Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done: at transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent. at transition level during climb and transition altitude during descent. only at transition altitude. only at transition level.
What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure? Mode A code 7500 Mode B code 7600 Mode A code 7700 Mode A code 7600.
When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder: Only when the aircraft is flying within airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes. At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside airspace where SSR is
used for ATS purposes. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace. Only when directed by ATC.
When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot: Shall continuously operate this mode unless otherwise directed by ATC. Shall continuously operate this mode only when directed by ATC. Shall continuously operate this mode regardless of ATC instructions. Shall continuously operate this mode only when the aircraft is within controlled airspace.
The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall set the transponder to Mode A
Code: 2000 7500 7600 7700.
When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the
situation by setting the transponder to: 7700 7600 7500 7000.
Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator (IDENT) feature unless: They operate within controlled airspace. They operate a transponder with Mode C. They operate within non controlled airspace Requested by ATC.
When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions, pilots shall: Read back the mode and code to be set. Use only the word ROGER. Use only the word WILCO. Read back only the code to be set.
Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction
with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)? Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communication failure 7500. Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600 Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600 Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700.
Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320. In flight, in case of radio communications
failure, you will squawk: A 7600 Mode C A 5300 Mode C A 7620 Mode C A 0020 Mode C.
When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if: the state of registry, the state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the aircraft is still
airworthy the state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a nature such
that the aircraft is still airworthy the state of design and the state of manufacture inform the state of registry that the aircraft is still
airworthy the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still
airworthy.
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is: Control zone. Control area. Advisory airspace. Flight Information Region.
A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit
is: Control area. Air traffic zone. Advisory airspace. Control zone.
ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic
control service and are separated from each other is classified as: Class B Class A Class D Class E.
Aerodrome traffic is: All traffic on the manoeuvring area All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome. All traffic on the movement area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome. All traffic in the aerodrome circuit.
Air Traffic Service unit means: Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centres. Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices. Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centres or Air Services reporting offices. Flight Information Centres and Air Services reporting offices.
Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards
and recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)? Annex 14 Annex 6 Annex 17 Annex 11.
An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurrence or expected
occurrence of specified enroute weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level
aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low level
flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-area thereof is: An AIRMET information A SIGMET information A NOTAM An enroute Meteo Report.
Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS): it has the same privileges and prerogatives as an ATC organization, but its activity is neither continuous
nor regular. its purpose is to supply ATC services, but it is not a state organization. it can only supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may it supply ATC services. its only purpose is to relay ATC information to the aircraft in flight or on the ground.
Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled? The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone (CTR) and provided with a Control Tower. The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone. The aerodrome shall be located within a controlled airspace. The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower.
Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are provided: Flight Information Service and Alerting Service. Flight Information Service, Alerting Service and Advisory Service. Flight Information Service only. Flight Information Service and Advisory Service.
Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows: A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 900 feet above the earth. A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified limit. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 1000 feet above the earth.
A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least: 5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which
approaches may be made. 10 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which
approaches may be made. 15 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which
approaches may be made. 20 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which
approaches may be made.
A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or water
of not less than: 300 meters 150 meters 200 meters 500 meters.
The units providing Air Traffic Services are: Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower
and Air Traffic Services reporting office. Area Control Centre - Approach Control Office and Aerodrome Control Tower. Area Control Centre - Advisory Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office and Tower. Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region - Approach Control Office and Tower.
The Approach Control Service is an air traffic control service: An air traffic control service for IFR flights arriving and departing An air traffic control service provided for the arriving and departing controlled flights An air traffic control service provided for IFR and VFR flights within a Control Zone. An air traffic control service provided for IFR traffic within a Control Zone.
Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of: Preventing collision between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and
expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic Applying separation between aircraft and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic Preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of
air traffic Avoiding collisions between all aircraft and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic.
To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E: a clearance is required. two way radiocommunication is not required. a clearance and two-way radiocommunication is required. a clearance and/or two-way radiocommunication is required.
Which statement is correct? The lower limit of a CTA shall be established at a height of at least 1500ft AGL The upper limit of a CTR shall be established at a height of at least 3000ft AMSL The lower limit of an UIR may coincide with an IFR cruising level The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of at least 700ft AGL.
What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E? 250 kt only for VFR up to FL 195 250 kt for IFR and VFR UP TO FL 100 250 kt VFR and IFR, all levels 250 kt only for IFR up to FL 100.
