True. False.

A center tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE light will illuminate when the fuel pump switch is OFF. True. False.

A main tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE light will illuminate when the pump switch is off. True. False.

When the crossfeed valve is open, fuel may be fed from any tank to: Any other tank. The center tank only. Either engine. Either engine or any other tank.

The engine fuel shutoff valves may be closed by: Pulling the Engine Fire Warning Switch. Placing the Engine Start lever to CUTOFF. Closing the cross-feed valve. Either a or b.

Which valve interconnects the engine feed system to the fueling station?. Crossfeed valve. Fueling valve. Manual defueling valve. Dump valve.

When both the Crossfeed Switch and the Crossfeed Valve are open, the CROSSFEED VALVE OPEN light will ______. Illuminate bright blue. Illuminate dim blue. Illuminate red. Not illuminate.

Engine fuel is heated ______. By manually controlled bleed air. By automatically controlled electric heaters. Continuously thru an engine oil/fuel heat exchanger. All the above.

For a FUEL annunciator and MASTER CAUTION light to illuminate, two fuel LOW PRESSURE lights must be illuminated for the ______. Main tanks. Same tank. Center Tank. Aux Tank.

To close the Crossfeed Valve: Push the Crossfeed Valve Switch. Pull the Crossfeed Valve Switch to the "click stop". Rotate the Crossfeed Valve Switch 90° counterclockwise.

The maximum fuel imbalance for landing is ______ lbs. 800 lbs (362 kgs). 1000 lbs (453 kgs). 1100 lbs (499 kgs). 1500 lbs (680 kgs).

Illumination of a fuel FILTER BYPASS light is an indication of ______. Excessive fuel flow. Low fuel temperature. Impending filter bypass. Any of the above.

Main Tanks 1 and 2 must be full if the Center Tank contains more than ______. 2000 lbs (908 kgs). 1000 lbs (453 kgs). 500 lbs (227 kgs). 1675 lbs (760 kgs).

The Engine Fuel Shutoff valve is: AC powered and controlled by the Engine Start lever and/or the Engine Fire Switch. DC Powered and controlled by the Engine Start lever and/or the Engine Fire Switch. AC powered and can be controlled only by the Engine Start lever. DC powered and can be controlled only by the Engine Start lever.

What ensures proper fuel flow direction and prevents transfer of fuel between tanks?. Fuel boost pumps that operate with different pressures. Dedicated fuel lines from each tank to both engines. The crossfeed valve. Check valves.

The purpose of the single-point fueling system is to allow: Rapid fueling. Ground fuel transfer. Defueling. All of the above.

It is not possible to service the center tank without single-point fueling. True. False.

Which of the following statements concerning the fuel boost pumps is true?. If generator No. 1 fails, both boost pumps in main tank No. 1 are inoperative. If the FWD boost pump in main tank No. 2 fails, the LOW PRESSURE light, the Fuel Annunciator light and the MASTER CAUTION light will illuminate. If all fuel boost pumps fail above 30,000 feet, engine flameout will occur. With the loss of all generators, both center tank boost pumps are inoperative and the fuel in the center tank is no longer usable.

The hydraulic fluid is supplied from System A, System B and the standby system. The standby reservoir is connected through a standpipe to ______. System A. System B. Totally independent system.

What happens when the Engine Hydraulic Pump switch is positioned to OFF?. The engine pump is disengaged from the engine. The solenoid held blocking valve is energized, pump depressurized. The solenoid held blocking valve is de-energized, pump depressurized. The hydraulic shutoff valve is closed, pump depressurized.

During engine shutdown, engine driven pump switches are left ______. ON. OFF.

If an electric motor driven pump OVERHEAT light illuminates, the pilot should turn the pump OFF. True. False.

If an electric motor driven pump is turned off for an OVERHEAT condition, the LOW PRESSURE light for that pump will illuminate. True. False.

A leak develops in system A engine driven pump or its associated lines. The A quantity decreases to: The R.F. level and the LOW QUANTITY light illuminates. 1/2 full (40% on EIS) and the LOW QUANTITY light illuminates. 1/4 full (22% on EIS) and the engine LOW PRESSURE light illuminates. 0 and both engine and electric pump LOW PRESSURE lights illuminates.

If one System A pump is deactivated, System A pressure should read ______. 0 psi. 2500 psi. 3000 psi.

A leak in the Standby Hydraulic system will first be seen as: Illumination of the Standby LOW QUANTITY light. Decreasing quantity in SYSTEM B to between 1/2 and RFL (64% on EIS). Decreasing quantity in Both systems A & B.

What systems are backed up by the standby hydraulic system?. Thrust reversers, LE Flaps & Slats and rudder. LE & TE Flaps, rudder and alternates nose steering. LE Flaps & Slats, Auto slats and rudder. Primary flight controls, high lift devices and auto slats.

The automatic start feature of the Standby Hydraulic Pump depends upon takeoff or landing configuration and ______. Loss of System A or System B. Loss of System A and System B.

The STANDBY HYD LOW QUANTITY and LOW PRESSURE lights constantly monitor the Standby Hydraulic System. True. False.

When a FLT CONTROL Switch is placed to STBY RUD, the extinguishing of the associated LOW PRESSURE light is an indication that the Standby Rudder Shutoff Valve has opened. True. False.

The STANDBY HYD LOW QUANTITY light is armed only when standby pump operation has been selected. True. False.

Engine driven hydraulic pumps are cooled by ______. Hydraulic Fluid. Special pump cooling oil. Bleed air.

The Power Transfer Unit will operate automatically with loss of System B engine driven pump pressure. True. False.

The Power Transfer Unit provides a back-up source of hydraulic power to operate the trailing edge flaps. True. False.

If a Fire Warning Switch is pulled, the corresponding engine driven pump LOW PRESSURE light will not illuminate. True. False.

Minimum fuel in a main tank for ground operation of an electric hydraulic pump is. 1000 lbs (453 Kgs). Tank must be at least 1/2 full. 1676 lbs (760 Kgs).

An overheated engine driven hydraulic pump will illuminate the OVERHEAT light above the electric pump switch for the same system. True. False.

The landing gear transfer unit: Is available automatically with the loss of Engine 1. Operates automatically with the loss of System A pressure. Operates any time the No. 1 Engine pump switch is turned off.

How many minutes prior to takeoff must window heat be turned ON?. Two minutes. Five minutes. Ten minutes. Immediately before.

(As installed) A green window heat ON light illuminates: Bright during warm-up, then dim after the window reaches normal operating temperature. Whenever the Window Heat Switch is positioned ON. Dim during warm-up, then bright after the window reaches normal operating temperature. Whenever the Window Heat controller is applying heat to the associated window.

The window heat PWR TEST: Must be tested before each flight. Is a confidence test. Also tests the overheat protection system. Can be used if all green ON lights are illuminated.

Once BOTH thrust levers are advanced past the takeoff warning setting, the wing Anti-ice valves close and the Wing Anti-ice Switch is tripped off. True. False.

The amber indicator lights on the Pitot Static module, when illuminated, indicate that the respective probe is: Blocked. Not heated. Missing. Giving erroneous readings.

If the cowl valve fails to agree with the position of the Engine Anti-ice Switch, the indicator light: Will extinguish. Will remain illuminated bright blue. Will illuminate dim after 4-5 seconds. Will flash bright blue.

The Wing Anti-Ice system: Is DC motor operated. Is controlled by independent switches for each wing. Supplies bleed air to the entire wing leading edge. Only provides bleed air to the leading edge slats.

