APTL A43 Q-BANK (MET) - CAA MOTC ROC ATPL

1. During the winter months in the middle latitudes, the jet stream shifts toward the. north and speed decreases. south and speed increases. north and speed increases.

2. The strength and location of the jet stream is normally. weaker and farther north in the summer. stronger and farther north in the winter. stronger and farther north in the summer.

3. Which statement is true concerning squall lines?. They form slowly, but move rapidly. They are associated with frontal systems only. They offer the most intense weather hazards to aircraft.

4. Which type of jet stream can be expected to cause the greater turbulence?. A straight jet stream associated with a low-pressure trough. A curving jet stream associated with a deep low-pressure trough. A jet stream occurring during the summer at the lower latitudes.

5. Hazardous wind shear is commonly encountered. near warm or stationary frontal activity. when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots. in areas of temperature inversion and near thunderstorms.

6. If a temperature inversion is encountered immediately after takeoff or during an approach to a landing, a potential hazard exists due to. wind shear. strong surface winds. strong convective currents.

7. Which feature is associated with the tropopause?. Absence of wind and turbulent conditions. Absolute upper limit of cloud formation. Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate.

8. A jet stream is defined as wind of. 30 knots or greater. 40 knots or greater. 50 knots or greater.

9. What feature is association with a temperature inversion. A stable layer of air. An unstable layer of air. Air mass thunderstorms.

10. A temperature inversion will normally form only. in stable air. in unstable air. when a stratiform layer merges with a cumuliform mass.

11. Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity in high?. Smooth air and poor visibility due to fog, haze, or low clouds. Light wind shear and poor visibility due to haze and light rain. Turbulent air and poor visibility due to fog, low stratus-type cloud, and showery precipitation.

12. What enhances the growth rate of precipitation?. Advective action. Upward currents. Cyclonic movement.

13. What temperature condition is indicated if wet snow is encountered at your flight altitude?. The temperature is above freezing at your altitude. The temperature is below freezing at your altitude. You are flying from a warm air mass into a cold air mass.

14. The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that. there are thunderstorms in the area. a cold front has passed. there is freezing rain at a higher altitude.

15. Which precipitation type normally indicates freezing rain at higher altitude?. Snow. Hail. Ice pallets.

16. What type clouds can be expected when an unstable air mass is forced to ascend a mountain slope?. Layered clouds with little vertical development. Stratified clouds with considerable associated turbulence. Clouds with extensive vertical development.

17. Which family of clouds is least likely to contribute to structural icing on aircraft?. Low clouds. High clouds. Clouds with extensive vertical development.

18. Standing lenticular clouds, in mountainous areas, indicated. an inversion. unstable air. turbulence.

19. Under which condition does advection fog usually form?. Moist air moving over colder ground or water. Warm, moist air setting over a cool surface under no-wind conditions. A land breeze blowing a cold air mass over a warm water current.

20. What types of fog depend upon a wind in order to exist?. Steam fog and down slope fog. Precipitation-induced fog and ground fog. Advection fog and up slope fog.

21. Fair weather cumulus clouds often indicate: turbulence at and below the cloud level. poor visibility. smooth flying conditions.

22. What are the characteristics of stable air?. Good visibility, steady precipitation, and stratus-type clouds. Poor visibility, intermittent precipitation, and cumuliform-type clouds. Poor visibility, steady precipitation, and stratus-type clouds.

23. Steady precipitation, in contrast to showers, preceding a front is an indication of: Stratiform clouds with moderate turbulence. Cumiliform clouds with little or no turbulence. Stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.

24. Where do squall lines most often develop?. In an occluded front. In a cold air mass. Ahead of a cold front.

25. If squalls are reported at your destination, what wind conditions should you anticipate?. Sudden increases in wind speed of at least 16 knots, rising to 22 knots or more, lasting for at least 1 minute. Peak gusts of at least 35 knots for a sustained period of 1 minute or longer. Rapid variation in wind direction of at least 20? and changes in speed of at least 10 knots between peaks and lulls.

26. Which thunderstorms generally produce the most severe conditions, such as heavy hail and destructive winds?. Warm front. Squall line. Air mass.

27. What is indicated by the term "embedded thunderstorms"?. Severe thunderstorms are embedded within a squall line. Thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a stable air mass. Thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen.

28. Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm?. Lighting. Heavy rain showers. Supercooled raindrops.

29. Which procedure is recommended if a pilot should unintentionally penetrate embedded thunderstorm activity?. Reverse aircraft heading or proceed toward an area of known VFR conditions. Reduce airspeed to maneuvering speed and maintain a constant altitude. Set power for recommended turbulence penetration airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight attitude.

30. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?. Two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute. One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours. Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.

31. Why is frost considered hazardous to flight operation?. Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoil. Frost decreases control effectiveness. Frost causes early airflow separation resulting in a loss of lift.

32. In which meteorological environment is aircraft structural icing most likely to have the highest rate of accumulation?. Cumulonimbus clouds. High humidity and freezing temperature. Freezing rain.

33. Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of an airfoil. reduce lift by as much as 50 percent and increase drag by as much as 50 percent. increase drag and reduce lift by as much as 25 percent. reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent.

34. Where does wind shear occur?. Exclusively in thunderstorms. Wherever there is an abrupt decrease in pressure and/or temperature. With either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.