The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050
m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is: 250 KT IAS 250 KT TAS Not applicable 240 KT IAS.
The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below
3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is: 250 KT TAS Not applicable 240 KT IAS 250 KT IAS.
The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3.050
m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is: 250 KT IAS 250 KT TAS Not applicable 260 KT IAS.
The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B,
when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMLS, is: Not applicable 250 KT IAS 250 KT TAS 260 KT IAS.
Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures applicable
therein: has to be the same as the underlying flight information region need not to be identical with those applicable in the underlying flight information region have to be as indicated by ICAO council have to be as agreed at the regional air navigation meetings.
The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is: 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical
from clouds 5 NM visibility below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, clear of clouds 5 NM visibility when below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloud.
A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the following
minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds 5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMS 1.500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds 8 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1 500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds 5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds.
A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the following
minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds 5km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds 5 NM at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and clear of clouds.
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic
control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights VFR
flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR
flights, is classified as: Airspace D Airspace E Airspace B Airspace C.
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic
control service and are separated from each other is classified as: Airspace B Airspace C Airspace D Airspace E.
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, and all flights are subject to air traffic
control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information
in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is
classified as: Airspace B Airspace E Airspace A Airspace D.
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control
Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as
is practical, is classified as: Airspace G Airspace F Airspace E Airspace D.
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information service if
requested, is classified as: Airspace F Airspace C Airspace E Airspace G.
Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents
a navigation accuracy of: plus or minus 4 NM on a 90 per cent containment basis plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basis plus or minus 4 NM on a 98 per cent containment basis plus or minus 4 miles on a 90 per cent containment basis.
Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary
to ensure correct time to within plus or minus: 30 seconds of UTC at all times 15 seconds of UTC at all times 10 seconds of UTC at all times 1 minute of UTC at all times.
Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be limited to
route segments of: 75 NM or more 50 NM or more 100 NM or more 60 NM or more.
Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed by states but not on the basis of regional air agreements by states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements by ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements by regional air navigation agreements.
An air traffic control unit: may require to change the call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two
or more similar call signs providing the aircraft is on a repetitive flight plan. must not ask an aircraft to change its call sign. may ask an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of
confusion between two or more similar call signs. may not ask an aircraft to change its call sign after accepting the flight plan.
The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done: by agreement with the receiving unit. automatically at the control zone boundary with the pilot's consent. through a central control unit.
Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of: Achieving separation between IFR flights Providing flight Information Service Achieving separation between controlled flights Providing advisory service.
Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of: Achieving separation between controlled flights Providing flight Information Service Providing advisory services Providing alerting services.
You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearance expires at 0920. What does it mean? After 0920 return to the ramp and file a new flight plan Do not take off before 0920 The take-off clearance is expected at 0920 If not airborne until 0920, a new clearance has to be issued.
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level
where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is: 10 minutes 5 minutes 15 minutes 3 minutes.
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level
where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding
aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more/faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 10 minutes 3 minutes 5 minutes 15 minutes.
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level
where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding
aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more/faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 3 minutes. 5 minutes. 6 minutes. 10 minutes.
The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and
following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or
more/faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 3 minutes 5 minutes 10 minutes 2 minutes.
The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and
following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or
more/faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 10 minutes 5 minutes 3 minutes 8 minutes.
When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the following
minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided: 15 minutes at the time the level is crossed 10 minutes at the time the level is crossed 5 minutes at the time the level is crossed 20 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft "on track"
uses DME stations, is: 5 NM 10 NM 20 NM. 20 NM when the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more/Faster than the succeeding
aircraft.
An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at FL 140 is
receiving a clearance to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area. When is the
earliest that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected? When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120 When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 140 When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL 70 When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL 130.
What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a ’Heavy’ aircraft preceding
a ’Light’ aircraft? 3 NM 6 NM 2 km 10 km.
When are ATIS broadcasts updated? Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR, otherwise hourly Only when weather conditions change enough to require a change in the active runway or instrument
approach in use Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value.
Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information
concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes: A to E (inclusive) A to G (inclusive) C to G (inclusive) F and G.
ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud
cover, when the clouds are: below 1500 m (5000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater below 900 m (3000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater below 2000 m (600 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater cumulonimbus.
The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed: 3 minutes 1 minute 2 minutes 30 seconds.
Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated: immediately a significant change occurs at least every half an hour independently of any significant change as prescribed by the meteorological office as prescribed by the state.
Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be
the responsibility of: the unit as prescribed the states the meteorological office serving the aerodrome (s) both air traffic services and the meteorological office the air traffic services.
ATIS broadcast shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS Shall be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS, on a discrete VHF frequency or on the voice
channel of a VOR Shall not be transmitted on the voice of a VOR Shall only be transmitted on a discrete VHF frequency.
Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when
operating in airspace classes: F and G only C, D, E, F, and G A, B, C, D, E, F and G F only.
When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases
is the responsibility of the: search and rescue co-ordination centres flight information or control organizations air traffic co-ordination services operational air traffic control centres.
The Alerting Service is provided by: Only by ATC units. The ATC unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment, when it is provided with 121.5 MHz. The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment. The Area Control Centres.
The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are: uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase. uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase. uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase. uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency phase.
A radio communication, "Distress" differs from "Urgency" because in the first case: The aeroplane or a passenger's safety require the flight immediately interrupted. The aeroplane has suffered damages which impair its fitness to fly. The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome. There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance.
Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct? Alerting Service and Flight Information Service are often provided by the same ATS unit The Alert phase is established when no communication has been received from an aircraft within a
period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have been received. The distress phase is established when an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful
interference Aircraft in the vicinity of an aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference, shall
be informed about this.
When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility
of: air traffic control and flight information centres. search and rescue coordination centres. air traffic coordination centres. centres only.
Alert phase is defined as follows: A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted. An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be threatened by a
danger. A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of emergency. A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.
When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the
allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of: 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190 22.5 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250 25 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL190.
When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns shall be made within the
allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a
radius of: 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL260 25.0 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL200 20 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL200.
The rule governing flight over water for a single engine aeroplane engaged in the public
transport of passengers: limits flight to up to 10 minutes flying time from the nearest shore. does not permit such flight in any circumstances. limits such flight to a height sufficient to land safely if the engine fails. limits flight to up to 8 NM from the nearest shore.
The period of validity for take-off slots assigned by CEU (flow control centre): is 15 minutes. depends on the type of flight (10 minutes for international flights, 5 minutes for domestic flights). is 10 minutes. is 5 minutes.
A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least: 10 minutes prior to departure. 60 minutes prior to departure. 30 minutes prior to leave the blocks. 50 minutes prior to leave the blocks.
If radio communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, generally the pilot shall: Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations - Transmit being Indicating
important details required two times. Land on the nearest suitable aerodrome and report the termination of the flight to ATC. Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations. Transmit blind indicating details required at least 2 times.
A strayed aircraft is: an aircraft in a given area but whose identity has not been established only that aircraft which has deviated significantly its intended track only that aircraft which reports that it is lost An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which reports that it is lost.
The pilot in command of an aircraft:
1 - must comply immediately to all instructions received from ATC.
2 - is responsible only if he is the "pilot flying"
3 - may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons.
4 - may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC instruction.
5 - may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance.
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements? 2 - 3 - 5 3 - 4 - 5 1 - 4 3 – 5.
"ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC" is that controlled flight to which the provision of separation by ATC is
applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled flight is not separated therefore by
the appropriate separation minima. Whenever separation minima is not applied. The following
flights are considered essential traffic one to each other. All IFR flight in controlled airspaces and controlled VFR. Controlled VFR flights and VFR flights. All IFR flights. Only controlled IFR flights.
When, in air space where VFR are permitted, the pilot in command of an IFR flight wishes to
continue his flight in accordance with visual flight rules, until the destination is reached:
1 He must inform the control unit ("cancel IFR")
2 He must request and obtain clearance.
3 He may request his IFR flight plan to be changed to a VFR flight plan.
4 The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight plan.
The correct combination of statements is: 2 and 3 2 and 4 1 and 4 1 and 3.
A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals: Horizontally moving hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground. Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards. Crossing arms extended above his head. Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers extended then clenching fist.
In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or
cancelled, and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is: 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure. 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks. 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks. 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.
Which is the content of section 2 of Air-Report (AIREP)? Present position, estimated time of arrival (ETA). Estimated elapse time (EET), endurance. Estimated time of arrival (ETA), endurance. Estimated time over FIR boundary, endurance.
The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed: Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over. Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude, time, next position and time over and ensuing
significant point. Aircraft identification, position, time, true air speed, flight level or altitude, next position and time over. Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over and ensuing
significant point.
Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance? The air traffic service reporting office when accepting the flight plan. The aircraft operator. The ATC. The pilot in command.
Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with
VFR and subsequently changes to IFR? Z I V Y.
Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with
IFR and subsequently changes to VFR? I Y V Z.
In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan has been submitted, the
flight plan should be amended, or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when: The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure. The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks. The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks. The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off departure.
A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should: Read back those parts containing level assignments, vectors or any part requiring verification. Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation. Read back the initial route clearance, level assignments and transponder codes. Read back should be unsolicited.
A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections. In section I the pilot fills in: a position report, including aircraft identification, height, position and time weather noted flight identification and weather noted urgent messages.
Change from IFR to VFR will always take place: when the aircraft is leaving controlled airspace during VMC at the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditions as instructed by an air traffic control unit on the initiative of the aircraft commander.
The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be
entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the: estimated ground speed (G/S). true air speed (TAS). indicated air speed (IAS). true air speed at 65% power.
The "estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time: required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport. required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the end of the flight
(block time). required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing. of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure and temperature on that day.
The letter "L" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum
certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to: 20000 kg. 14000 kg. 7000 kg. 5700 kg for airplanes and 2700 kg for helicopters.
If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight plan form... write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of the
airport. write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of the
airport. write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of
the airport write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of the
airport.
Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two-way communication
failure? Return to the aerodrome of departure. Continue the flight at the assigned level and route; start approach at your ETA. Maintain your assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome that has VMC conditions. Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as practicable.
Track separation between aircraft using the same NDB shall be applied requiring the aircraft to
fly: At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility. At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility. At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility. At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more from the facility.
Track separation between aircraft using the same FIX shall be applied requiring the aircraft to
fly: At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the FIX. At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more from the FIX. At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the FIX. At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more from the FIX.
If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft: He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance. He may request another clearance and the ATC concerned has to accept the pilot request. The pilot has to accept the ATC clearance because it has been based on the flight plan filed with ATC. The pilot should propose another clearance to the ATC concerned.
The "VMC and own separation" ATC clearance is used for a controlled flight to cross the level
of another controlled flight when: Requested by the pilot and during the day light. Requested by the pilot, during the day light and authorized by the state overflown. Requested by the pilot and authorized by the state overflown. This procedure is not allowed.
Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed as: Decided on pilot's discretion. Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC. Prescribed by the aircraft operations. the weather permits.
What are the controlled IFR separation methods applied by ATC? Composite separation. Vertical, horizontal and longitudinal separation. Time separation and track separation. Vertical, horizontal and composite separation.
The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace below
FL 290 is: 500 feet (150 m) 2000 feet (600 m) 1000 feet (300 m) 2500 feet (750 m).
The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace above
FL 290 is: 2000 feet (600 m) 1000 feet (300 m) 500 feet (150 m) 4000 feet (1200 m).
Track separation between aircraft using the same VOR shall be applied requiring the aircraft to
fly: At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more from the facility. At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility. At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility. At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
Flying exactly on your current flight plan route, you receive and acknowledge the following
instruction from the radar controller: "Turn immediately, continue heading 050° until further
advised". Time now is 18:36 UTC. At 18:37 UTC you find out that radio communication cannot
be stablished again, and you have to return to your current flight plan route: On the nearest way With an intercept of 20° or more With an intercept of at least 45° With an intercept of at least 30°.
Above flight level FL 290 the vertical flight separation between aircraft on the same direction
is: 1500 feet 2000 feet 3000 feet 4000 feet.
The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME
stations, is: 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more/faster than the
succeeding aircraft. 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 40 kt or more/faster than the
succeeding aircraft. 20 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more/faster than the
succeeding aircraft. 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more/faster than the
succeeding aircraft.
A "RNAV" distance-based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed,
provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on track" way-point. This
minimum is: 50 NM 60 NM 80 NM 20 NM.
A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in controlled
airspace classified as: B, C, D and E B and C B, C and D B.
One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks
diverging by at least: 45° immediately after take-off. 30° immediately after take-off. 15° immediately after take-off. 25° immediately after take-off.
Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same
track, when: The preceding aircraft is 30 kt or more/faster than the following aircraft. The preceding aircraft is 40 kt or more/faster than the following aircraft. The preceding aircraft is 20 kt or more/faster than the following aircraft. The preceding aircraft is 10 kt or more/faster than the following aircraft.