Prior to descent, icing conditions are anticipated in the clouds below. The pilot should: Position Engine Start Switches to CONT and Engine Anti-ice Switches ON. Maintain engine thrust at least 55% N1 RPM. In moderate to severe icing set N1 RPM to 50% minimum. All of the above.

In the event an Engine Cowl Anti-ice Valve fails in the OPEN position, bleed air to the cowl can be shut off by closing the associated Engine Bleed Valve. True. False.

Airspeed is limited to 250 knots IAS below 10,000 feet with the window heat system inoperative. True. False.

Rain repellent should not be used on a dry windshield. True. False.

Wing anti-ice should not be used when the total air temperature is above 10°C. True. False.

If a wing anti-ice valve fails in the closed position, the crew should: Declare an emergency, if in icing conditions. Initiate an immediate climb or descent. Avoid icing conditions. Turn on engine ignition to prevent flameout.

The MASTER CAUTION light illuminates; the ANTI-ICE annunciator, and the amber COWL ANTI-ICE light are also illuminated. The crew should: Immediately turn the Engine Anti-ice Switch OFF. Retard thrust lever until COWL ANTI-ICE light extinguishes. Close the bleed valve. Turn engine ignition ON.

Rain repellent should be applied to both windows simultaneously for best results. True. False.

The Windshield Air control applies conditioned air to all cockpit windows. True. False.

If unable to close the Engine Anti-ice valve in flight, the crew should: Secure the bleed air sources to the affected engine and operate norma 1 ly. Shut down the affected engine once clear of icing conditions. Limit thrust on affected engine to 80% N1 if TAT exceeds 10°C.

The primary method for using the wing anti-ice system in flight is to: Only turn the system on after takeoff. Use the system as a de-icer by allowing ice to accumulate before turning it on. Use the system as an anti-icer by turning the system on prior to ice accumulation. Both a and b.

The amber window OVERHEAT light is illuminated. The OVERHEAT light will extinguish and power will be applied when the affected window cools. The affected WINDOW HEAT Switch should be positioned OFF. You should recognize a normal indication for high ambient temperature. Position the OVHT PWR Test Switch to PWR to check for normal system operation.

It is permissible to take off with light snow or ice on wing leading edges. True. False.

Positioning the center switch on the Window Heat panel to OVHT simulates on overheat condition. The MASTER CAUTION lights and ANTI-ICE system annunciator illuminate. True. False.

All pitot-static probes and sensors receive electrical heating except the: Alternate Static Ports. Alpha Vanes. Temp Probes. Elev Pitot Tubes.

The Engine Anti-Ice should be turned on: When there is any visible moisture. If the temperature is 10 degrees C or less and there is visible moisture. Before takeoff if icing is forecast to occur when you enter the clouds. Both b and c.

The window heat is operating and an overheat occurs: The respective amber OVERHEAT light illuminates. If illuminated, the respective green ON light extinguishes. The PWR TEST Switch automatically trips off. Both a and b.

The landing gear is normally extended and retracted by which hydraulic system?. A. B. STANDBY.

In the event normal extension is not available, the gear may be extended by: A system. B system. Standby system. Manual extension.

Hydraulic pressure is released from all landing gear lines and actuators when the landing Gear lever is placed: UP. OFF. DOWN.

The red landing Gear Indicator lights will be illuminated when the landing gear is in transit. True. False.

When the landing gear is up and locked, all landing Gear Indicator lights will be extinguished when the landing Gear lever is placed: UP. OFF. DOWN. Either a or b.

(As installed) Red landing Gear Indicator lights will illuminate when either or both thrust levers are retarded to idle and the landing gear is not down and locked. True. False.

With the landing gear not down and locked, the landing gear audio warning system provides a: Steady horn. Intermittent horn.

(As installed) The landing Gear Warning Horn will sound any time the landing gear is not down and locked and either thrust lever is retarded to idle, with flaps 10. The horn cannot be silenced with the horn cutout switch. True. False.

(As installed) With the landing gear not down and locked, and flaps 15, the warning horn will sound any time either thrust lever is retarded near idle and the opposite thrust lever is greater than approximately 30 degrees. The horn cannot be silenced. True. False.

The warning horn will sound when landing gear is not down and locked and flaps greater than 15. It can not be silenced. True. False.

The brake metering valves for the normal brake system direct fluid to the normal antiskid system from: System A. System B.

The normal pressure for the hydraulic brake pressure indicator is: 1000 psi. 3000 psi. 2800 psi. Any pressure greater than 0.

If the normal brake system should fail, the alternate brake system will provide pressure to the autobrakes. True. False.

With a loss of System A and System B, brake accumulator pressure greater than 1000 psi will pressurize the: Alternate brake system. Normal brake system. Emergency brake system.

Parking brakes normally utilize pressure from: System A. System B. Standby system.

Positioning the Antiskid Control Switch to OFF illuminates the ANTISKID INOP light and turns off electrical power to the autobrakes. True. False.

When the parking brake is set, the ANTISKID INOP light should be: ON. OFF.

Manual gear extension is used to correct an unsafe landing gear. True. False.

For the automatic brake system to be armed, Antiskid must be: ON. OFF.

On the ground, the Auto Brake Selector was positioned to OFF, and the AUTOBRAKE DISARM light illuminated. Takeoff is approved. True. False.

Placing the Autobrake Selector to OFF is the only method of deactivating the Autobrake system. True. False.

The AUTOBRAKE DISARM light will normally be illuminated when the Auto Brake Selector is OFF. True. False.

After takeoff with RTO selected, the selector knob must be positioned to OFF manually. True. False.

The landing Gear Transfer Unit provides for gear retraction in the event of failure of: No. 2 Engine. Hydraulic System B. No. 1 Engine.

To extend the landing gear manually, the landing Gear lever should be placed: UP. OFF. DOWN.

When the AUTOBRAKE DISARM light illuminates, the Autobrake Selector should be placed to: OFF. MAX. RTO.

With a wheel well fire, the landing gear should be: Cooled by activating the wheel well fire extinguisher. Cooled by increasing airspeed. Cooled by extending the gear. No action required.

With the ANTISKID INOP light illuminated, the autobrakes: May be used normally. Should be switched OFF. Operate only in RTO.

After takeoff with RTO selected, the AUTOBRAKE DISARM light normally illuminates. True. False.

When selected, RTO is available: Immediately following brake release. Between 60 and 90 knots. Above 90 knots.

Maximum airspeed for retracting the landing gear is: 235 knots. 270 knots. 250 knots. 320 knots.

The RTO function provides the equivalent of full manual braking. True. False.

If a landing is made with RTO selected, no automatic braking action occurs. True. False.

Touchdown and locked wheel protection is available with the alternate brake system. True. False.

The hydraulic brake pressure gauge indicates brake accumulator pressure taken from the hydraulic fluid side of the brake accumulator. True. False.

Air/Ground Safety Sensors are located: On both the main gears. On the nose gear only. On the right main gear and nose gear. On the left main gear and nose gear.

With system A hydraulic pressure normal and system B hydraulic pressure at zero psi, a brake accumulator pressure of zero psi is proof of no braking capability. True. False.

Maximum airspeed for extending the landing gear is: 320 knots. 270 knots. 235 knots. 250 knots.

Moving the IRS Mode Selector from OFF to NAV to initiate the alignment cycle results in the momentary illumination of the ______ Light. ALIGN. ON DC. FAULT. DC FAIL.

The airplane should not be moved for approximately ______ minutes after placing the IRS Mode Selector to the NAV position, starting the IRS alignment. 2. 5. 10. 15.

To complete the IRS alignment, ______ must be entered through either the IRS keyboard or the FMC/CDU. PPOS (Present Position). Magnetic Variation. Magnetic Heading. Enroute Average Wind.

Which one of the following is a cause of a flashing ALIGN light during alignment?. Position entry was attempted before the IRSs entered the ALIGN mode. PPOS entered is not within, the required accuracy tolerance. PPOS was entered after start of alignment. a and b are correct.

During the IRS fast reliagnment procedure, the IRS mode Selector is positioned to ALIGN then NAV. How long should it take for the ALIGN lights to extinguish?. 10 seconds. 30 seconds. 1 minute. 10 minutes.

The time remaining until IRS alignment is complete can be read in the right window of the IRS Data Display when ______ is selected on the DSPL SEL switch. Test. PPOS. HDG/STS. TK/GS.

After entering LAT/LONG data into the IRS, the integral Cue lights in the CLR key illuminate. This means that the data just entered is ______. Accepted. Not Accepted. Not Required.

Magnetic variation between ______ North and ______ South latitudes is stored in each IRS memory. 50°, 50°. 73°, 60°. 83°, 85°. 37°, 30°.

Selecting the WIND position on the Display Selector results in the IRS Data Display left window showing ______ wind direction and the right window showing wind speed in ______. Magnetic, MPH. Magnetic, KNOTS. True, MPH. True, KNOTS.

______ heading is displayed on the IRS Display Unit when the DSPL SEL switch is positioned to ______. Magnetic, TK/GS. Magnetic, HDG/STS. True, TK/GS. True, HDG/STS.

If the ON DC light illuminates during flight, the IRS is operating on battery power. How long will the right IRS operate on battery power?. 30 minutes. 5 minutes. 1 hour. Indefinitely.

During flight the DC FAIL light illuminates for the left IRS. The data output of the left IRS is ______. Normal. Not Reliable. Reliable but limited. Reliable for only 5 minutes.

When operating in the ATT mode, only ______ and information is available. Ground Speed, PPOS. Wind, PPOS. Magnetic Heading, Attitude. Attitude, PPOS.

______ heading is entered through the IRS keyboard or FMC/CDU to update the IRS during operation in the ATT mode. True. Magnetic.

If the alerting message ENTER IRS POS is displayed on the CDU, it may mean that the previous present position entry was not received back from the IRS. True. False.

The IRS transfer switch is used to switch from the left IRS to the right IRS. True. False.

What is the effective period of the NAV DATA base in use?. Jan 01 to Feb 25, starting Jan 01. Jan 01 to Jan 28, 1995. Jan 29 to Feb 25, 1995. Jan 01 to Jan 21, 1995.

Flight crew selections on this page may include: Airplane Model. Eng Rating. Active Nav Data. All of the above.

The alternate data may be activated by transferring to the ACTIVE line while in flight. True. False.

The IDENT page can be accessed by pressing a Line Select Key on the INIT REF INDEX page. True. False.

The present position coordinates entered for IRS alignment can be ?. Last position coordinates. Airport Reference Point coordinates. Actual PPOS coordinates, if known (GATE or lat/Long). Any of the above.

The IRSs can be updated in flight by entering present position coordinates on this page when over a known point. True. False.

The GMT indicated on this page is ______. 2218.7 local. 1432.2 Z. Not listed check page 2. Not listed, check INDEX page.

The present position latitude and longitude may be entered any length of time after the IRS alignment has started; however, after completion of the alignment cycle the align lights will flash until the present position is entered. True. False.

After entering the present position latitude and longitude for IRS alignment, the message "VERIFY POSITION" appears in the scratch pad. This message means. Position information is contradictory. The airplane is parked at the wrong gate. The present position entered does not agree with the "LAST POS" coordinates. You landed at the wrong airport.

After completing the CDU preflight actions, you happen to look at the "POS INIT" page again. You notice that the "SET IRS POS" line is blank. What is required?. Nothing, this is normal and indicates that IRS alignment is complete. Reenter present position latitude and longitude. The alignment was not performed. Cycle the IRSs to OFF and start a new alignment by reentering present position. The present position latitude and longitude were incorrect.

The POS INIT page is one of three pages used for IRS position information. True. False.

If there are two related pages, how do you access the second page?. NEXT PAGE function key. PREV PAGE function key. Line select key for INDEX. Either a or b.

What information is available on the POS REF page?. FMC position and ground speed. LEFT and RIGHT IRS position and ground speeds. There is no POS REF page. Both a and b.

The GATE Number can be entered before reference airport. True. False.

A valid Scratch Pad entry for GROSS WT is ______. 120.5 (Lbs) or 57.0 (kgs). 125,000 (Lbs) or 56,818 (kgs). 140,000 (Lbs) or 63,636 (kgs). GROSS WT is not an entry.

A valid Scratch Pad entry for FUEL is. 35,000 (lbs) OR 15,909 (kgs). 30.0 (lbs) or 13.6 (kgs). JET A/B. Fuel is not an entry.

A valid Scratch Pad entry for ZFW is ______. 110,000 (lbs) or 50,000 (kgs). 95.0 (lbs) or 43.2 (kgs). 95,000 (lbs) or 43,200 (kgs). 106,500 (Lbs) or 48,409 (kgs).

The CG is computed and entered manually by the pilot to enable the FMC calculate the Maximum Altitude for cruise. True. False.

If a ZFW is entered, GROSS WT is automatically computed and displayed. True. False.

Which one of the following factors is not considered in the TRIP ALT computation?. GROSS WEIGHT. COST INDEX. Minimum cruise time. RESERVES.

The entry of a value in ISA DEV will automatically cause the T/C OAT to be displayed. True. False.

A manual entry on the transition altitude line has priority over the FMC's automatic selection. True. False.

If a CRZ WIND is not entered, the FMC assumes: Zero wind at all cruise waypoints. Takeoff wind at all cruise waypoints. Average climb wind at all cruise waypoints. Actual wind at leveloff will be propagated to all waypoints.

The COST INDEX entry can go up to a value of 200. The larger values result in a flight. Faster. Slower. More economical.

The forecast wind entry for cruise is: True. Magnetic.

Trip altitude is automatically computed and displayed. If this is the desired altitude, it is not necessary to manually enter a cruise altitude. [SOURCE KEY ERROR: answer not confirmed in source].

Which of the following is not an allowable entry for line 1L?. WATO8. DOGGY. RW17. SNEAKY.

On which line do you enter the identifier of a VORTAC that you want to put into the temporary data base for this flight?. 1L. 2L. 1R. 5L.

The correct entry on line 2L is ______ if you are trying to find information about the Atlanta Airport (KATL). ATL. KATL. ATLANTA. RW09R.

To find the length of Atlanta's runway 09R, the first entry will be on line. KATL, 2L. RW09R, 1L. KATL, 1L. Either a or b.

To find the coordinates of the San Antonio VOR, the entry would be ______ on line. SAT, 1L. SAT, 1R. KSAT, 2L. Either a or b.

How long is RW09R at KATL?. 15,720 FT. 9,000 FT. Not displayed on this page. Available only on APPROACH REF page.

The elevation shown for RW09R at Atlanta is ______. The elevation of the airport reference point. The elevation of the highest obstacle within 50 feet of the runway. The elevation of the runway threshold. The field elevation.

The LAT/LONG position given for RW09R/ATLANTA is ______. The Airport Reference Point location. The runway threshold location. The VOR location. The airport geographical center.

Line selection of the INDEX prompt will display a list of instrument approaches for All. True. False.

The magnetic variation for RW09R at Atlanta is. Not available. Same as KATL, W1°. Available on page 2 of the REF NAV DATA pages. Both b and c.

The navaid identification can have ______ characters maximum. 5. 4. 3. 2.