The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be reduced till a
maximum of half the standard criteria is called: Essential separation Combined separation Reduced separation Composite separation.
What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290? 500 feet 1000 feet 1500 feet 2000 feet.
Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as flight level (FL) if the obstacle clearance is more than 2000 feet When QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1013 hPa only in airspace class A Above the transition altitude when applicable.
Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible: If the commander so requests If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during the next 30 minutes If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during the next 60 minutes Only when leaving controlled airspace.
Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances from the same DME
and it is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the shortest difference in
DME-distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descend 10 NM 12 NM 15 NM 20 NM.
Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, and where automatic distinct
display of SSR Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided, the radar controller shall
attempt to verify this suspicion by: Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7500 and thereafter to code 7700 Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7000 and thereafter to code 7500 Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7500 then to standby and thereafter to code 7700 Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7700 then to standby and thereafter to code 7500.
When the Mach number technique (MNT) is being applied, and the preceding aircraft shall
maintain a Mach number equal to or greater than the following aircraft a RNAV distance-based
separation minimum may be used on the same direction tracks in lieu of 10 minutes
longitudinal separation minimum. The distance is: 60 NM 100 NM 70 NM 80 NM.
Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME for aircraft at the same cruising
level and track, provided that each aircraft utilizes "on Track" DME stations and separation is
checked by obtaining simultaneous DME readings, is: 10 NM 20 NM 25 NM 40 NM.
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when
navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the
preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or more/faster than the succeeding
aircraft will be 3 minutes 5 minutes 10 minutes 2 minutes.
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when
navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the
preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 20 Kt or more/faster than the succeeding
aircraft will be: 2 minutes 3 minutes 10 minutes 5 minutes.
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when
navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed will be: 3 minutes 15 minutes 5 minutes 10 minutes.
Repetitive flight plans (RPL’s) shall be used for flights operated regularly on the same day(s)
of consecutive weeks and: On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive days On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least 20 consecutive days On at least 20 days consecutively On at least 20 occasions.
The minimum sector altitude provides 300 meters obstacle clearance within how many miles
radius from the navigation facility upon which the instrument approach procedure is predicated: 15 NM (28 km) 25 NM (46 km) 20 NM (37 km) 30 NM (55 km).
"Time Approach Procedure" is used as necessary to expedite the approach of a number of
arriving aircraft. This will be obtained requesting aircraft: To pass a specified point. To pass the specified point inbound at the previously notified time. To apply a step-down descent between aircraft in the approach sequence. To maintain a specified speed during the approach procedure.
During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling the pilot should contact departure control: After take-off. Before penetrating the clouds. When clear of the airport and established on the first heading given in the clearance. When advised by Tower.
A so called "Visual Approach" can be performed: during IFR flights, if there is permanent sight on the movement area and the underlying ground. during IFR and VFR flights in VMC. during IFR flights, if the cloud base is 1000 ft more than the appropriate DA or MDA for that procedure as in above, but in addition there should be a visibility of 5,5 km or more.
An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if: the pilot is following the published approach procedure. the pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and will keep it in sight. the aircraft gets radar vectors. all mentioned answers are correct.
The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected delay is: 15 minutes or more 5 minutes or more. 10 minutes 20 minutes.
Which statement is correct? During a "Visual Approach" in Controlled Airspace (Class C): ATC will apply separation with other traffic. the pilot to apply separation with other traffic. ATC will apply separation only with other IFR-traffic. ATC will apply separation with other arriving traffic.
For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may
be reduced: Only if the air traffic controller has the involved aircraft in sight. At the discretion of the air traffic controller. If the commander of the involved aircraft so requests. When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is able to maintain
own separation.
If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report ’field in sight’,
a clearance for ’visual approach’ may be given under certain conditions: Continued approach will be according to VFR The air traffic controller will provide separation to other controlled traffic The approach must be passing the FAF The meteorological visibility must not be less than 8 km.
If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departing aircraft may take off in any
direction: until ten minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway until three minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway until two minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway until five minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway.
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the
form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall
be transmitted to aircraft. The mean crosswind component significant change is: 5 KT 3 KT 10 KT 8 KT.
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the
form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall
be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind component significant change is: 4 KT 2 KT 5 KT 3 KT.
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the
form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall
be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind component significant change is. 10 KT 5 KT 8 KT 4 KT.