All Data lines require an entry. True. False.

The reference nav database: Can only be accessed on the ground. Only allows for entry of nav aids. Is stored until manually deleted. Can store up to 40 waypoints.

If the navaid entered is already in the permanent nav database, the associated data lines will appear automatically. True. False.

Which of the following examples is a valid Scratch Pad entry for line 5L?. +10. -15N. E22. W+12.

The OAT entry may be made in either °C or °F. True. False.

Entry of a SEL TEMP on line 2L will: Move the N1 cursors to indicate the reduced TO N1. Change the display in line 3L to "RED-TO".

The speeds shown in lines 1R-3R will be automatically displayed on the speed tape. True. False.

The temperature entered on line 2L, for a reduced thrust takeoff, may be °C or °F. True. False.

The ROUTE prompt on line 4R indicates: The ROUTE is ready for flight. The PREFLT is complete. Further PREFLT action is required on the ROUTE page. Turn right after takeoff.

The N1 settings shown on line 3L will be automatically computed by the FMC and used for takeoff, when a TO/GA switch is pressed. True. False.

The GROSS WT displayed in line 1L is the current computed value. The flight crew may enter a reasonable value if another GROSS WT is desired. True. False.

If the FMC thinks the computed GROSS WT is invalid, the display will be. Flashing. Blank. Box Prompts. INVALID.

The VREF speeds displayed in lines 1 through 3R are values computed for the GROSS WT displayed in line 1L. True. False.

The Destination airport and runway selected for the approach are ______. KATL, 09R, 9000 FT LONG. KFUN, 09, 9000 FT ELEVATION. KATL, 27L, 9000 FT LONG. Not available.

The ILS frequency for runway 09R is 108.9. The station identifier is IFUN and the inbound course is 090°. True. False.

Line 2L, the GA N1 limit, is entered by the flight crew during preflight. True. False.

The word "MOD" in the page title indicates?. The route is modern and up-to-date. Changes are proposed to the active route. The destination is MODESTO IAP. MOD is the name of the company route which goes between BFI and MWH.

The maximum number of characters that can be entered in line 2L is ______. Six. Eight. Ten. Fifteen.

The ORIGIN airport will still have to be entered in line 1L if a company route is entered. True. False.

Which of the following examples is the correct Scratch Pad entry for line 3L?. RWY13R. RW13R. 13R. Either b or c.

The destination (DEST) airport is ______. ELN. VAMPS. KBFI. KMWH.

How many pages are used to define this route?. 1. 2. 3. 4.

The ACTIVATE prompt must be line selected before the ROUTE pages can be executed. True. False.

Airway segments consisting of multiple reporting points may be entered on a single line on this page. True. False.

"LACRE 3. VAMPS" is ______. A waypoint. A procedure entered by the crew on this page. A Standard Instrument Departure (SID). An airway segment.

ELN is the last waypoint entered for the route of flight. True. False.

ELN may be deleted on this page. True. False.

VAMPS may be deleted on this page. True. False.

Page 2 of the ROUTE pages is displayed by ______. Line selecting the ACTIVATE prompt. Line selecting 6L. Pressing the "NEXT PAGE" key. Automatically by making another entry in the Scratch Pad.

The 312° displayed in line 1L is a ______. MAG CRS. MAG HDG. TRUE CRS. TRUE HDG.

The 246° displayed in line 2L is a ______. MAG CRS. MAG HDG. TRUE CRS. TRUE HDG.

The 175 displayed in line 1R is a ______. 175 KT speed restriction. An FMC predicted speed at that climb point. speed entered by the flight crew. distance to the 420 waypoint.

The 2500A in line 3R means ______. Cross waypoint CR102 at or below 2500 ft MSL. Cross waypoint CR102 at or above 2500 ft MSL. Cross waypoint CR102 2500 ft above the ground. The FMC estimates an altitude of 2500 ft MSL when crossing that point and is an advisory figure only.

The (VECTOR) display in line 4L indicates ______. VECTOR is the next waypoint on a magnetic course of 222°. A discontinuity in the route, L-NAV and V-NAV will disengage. That the FMC will turn the aircraft to a magnetic heading of 222° and proceed until the flight crew executes the procedure for proceeding direct to a waypoint or intercepting a leg to a waypoint. The name of a SID waypoint.

Which one of the following types of waypoint identifiers may be in the permanent navigation database?. Navid identifier. Airway intersection. Airport ICAO identifier. All of the above.

After performing the CDU preflight actions, the flight crew notices that the active NAV DATA base is expired and must be changed. What will these pages look like after the NAV DATA base change?. Same, no action required. Route discontinuity will be gone - everything else the same. Blank, requiring reloading. Cannot change the NAV DATA base after preflight.

If desired, the 2500A altitude restriction for CR102 can be deleted. True. False.

You are cleared by ATC to proceed direct to CYN after passing CR1. How do you make the change to page 1 routing?. Delete (420) and enter CYN in its place. Line select CYN to 3L, overwriting CR102. Delete (VECTOR). Select Route page and enter CYN on the first route line - 3R.

The primary purpose of the LEGS page is to display lateral and vertical flight plan details for each waypoint and to make route modifications involving a portion of a route segment. True. False.

The active waypoint, (420), can be deleted. True. False.

If a waypoint is entered into the route from a latitude/longitude scratch pad entry, what will be the waypoint identifier format?. XXXXLAT XXXXLONG. WPTXX. PTXX. NBRXX.

An airway can be entered on the - page. LEGS. PROGRESS. RTE. FIX.

In line 1 of Pg 3, 29 NM is the distance from ______. (420). The ORIGIN airport Reference Point. The last waypoint on page 2 to ATL. The distance-to-go from present position to All.

The distance given on the active waypoint line is always changing to reflect the remaining distance-to-go to the active waypoint. True. False.

If a new waypoint is entered on the Active Waypoint line, the direction value displayed is the magnetic course to be flown to the entered waypoint. True. False.

The waypoints shown in the example will correspond to the waypoint identifiers listed on the corresponding LEGS page. True. False.

If a route discontinuity exists, subsequent ETAs are based on an assumed great circle course across the discontinuity. True. False.

The wind direction is referenced to true north. True. False.

Wind direction and speed entries can be made. Only on cruise waypoints. Only on climb waypoints. Only on descent waypoints. On any waypoint.

If an entry of 090°/100 was made on line 2R for ABC wind, what would the wind value be on line 4, GHI WIND if no other entries have been made?. 080°/140. 075°/140. 000/000. 090°/100.

The FMC uses the forecast wind values entered by the flight crew only until within 100 NM of a cruise waypoint, when actual wind computed is used. True. False.

After entering OTT in the DIRECT TO Box Prompts, it will be transferred to what line?. 6. 2. 3. 1.

After OTT is entered in the DIRECT TO Box Prompts, what waypoint will follow it on the list?. CYN. ENO. GVE. None, OTT will be on line 6.

If OTT is entered in the INTC LEG TO Box Prompts, what will be the course displayed above OTT?. 312°. Present position direct to OTT. 252°. 249°.

An airway (i.e., J21) cannot be entered in the DIRECT TO line. True. False.

A waypoint has to be in the existing flight plan course before it can be entered into the INTC LEG TO line. True. False.

The magnetic course displayed above OTT after it is entered into the DIRECT TO line is ______. Present position direct to OTT. 249°. 312°. 328°.

The waypoint that was last passed is ______. ENO. KATL. CYN. GVE.

At what altitude and time was the last point passed?. FL290, 1355Z. FL290, 1349Z. FL192, 1411Z. FL290, 1510Z.

606 is the distance from ______ to KATL. GVE. Present position. ENO. CYN.

Line 5L displays the ETA and distance to ______. Touch Down. End-of-Descent. Step Point. Top-of-Descent.

Which IRS is providing navigation information to the FMC?. Right. Left.

Which NAV aid has been automatically tuned by the FMC?. CYN. ENO. GVE. MLC.

What is the predicted fuel at destination?. 23.5. 13.8. 14.6. 8.0.

The route of flight will be direct from GVE to KATL. True. False (can't tell from this page).

The distance-to--go for line 4 is dynamic, changing with present position. True. False.

Which one of the following altitude change points will not be shown on line 5L?. Top-of-Climb (T/C). Top-of-Descent (T/D). Step Point. Top-of-Glide Slope (T/GS).

The fuel quantity displayed in line 5R is ______. Reserve fuel. Predicted fuel at destination. Total fuel on board, direct from the fuel summation unit. Total fuel used since engine start, based on fuel flow inputs to FMC.

VHF radio No. 2 is being manually tuned to MLC. True. False.

If the word "MOD" appears over KATL, it signifies ______. The route of flight is being changed. A new cruise altitude is being evaluated. A new climb/descent profile is being evaluated. Any of the above. The data is not accurate for the ACTIVE flight plan.

The fuel quantity at the last point passed was ______. 13.8. 23.5. 23.6. 14.6.

The FMC will tune ILS frequencies automatically. True. False. True, but only for use of DME updating.

How is this page accessed?. DEP/ARR mode key. INIT/REF mode key. DES mode key. Prompt on LEGS page.

The Destination airport is ______. KMWH. KSLC. KBFI. NOT SHOWN.

KBFI and KMWH are airports that were entered by the flight crew on this page. True. False.

Pressing the 6R line select key will ______. Display arrival procedures/approaches for KMWH. Display arrival procedures/approaches for KSLC. Display other important or auxiliary procedures for KBFI and KMWH. Display departures for KSLC.

Procedures for other airports may be selected for entry into the flight plan. True. False.

The DEP/ARR INDEX page may be accessed from the DEPARTURES page by line selecting a prompt marked INDEX. True. False.

Selection of FREH8 automatically results in the selection of runway 13R. True. False.

All departure data displayed is for KJFK only. True. False.

Selection of runway 13R will automatically enter it into the RTE page runway line. True. False.

The selected STAR and approach will become active when the EXECUTE key is pressed. True. False.

The approach selected for KATL is ______. MACEY1. PSK. ILS 26. Either CONN1 or PURPS.

Selection of an ILS approach will automatically enter the landing runway in the ROUTE LEGS pages. True. False.

Arrivals can be accessed during flight and are not required to be completed during preflight loading. True. False.

The title for line 1L may read HEADWIND or TAILWIND, whichever is appropriate. True. False.

The wind displayed is ______. True. Magnetic.

The XTK ERROR line displays the present crosstrack error (L or R in NM) from the FMC flight plan course. True. False.

The VERT DEV display on line 3R, is only available when in an active PATH DES mode. It displays the distance above or below the FMC vertical path. True. False.

The crosswind component is ______. 27 kts from the LEFT. 3 kts from the RIGHT. 3 kts causing a drift to the right. 12 kts from the right.

XTK ERROR is only available when a PATH DES is being used. True. False.

The purpose of the FIX INFO page is ______. To locate your position relative to a navaid, airport, or waypoint. To create new waypoints and monitor flight progress. To establish distances and ETA's for downtrack waypoints established by navaid radials. a and c are correct.

Turning to a heading of 111° will take me to ABC. True. False.

At what distance will the airplane pass abeam ABC?. 29. 18. 32. 23.

Both the radial and distance must be entered for a downtrack fix. True. False.

The altitude shown in line 2R is ______. An altitude restriction at this point. An altitude entered by the crew on line 2R to reference the M.E.A. for the airway. The minimum altitude for VOR reception. A predicted altitude for the intersection.

The ACT ECON CLB page shown below indicates that the airplane will not make the altitude restriction at MACEY. True. False.

The current climb speed is ______. 280. 250. .720M. 310.

The airplane is climbing with a reduced climb N1 setting. True. False.

The TGT SPD on the ACT ECON CLB page may be changed by the flight crew. True. False.

The information on line 1R means MACEY must be crossed at ______. 6000 ft. 6000 ft or below. Any altitude; 6000 ft is only predicted. 6000 ft or above.

The 6000A restriction may be deleted. True. False.

The active controlling speed is: Always the slowest speed found on the page. Always manually set in the MCP. Highlighted by reverse video characters. All of the above.

The MOD CRZ CLB page is accessed by ______. Entering a higher CRZ ALT in line 1L of the CRZ page /. Pressing the CLB Mode Key during cruise. Entering a higher cruising altitude in the STEP TO line on the CRZ page. All of the above.

For an ECON CRZ CLB, the 1.1 % penalty represents the total cost savings not just fuel savings. True. False.

The SPD REST line is blanked because ______. The airplane is already at target speed. Speed restrictions are never shown on this page. There is no active speed restriction. VNAV is engaged.

Line selecting the ECON Prompt when on the MOD CRZ CLB page will display. The ECON SPD DES page. The ECON CRZ page. The ECON CLB page. The page stays the same, only the target speed will change.

If the ENG OUT CLB page is accessed and executed, V NAV will disengage, the N1 cursor will go to maximum continuous and performance computations will be discontinued. True. False.

The ACTUAL WIND value will be automatically computed for the new altitude during performance evaluations prior to the climb. True. False.

Execution of the MOD CRZ CLB page will result in the initiation of a climb at cruise speed and CLB N1. (V NAV - ON, MCP ALT - SET). True. False.

The OPT altitude shown is ______. The maximum altitude obtainable. Advisory only and used as a guide for evaluating STEP TO entries. The most economical cruise altitude considering the time available for cruise operations. The maximum altitude for operations on the selected airway.

Entry of FL210 in the CRZ ALT line will result in ______. Display of the MOD CRZ CLB page. Display of the MOD CRZ DES page. Immediate initiation of a cruise speed descent to the new altitude. A new CRZ ALT cannot be entered on this page.

Turbine N1 values for M.725 are 87.3/87.3%. True. False.

The STEP POINT is 76 NM away. This is the point where ______. The airplane will automatically climb to the new altitude. The new altitude should be entered in the CRZ ALT line and the MOD CRZ CLB page executed to initiate the climb. The point at which the step climb will be complete. The place where the airplane steps will be lowered and the passengers unloaded.

What altitude is being evaluated for a new cruising altitude?. FL330. FL340. FL350. FL290.

The wind value displayed was entered by the flight crew. True. False.

If the step climb is performed, a cost savings will be realized and the fuel at destination will be 7,800 lbs. True. False.

A faster cruise speed may be entered by the flight crew on line 2L. True. False.

LRC stands for ______. Low Route Climb. Long Range Cruise. Lost Radio Contact. Low Route Cruise (Below 10,000 ft).

Selection of the ENG OUT page will result in an immediate engine N1 increase to maximum continuous power. True. False.

The target speed, M.725, is ______. Entered by the flight crew. Computed by the FMC for best economy. Deletable. All of the above.

If the STEP TO line is missing, the airplane is within 100 NM of the top-of-descent. True. False.

The ECON PATH DES is the page that will automatically appear by default when the DES page is selected. True. False.

The E/D ALT is ______. The altitude restriction for the End-of-Descent waypoint. The field elevation. The runway threshold elevation.

A vertical bearing of 6.2 is required to cross MACEY at 6000 ft following the flight plan route. True. False.

FPA, flight path angle, is the current glide path of the airplane based on actual ground speed and rate of descent. True. False.