A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the
ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent
parallel approaches are being conducted: 300 m (1000 ft) 200 m (660 ft) 150 m (500 ft) 100 m (330 ft).
A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS
localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel
approaches are being conducted: 2.0 NM 5.0 NM 1.0 NM 3.0 NM.
Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that: the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 30° (degrees) from the missed
approach track of the adjacent approach the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 20° (degrees) from the missed
approach track of the adjacent approach the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 25° (degrees) from the missed
approach track of the adjacent approach the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 45° (degrees) from the missed
approach track of the adjacent approach.
When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS
localizer course or MLS final approach track the final vector shall be such as to enable the
aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater
than: 20 degrees 25 degrees 30 degrees 15 degrees.
Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a no
transgression zone (NTZ) of at least: 600 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display 500 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display 710 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display 610 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display.
When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and vectoring
to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the vector shall be such as to
enable the aircraft to be established on the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track in
level flight for: at least 1.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle at least 3.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle at least 2.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle at least 2.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle.
Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that the missed
approach track for one approach diverges by: at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach at least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach at least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach at least 15° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach.
For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival is the
estimated time at which the aircraft: will land will arrive overhead the initial approach fix. will stop on the parking area. will leave the initial approach fix to start the final approach.
During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic avoidance is the
responsibility of: the airport controller. the approach controller. the radar controller. the pilot in command.
When a runway is 2000 meters in length, and taxi holding positions have not been established,
aircraft shall not be held closer to the runway in use more than: 50 meters. 30 meters. 45 meters. 60 meters.
Which statement regarding approach control service is correct? If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes or more, an Expected Approach Time will
be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft. Approach control have to advise the aircraft operators about substantial delays in departure in any
event when they are expected to exceed 45 minutes. An approach sequence shall be established according to the sequence of initial radio contact between
aircraft and approach control. During a visual approach an aircraft is maintaining its own separation.
Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control service is correct? Suspension of VFR operations cannot be initiated by the aerodrome controller. The aerodrome control service is a service provided for the purpose of preventing collisions between
aircraft on the movement area. An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of ATC, will be cleared to land if this is
desirable. ATC permission is required for entering the apron with a vehicle.
A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is: Medium/poor Good Poor Medium.
According to international agreements wind direction shall be adjusted to the local variation
and given in degrees magnetic: Before landing and take-off When the local variation exceeds 10° East or 10° West. In upper wind forecast for areas north of lat 60° north or 60° south. When an aircraft on the request by a meteorological watch office (MWO) or at specified points
transmits a PIREP.
Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they can be again
brought into operation: At least 30 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft At least one hour before the expected arrival of an aircraft At least 15 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft At least 5 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft.
Special VFR flights may the authorized to operate locally within a control zone when the ground
visibility is not less than 1500 meters, even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning
radio receiver within class: E airspace D and E airspaces D airspace C, D and E airspaces.
In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed approaches, what
minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft? medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 3 minutes medium aircraft other medium aircraft - 2 minutes light aircraft behind medium aircraft -4 minutes medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutes.
A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft
and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low
or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the opposite
direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated by: 730 m 760 m Less than 730 m Less than 760 m.
A separation minimum shall be applied between a LIGHT or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY
aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making
a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is utilizing an opposite direction runway for
take-off, this minimum is: 5 minutes 3 minutes 1 minute 2 minutes.
In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be applied when
a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are using the same runway? 4 minutes 3 minutes 2 minutes 1 minute.
Flight information service shall be provided to all aircraft which are likely to be affected by the
information and which are: Provided with air traffic control services, only. Provided with the air traffic control services and otherwise known to the relevant air traffic service units. Known to the relevant air traffic services units. Known to the relevant air traffic services units by a filed flight plan.
Alerting service shall be provided: To any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, only. For all aircraft provided with air traffic control services, only. For all controlled flight, to any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, and in
so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to the ATS. In so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known by the ATS.
What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is taking off
behind a medium aircraft and both are using the same runway? 2 minutes 3 minutes 1 minute 5 minutes.
Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway
and to "resume own navigation" . This phrase means that: You are to contact the centre at the next reporting point. You are still in radar contact but must make position reports. Radar services are terminated, and you will be responsible for position reports. You are to assume responsibility for your own navigation.