2360 ft/min is the current airplane rate of descent. True. False.

MACEY is the last waypoint on the descent path. True. False.

The airplane is presently above the predicted descent path. True. False.

During an ECON PATH DES, the flight crew may have to manually control the speed to maintain the FMC target airspeed. True. False.

If a waypoint was not displayed in line 3R, all data in line 4R would be. Missing (blank). The same. Recomputed for 1500 ft above field elevation.

The flight crew may delete waypoint restrictions during the descent if desired. True. False.

When flying a ECON PATH DES, entry of a desired airspeed for descent into the TGT SPD line will ______. Change the descent mode to a manual SPD DES. Change the mode to a selected speed PATH DES. Result in V NAV disengagement. Result in V NAV and L NAV disengagement.

If an ECON PATH DES has been selected and the autopilot mode control panel altitude has been set to an appropriate lower altitude, the airplane will automatically start to descend upon reaching the top-of-descent point. True. False.

During a SPD DES, the flight crew may have to adjust thrust and drag to comply with altitude restrictions. True. False.

For a SPD DES without an established end of descent waypoint and no landing runway entry, the E/D ALT will be ______. Field elevation. Runway threshold elevation. 1000 ft above the field elevation. Airport reference point elevation.

The TGT SPD of .720 was computed by the FMC. True. False.

VERT DEV is missing on this page because ______. The descent is not active. There is no computed PATH DES profile. The T/D point has not been passed yet. Any of the above.

The airplane will automatically start the speed descent at the T/D if the MCP altitude has been set to a lower altitude. True. False.

If a PATH DES is available but an active ECON SPD DES is being performed, then. A prompt for PATH will be displayed on line 5R. VERT DEV will be displayed in line 4L. Lines 3R & 4R will have data. All of the above.

On the DES FORECASTS page, line 2L displays ______. The rate-of-climb for the cabin during climbout. The current rate of descent for the cabin during descent in either a SPD or PATH mode. The FMC predicted rate of cabin descent for the descent profile selected.

The purpose of line 1R on the DES FORECASTS page is to ______. Optimize the descent profile to account for thermal anti-ice being used. Advise the FMC when the temporary airspeed indicator is being used. Tell the FMC when to turn the thermal anti-ice system on and off. To amuse the pilot since it is not required for the U5.0 FMC.

Which of the following entries are correctly formatted for entry on line 5L of the DES FORECASTS page?. FL200. 15000. 200. All examples are correct.

Entering the QNH pressure for the destination airport helps to optimize the computed descent profile. True. False.

A pressure reading in millibars may be entered instead of inches of mercury. True. False.

Entry and execution of the wind and QNH values will result in a recomputation of the descent profile and a movement of the Top-of-Descent point. True. False.

During a 320 KT SPD DES with no active waypoint related restriction the speed will change to the SPD REST of the destination airport minus 10 knots. True. False.

The ACT label indicates which N1 limit has been selected for use. True. False.

If a higher thrust setting is desired during climb, the maximum continuous (CON) line could be selected and the climb performed at 92.0% N1. True. False.

If CON had been selected during the climb, what will the N1 limit be for CRZ?. 92.0. 89.8. 83.8. 93.0.

What will be the climb thrust setting according to this page?. 89.8. 92.0. 83.8. 86.8.

The CLB-2 selection results in a ______ % reduction from the CLB N1 limit. 3. 6. 4. 2.

Utilization of a reduced takeoff thrust setting may result in automatic selection of CLB-1, or CLB-2. True. False.

Selection of the AUTO mode means that the FMC will automatically set the N1 limit for the active phase of flight. True. False.

If the CDU MSG light illuminates on the CDU but there is no message in the scratch pad, you must ______. Disregard the message. Clear the Scratch Pad so the message may be displayed. Press the CLR key until the light goes out. Execute the message in order to get it printed.

When an Alerting Message is displayed on the CDU scratch pad, both FMC Alert lights and CDU MSG lights illuminate. True. False.

The alerting message "INSUFFICIENT FUEL" means ______. Increase the thrust setting. You will not reach your destination before running out of fuel. You will have less than 2000 lbs (900 kgs) of fuel at the destination. The APU is running out of fuel.

You are in cruise flight when the CDU MSG light illuminates and you note "END OF ROUTE" in the Scratch Pad. This can be corrected by. Constructing further routing on the LEGS pages. Entering new cruise altitude if required. Re-engaging V NAV and L NAV. All of the above.

The Alerting Message "OVERSPEED DISCONNECT" means. When below the speed restriction altitude, V NAV disengages when airspeed exceeds the FMC speed restriction by more than 15 knots. A generator has disconnected from the engine CSD due to overspeed. The FMC has disengaged the auto throttles due to excessive N1. The APU has dropped off the line due to turbine overspeed.

The Alerting Message "VERIFY POSITION" indicates. The aircraft is excessively off the flight planned course. Position information is contradictory. You have landed at the wrong airfield. The captain has left the cockpit for an excessive period of time.

The Advisory Message "DRAG REQUIRED" indicates the airplane is 10 Kts or more above the FMC target speed or within 5 Kts of Vmo/Mmo. True. False.

The Alerting message "PATH DES NOT AVAILABLE" indicates that the airplane is within 5 NM of the Top-of-Descent point, a path descent is planned, and a computed path is not available. True. False.

The Advisory Message "UNABLE CRZ ALT" indicates ______. The airplane is unable to reach the new CRZ ALT due to performance limitations. The FMC predicts that no cruise time is possible at entered CRZ ALT. The selected altitude doesn't agree with the direction of travel. Either a or b.

The advisory message "BUFFET ALERT" indicates ______. Current conditions result in a maneuver margin less than specified. Clear Air Turbulence has been detected in the immediate flight path. The airplane is in a partial or full stall. The crew's dinner is being prepared in the galley.

Line 4R displays ETA for EPH based on: Current flight plan. Missed approach at destination and then to alternate. Direct to alternate from present position.

In the air, if an RTA waypoint has been entered, line 5 displays the earliest and latest achievable arrival times at the RTA waypoint. True. False.

Line 2L displays the target speed required ______. For best economy based on the cost index entered on the PERF INIT page. To meet the planned RTA regarless of entered cost index. For maximum fuel conservation. To reach the RTA waypoint as rapidly as possible, considering the restraints on the PERF LIMITS page.

Without moving any switch on the panel below, which engine(s) may be started using air from the APU? (737-300/500). Engine No. 1. Both Engine 1 and 2. Engine No. 2. Neither Engine 1 or 2.

Without moving any switch on the panel below, which engine(s) may be started using air from a pneumatic ground cart? (737-300/500). Engine No. 1. Both Engine 1 and 2. Engine No. 2. Neither Engine 1 or 2.

What switch on the panel below must be repositioned to start both engines from the APU or a pneumatic ground cart? (737-300/500). APU BLEED switch to OFF. Engine No. 1 BLEED switch to OFF. ISOLATION VALVE switch to AUTO. Engine No. 2 BLEED switch to OFF.

What is the minimum duct pressure for engine start at sea level? (737-300/500). 20 psi. 28 psi. 24 psi. 30 psi.

What is the minimum duct pressure for engine start at 4000 feet above sea level? (737-300/500). 20 psi. 24 psi RECIRC FAN OFF. 28 psi AUTO. 30 psi.

What are the primary and secondary stages of engine bleed air that supply the pneumatic duct? (737-300/500). 5th primary and 9th secondary. 8th primary and 13th secondary. 9th primary and 5th secondary. 13th primary and 8th secondary.

What is the maximum altitude for using the APU as a pneumatic source? (737-300/500). 10,000 feet. 17,000 feet. 14,000 feet. 35,000 feet.

What is the maximum duct pressure from an external source? Q. 30 psi. 48 psi. 45 psi. 60 psi.

With the Isolation Valve switch in AUTO, the isolation valve automatically closes when: (737-300/500). Both Pack switches are positioned OFF. An engine bleed trip off has occurred. Both Pack and Engine Bleed switches are ON. There is equal duct pressure on both sides.

What fault(s) cannot be reset with the TRIP RESET switch? (737-300/500). BLEED TRIP OFF. DUCT OVERHEAT. PACK TRIP OFF. WING-BODY OVERHEAT.

The amber DUAL BLEED light will illuminate whenever the APU bleed air valve is OPEN and the No. 1 engine bleed switch is ON. (737-300/500). True. False.

After a bleed trip has been reset, what cockpit indication confirms that the engine bleed valve has opened? (737-300/500). START VALVE OPEN light illuminates, then extinguishes. Respective duct pressure increases. Air mix valves move to full cold. The pack temperature begins to increase.

Illumination of the amber WING-BODY OVERHEAT light will automatically close the respective engine bleed valve. (737-300/500). True. False.

It is normal for this light to be illuminated during engine start. (737-300/500).

When positioned ON, this switch connects bleed air from the APU to the airplane pneumatic system. (737-300/500).

This switch controls an AC operated valve. (737-300/500).

This indicator is used to verify starter cutout. (737-300/500).

When these lights illuminate, the respective valve automatically closes. (737-300/500).

When positioned ON, this switch connects engine bleed air to the pneumatic manifold. (737-300/500).

Illumination of this light indicates an air leak in the pneumatic system. (737-300/500).

The valve controlled by this switch opens if either Pack switch or Engine Bleed Air switch is positioned OFF. (737-300/500).

When the WING BODY OVERHEAT light illuminates, the correct crew action is to: (737-300/500). Position the Isolation Valve switch to CLOSE and the respective Engine Bleed switch to OFF. Press the TRIP RESET switch after waiting several minutes for the system to cool. Position both Engine Bleed Air switches to OFF. Position the APU Bleed Air switch to OFF if the fault is on the right side of the airplane.

During climb-out, the amber BLEED TRIP OFF light illuminates. This means: (737-300/500). There is a duct leak. The bleed air temperature or pressure is excessive. The pack temperature is excessive. The engine EGT is excessive.

What is the position of the engine bleed valve after the BLEED TRIP OFF light illuminates? (737-300/500). Drives OPEN. Drives CLOSED. Remains in the same position.

Bleed Air Valves are: (737-300/500). AC Controlled/Mechanically Operated. DC Controlled/Pneumatically Operated. Mechanically Controlled/Hydraulically Operated. None of the above.

Illumination of the engine BLEED TRIP OFF light will also automatically open the isolation valve. (737-300/500). True. False.

The amber DUAL BLEED light: (737-300/500). Should never be illuminated. Should illuminate only if the isolation valve is opened in flight. Should illuminate when the APU is used to start the engines. Illuminates when both sides of the pneumatic duct are pressurized.

Without moving any switch on the panel below, which engine(s) may be started using air from the APU? (737-400). Engine No. 1. Both Engine 1 and 2. Engine No. 2. Neither Engine 1 or 2.

Without moving any switch on the panel below, which engine(s) may be started using air from a pneumatic ground cart? (737-400). Engine No. 1. Both Engine 1 and 2. Engine No. 2. Neither Engine 1 or 2.

What switch on the panel below must be repositioned to start both engines from the APU or a pneumatic ground cart? (737-400). APU BLEED switch to OFF. Engine No. 1 BLEED switch to OFF. ISOLATION VALVE switch to AUTO. Engine No. 2 BLEED switch to OFF.

What is the minimum duct pressure for engine start at sea level? (737-400). 20 psi. 28 psi. 24 psi. 30 psi.

What is the minimum duct pressure for engine start at 4000 feet above sea level? (737-400). 20 psi. 24 psi. 28 psi. 30 psi.

What are the primary and secondary stages of engine bleed air that supply the pneumatic duct? (737-400). 5th primary and 9th secondary. 8th primary and 13th secondary. 9th primary and 5th secondary. 13th primary and 8th secondary.

What is the maximum altitude for using the APU as a pneumatic source? (737-400). 10,000 feet. 17,000 feet. 14,000 feet. 35,000 feet.

What is the maximum duct pressure from an external source?. 30 psi. 48 psi. 45 psi. 60 psi.

With the Isolation Valve switch in AUTO, the isolation valve automatically closes when: (737-400). Both Pack switches are positioned OFF. An engine bleed trip off has occurred. Both Pack and Engine Bleed switches are ON. There is equal duct pressure on both sides.

What fault(s) cannot be reset with the TRIP RESET switch? (737-400). BLEED TRIP OFF. ZONE TEMP. PACK. WING-BODY OVERHEAT.

The amber DUAL BLEED light will illuminate whenever the APU bleed air valve is OPEN and the No. 1 engine bleed switch is ON. (737-400). True. False.

After a bleed trip has been reset, what cockpit indication confirms that the engine bleed valve has opened? (737-400). START VALVE OPEN light illuminates, then extinguishes. Respective duct pressure increases. Air mix valves move to full cold. The pack temperature begins to increase.

Illumination of the amber WING-BODY OVERHEAT light will automatically close the respective engine bleed valve. (737-400). True. False.

It is normal for this light to be illuminated during engine start. (737-400).

When positioned ON, this switch connects bleed air from the APU to the airplane pneumatic system. (737-400).

This switch controls an AC operated valve. (737-400).

This indicator is used to verify starter cutout. (737-400).

When these lights illuminate, the respective valve automatically closes. (737-400).

When positioned ON, this switch connects engine bleed air to the pneumatic manifold. (737-400).

Illumination of this light indicates an air leak in the pneumatic system. (737-400).

The valve controlled by this switch opens if either Pack switch or Engine Bleed Air switch is positioned OFF. (737-400).

When the WING BODY OVERHEAT light illuminates, the correct crew action is to: (737-400). Position the Isolation Valve switch to CLOSE and the respective Engine Bleed switch to OFF. Press the TRIP RESET switch after waiting several minutes for the system to cool. Position both Engine Bleed Air switches to OFF. Position the APU Bleed Air switch to OFF if the fault is on the right side of the airplane.

During climb-out, the amber BLEED TRIP OFF light illuminates. This means: (737-400). There is a duct leak. The bleed air temperature or pressure is excessive. The pack temperature is excessive. The engine EGT is excessive.

What is the position of the engine bleed valve after the BLEED TRIP OFF light illuminates? (737-400). Drives OPEN. Drives CLOSED. Remains in the same position.

Bleed Air Valves are: (737-400). AC Controlled/Mechanically Operated. DC Controlled/Pneumatically Operated. Mechanically Controlled/Hydraulically Operated. None of the above.

Illumination of the engine BLEED TRIP OFF light will also automatically open the isolation valve. (737-400). True. False.

The amber DUAL BLEED light: (737-400). Should never be illuminated. Should illuminate only if the isolation valve is opened in flight. Should illuminate when the APU is used to start the engines. Illuminates when both sides of the pneumatic duct are pressurized.

The CFM56-3 engine is a high bypass ratio turbofan with a ______ stage N2 compressor. 7. 8. 9. 10.

The thrust reversers are actuated by ______. Hydraulic pressure. DC power. AC power. pneumatics.

Takeoff is permitted with one PMC on and the other one inoperative. True. False.