The Air Traffic Control Services do not prevent collisions with terrain. Correct, expect when an IFR flight is vectored by radar. Prevent collisions with terrain Do not prevent collisions with terrain Except when an aircraft is flying IFR in IMC.
Which code shall be used on mode "A" to provide recognition of an emergency aircraft? Code 7500 Code 7600 Code 7000 Code 7700.
One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control
service is: To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM. To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between IFR flights and VFR flights. To conduct surveillance radar approaches. To provide instructions in order to reduce separations minima, if accepted by the pilots.
The primary duty provided by a radar unit is: To assist aircraft on the location storms. To assist aircraft due to failure of airborne equipment. To provide radar separation. To assist aircraft where navigation appears unsatisfactory.
When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall: Inform the aircraft only if radar identification has been achieved without availability of SSR. Inform the aircraft only if communication's load permits it. not advise the aircraft before issuing instructions. Inform the aircraft prior to issue any instructions or advice based on the use of radar.
One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control
service is: To conduct precision radar approach (PAR). To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM. To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between IFR and VFR flights. To provide instructions to reduce the separation minima.
Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a Surveillance Radar Approach
(SRA) shall be terminated at a distance from the touchdown of: 4 NM 2 NM 5 NM 3 NM.
When "Secondary Radar" is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following
procedures: Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate transponder from "ON" to "STBY" and back
to "ON" To request pilot to set transponder on position "ON" To request pilot to set transponder on position "OFF” To request pilot to switch from "ON" to "STDBY".
Where a "Secondary Surveillance Radar" (SSR) is not available, radar identification may be
achieved by one of the following procedures: To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 20° or more To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 30° or more To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 10° To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 45°.
Which code shall be used on Mode "A" to provide recognition of an aircraft subjected to
unlawful interference? Code 7500 Code 7700 Code 7600 Code 2000.
Which does ATC Term "Radar contact" signify? You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that radar
contact has been lost. Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with
this radar facility. Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until
radar identification is terminated. ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you are advised
that contact has been lost.
What is meant when departure control instructs you to "resume own navigation" after you have
been vectored to an airway? You are still in radar contact but must make position reports. Radar Service is terminated. Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC. You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment.
When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector furnished shall be
such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an angle not greater than: 15 degrees 25 degrees 30 degrees 20 degrees.
The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the same
localizer with additional longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence: 3 NM 2 NM 5 NM 2.5 NM.
The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer course
shall be: 5.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course 3.0 NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer course. 2.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course. 3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information displayed to the
controller is accurate shall be: +/- 300 ft +/- 200 ft +/- 250 ft +/- 500 ft.
Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation
minimum shall be: 3.5 NM 3.0 NM 10.0 NM 5.0 NM.
The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an aircraft
shall be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller criterion): +/- 200 ft +/- 150 ft +/- 300 ft +/- 250 ft.
An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode C
derived level information indicated that it is within: +/- 300 ft of the assigned level. +/- 200 ft of the assigned level. +/- 250 ft of the assigned level. +/- 500 ft of the assigned level.
An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR mode C
derived level information indicates that it has passed this level in the required direction by: 300 ft More than 300 ft +/- 300 ft More than 200 ft.
The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below: 3.0 NM 5.0 NM 2.0 NM 1.5 NM.
Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the radar controller should
notify the non-radar controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is approximately: 10 NM 5 NM 8 NM 6 NM.
An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider executing a missed
approach, if the position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the
final approach or if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for significant interval during
the last: 2 NM 3 NM 1 NM 4 NM.
When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall terminate the
surveillance radar approach, except as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, at a
distance of: 2.5 NM from touchdown 3 NM from touchdown 2 NM from touchdown 1 NM from touchdown.
Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller may
request radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on intermediate and
final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than: +/- 20 kt +/- 10 kt +/- 15 kt +/- 8 kt.
The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft has passed: 2 NM from the threshold on final approach 4 NM from the threshold on final approach 3 NM from the threshold on final approach 5 NM from the threshold on final approach.
Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor
speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than: 10 knots and not within 5 NM of threshold 20 knots and not within 4 NM of threshold 15 knots at any stage 25 knots at any stage.
Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is observed within a
certain distance from the end of the runway. Identification has to be achieved within: 2NM 1NM 3NM 5NM.
When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restorage is
impossible, then: departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be affected is allowed you must indicate the failure in the fight plan, after which the ATC will endeavour to provide for
continuation of the flight the flight can only continue in the most direct manner you are not allowed to commence the flight.
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