Bleed air is taken from the ______ and ______ stages of the compressor. 6, 7. 5,9. 4, 6. 3, 7.

The start levers control the: Starter and fuel. Fuel and ignition. Pneumatic pressure and fuel. Ignition and starter.

The ignition system is energized by activating the: Engine Start switch. Starter energizer. Engine Start switch and Engine Start lever. Ignition Select switch.

The correct amount of fuel is metered to the engine by the: Fuel flow transmitter. Main engine control. Thrust lever. Pressurization/dump valve.

Minimum duct pressure required for engine start at sea level is ______ psi. 48. 40. 30. 25.

The pneumatic pressure available for engine start is indicated by the pneumatic gauge located on the ______ panel. Forward overhead. Center instrument. Aft overhead.

If the engine START VALVE OPEN light illuminates during flight, the following step should be taken first: Start lever-Cutoff. Isolation Valve switch-CLOSE. Engine Bleed switch - OFF. Engine Start switch - OFF.

During engine start, position the engine start lever to the IDLE Detent when: N2 RPM reaches 20% and is increasing at a normal rate. N2 RPM reaches 25%; if it does not reach 25%, abort the start. N2 RPM reaches 25%, or max motoring speed with N2 above 20%.

For a normal engine start the Ignition Select switch should be positioned to L or R and the Engine Start switch should be positioned to. GRD. CONT. FLT. ON.

For takeoff, the Engine Start Switches should be placed to the ______ position. OFF. CONT. FLT. GRN.

The maximum N2 RPM is: 100%. 102%. 105%. 106%.

If the engine OIL FILTER BYPASS light illuminates, the Thrust lever should be retarded if flight conditions permit. True. False.

The Pneumatic Starter automatically cuts out when the N2 compressor reaches RPM. 50%. 42%. 46%. 35%.

The normal starter duty cycle is ______. 2 min. on, 20 sec off (once, then 3 min cooling). 5 min. on, 30 sec off (twice then 5 min cooling). 3 min. on, 30 sec off (twice then 3 min cooling). Use as often as you like.

The maximum EGT allowed during engine start is ______. 725°C. 905°C. 870°C. 800°C.

The Oil Cooler uses ______ to maintain normal oil temperature. Fuel flow. Bleed air. Hydraulic fluid.

Illumination of the Oil Filter Bypass light indicates: Abnormally high oil temperature. Engine failure is imminent. Impending bypass of the Main Oil Filter. Oil pressure is less than minimum.

Moving the FUEL FLOW Switch to RESET (pushing the FUEL USED RESET switch, in airplanes with EIS) causes the computed fuel used to be ______. Shown on the digital display. Reset to zero. Shown on the analog display.

When the FUEL FLOW Switch is held in the USED position (FUEL FLOW/USED switch is pushed, in airplanes with EIS), the display will indicate fuel used since last ______. Engine start. Takeoff. Refueling. Reset.

Illumination of a REVERSER UNLOCKED light indicates ______. Either of the reverser sleeves is not in the stowed and locked position. The auto-restow system is inoperative. The Isolation and Selector Valves are in disagreement. The Isolation Valve is open.

Reverse thrust may be selected: Whenever the Forward Thrust lever is at idle. When either radio altimeter is sensing less than 10 feet altitude. When the air/ground safety sensor is in the ground mode. Both b and c are correct.

The Power Management Control (PMC) will adjust fuel flow in all phases of flight as a function of ______. Thrust lever angle. N1 RPM. Fan inlet temperature and pressure. All of the above.

When will the engines operate at High Idle RPM?. On the ground with the Flap lever at 15 or greater. Only with either or both ENG ANTI-ICE Switches ON. In flight at all times. Only with Engine Start Switches in FLT.

The GPWS will provide a warning/alert of flight toward vertically sheer terrain. True. False.

The Ground Proximity Warning System Test: Can be performed only on the ground. Is inhibited in the air below 1,000 feet Radio Altitude. Can be performed only above 1,000 feet Radio Altitude. Can be performed any time.

The "Altitude loss After Takeoff or Go-Around" mode of the GPWS is active during go around when: The Air/Ground Safety Sensor is activated. The flaps are retracted. The landing gear is retracted. Either b or c.

All modes of the GPWS are inoperative when: The Captain's Radio Altimeter is inoperative. The First Officer's Radio Altimeter is inoperative. The IRS FAULT light is illuminated. Air data computer No. 2 is inoperative.

The "Altitude loss After Takeoff or Go-Around" mode is armed: Between 30 and 1333 feet radio altitude. When airborne, flaps and gear down. On takeoff through 700 feet radio altitude. On takeoff through 1333 feet radio altitude.

The "TOO LOW GEAR" alert is terminated when the unsafe altitude no longer exists or the landing gear is extended. True. False.

The "Unsafe Terrain Clearance With landing Gear Not Down" mode is armed: When airborne. After takeoff upon climbing through 700 feet radio altitude. Above 1,000 feet radio altitude. When a positive rate of climb is established.

The "TOO LOW FLAPS" alert is terminated when the unsafe altitude no longer exists or the flaps are extended to the landing position. True. False.

The "TOO LOW FLAPS" alert takes priority over the "TOO LOW GEAR" alert. True. False.

The "Below Glide Slope Deviation" mode is armed when: Radio Altitude is 1,000 feet or less. A valid signal is received by the Captain's glide slope receiver. A valid signal is received by the First Officer's glide slope receiver. Both a and b.

The "Below Glide Slope Deviation" mode can be cancelled: False, the mode cannot be cancelled. Anytime, regardless of altitude. Anywhere below 1,000 feet radio altitude. Only when CMD mode of autopilot is selected.

Windshear warnings are available: Anytime when airborne. Above 50 feet radio altitude and below 1,000 feet radio altitude. Only below 1,500 feet radio altitude. Anytime power is applied to GPWS computer.

All other GPWS warnings take priority over windshear warnings. True. False.

The takeoff configuration warning horn sounds when either or both Forward Thrust levers are advanced for takeoff and: Stabilizer trim is not in the green band range. Leading edge flaps are not in the correct position. Trailing edge flaps are not in the 1 through 15 range (5 through 15 range for 737-400/500). Any of the above.

All the landing Gear Indicator lights are extinguished when the Forward Thrust levers are advanced and: The gear are up and locked with the landing gear lever up. The gear are up and locked with the landing gear lever off. The gear are down and locked with the landing gear lever down. Either a or b.

Inputs to the GPWS computer are: Radio Altitude from the Captain's radio altimeter. Mach/airspeed and barometric altitude from air data computer No. 1. Glide slope signals from Captain's glide slope receiver, landing Gear lever, and flap position. All of the above.

The "Excessive Descent Rate" mode is dependent on airplane configuration. True. False.

The Stall Warning Test may be performed any time. True. False.

The "Altitude loss After Takeoff or Go-Around" mode is active during a missed approach when the airplane descends below 245 feet radio altitude in the landing configuration and: The flaps are retracted. The gear is retracted. The flaps and gear are retracted. The flaps or gear are retracted.

How can the landing gear warning horn be silenced when the airplane is in the landing configuration with flaps extended to 30 degrees and the gear are not down and locked during a single engine approach?. Advance the forward thrust lever to above idle. Depress the landing Gear Warning Horn cutout switch. Lower the landing Gear. The landing Gear Warning Horn cannot be silenced.

Test switches allow a test of the Mach/Airspeed Warning system only above 1,000 feet RA. True. False.

How can you silence the Mach/airspeed warning in flight?. Slow the airplane speed to below Vmo/Mmo. Press the Mach/airspeed warning test switch. Descend to a lower altitude. Climb to a higher altitude.