35. While flying a 3-degree glide slope, a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind. Which conditions should the pilot expect?. Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glide slope. Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go below glide slope. Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope.

36. What is an operational consideration if you fly into rain which freezes on impact?. You have flown into an area of thunderstorms. Temperatures are above freezing at some higher altitude. You have flown through a cold front.

37. Which primary source should be used to obtain forecast weather information at your destination for the planned ETA?. Area Forecast. Radar Summary and Weather Depiction Charts. Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF).

38. SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions potentially hazardous. particularly to light aircraft. to all aircraft. only to light aircraft operations.

39. A pilot planning to depart at 1100Z on an IFR flight is particularly concerned about the hazard of icing. What sources reflect the most accurate information on icing conditions (current and forecast) at the time of departure?. Low-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart, and the Area Forecast. The Area Forecast, and the Freezing Level Chart. Pilot weather reports (PIREPs), AIRMETS, and SIGMETS.

40. Which weather condition is defined as an anticyclone?. Calm. High pressure area. Col.

41. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area?. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes. Descending to the surface and then outward. Moving outward from the high at high altitudes and into the high at the surface.

42. Where is the usual location of a thermal low?. Over the arctic region. Over the eye of a hurricane. Over the surface of a dry, sunny region.

43. What is a feature of a stationary front?. The warm front surface moves about half the speed of the cold front surface. Weather conditions are a combination of strong cold front and strong warm front weather. Surface winds tend to flow parallel to the frontal zone.

44. Which event usually occurs after an aircraft passes through a front into the colder air?. Temperature/dew point spread decreases. Wind direction shifts to the left. Atmospheric pressure increases.

45. Which atmospheric factor causes rapid movement of surface fronts?. Upper winds blowing across the front. Upper low located directly over the surface low. The cold front overtaking and lifting the warm front.

46. When advection fog has developed, what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds?. Temperature inversion. Wind stronger than 15 knots. Surface radiation.

47. Which conditions are necessary for the formation of upslope fog?. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind. A clear sky, little or no wind, and 1 00 percent relative humidity. Rain falling through stratus clouds and a 10- to 25-knot wind moving the precipitation up the slope.

48. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined?. Ambient temperature lapse rate. Atmospheric pressure at various levels. Surface temperature/dew point spread.

49. Where is a common location for an inversion?. At the tropopause. In the stratosphere. At the base of cumulus clouds.

50. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?. A stable layer of air. An unstable layer of air. Air mass thunderstorms.

51. What characterizes a ground-based inversion?. Convection currents at the surface. Cold temperatures. Poor visibility.

52. Which pressure is defined as station pressure?. Altimeter setting. Actual pressure at field elevation. Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level.

53. What is a difference between an air mass thunderstorm and a steady-state thunderstorm?. Air mass thunderstorms produce precipitation which falls outside of the updraft. Air mass thunderstorm downdrafts and precipitation retard and reverse the updrafts. Steady-state thunderstorms are associated with local surface heating.

54. Which type storms are most likely to produce funnel clouds or tornadoes?. Air mass thunderstorms. Cold front or squall line thunderstorms. Storms associated with icing and supercooled water.

55. Which type cloud is associated with violent turbulence and a tendency toward the production of funnel clouds?. Cumulonimbus mamma. Standing lenticular. Stratocumulus.

56. Where do squall lines most often develop?. In an occluded front. Ahead of a cold front. Behind a stationary front.

57. What condition is indicated when ice pellets are encountered during flight?. Thunderstorms at higher levels. Freezing rain at higher levels. Snow at higher levels.

58. When will frost most likely form on aircraft surfaces?. On clear nights with stable air and light winds. On overcast nights with freezing drizzle precipitation. On clear nights with convective action and a small temperature/dew point spread.

59. What is a feature of supercooled water?. The water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0蚓 until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates.

60. Where do the maximum winds associated with the jet stream usually occur?. In the vicinity of breaks in the tropopause on the polar side of the jet core. Below the jet core where a long straight stretch of the jet stream is located. On the equatorial side of the jet stream where moisture has formed cirriform clouds.

61. What is the primary cause of all changes in the Earth's weather?. Variations of solar energy at the Earth's surface. Changes in air pressure over the Earth's surface. Movement of air masses from moist areas to dry areas.

62. Where is the usual location of a thermal low?. Over the arctic region. Over the eye of a hurricane. Over the surface of a dry, sunny region.

63. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area?. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes. Descending to the surface and then outward. Moving outward from the high at high altitudes and into the high at the surface.

64. At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction. decrease windspeed and Coriolis force. decrease pressure gradient force. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure.

65. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction?. At the poles. Middle latitudes (30 to 60 degrees). At the equator.

66. How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere?. Causes clockwise rotation around a low. Cause wind to flow out of a low toward a high. Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere.

67. Which weather condition is defined as an anti-cyclone?. Calm. High pressure area. COL.

68. Which area or areas of the Northern Hemisphere experience a generally east to west movement of weather system?. Arctic only. Arctic and subtropical. Subtropical only.

69. Summer thunderstorms in the arctic region will generally move. northeast to southwest in polar easterlies. southwest to northeast with the jetstream flow. directly north to south with the low-level polar airflow.

70. What is a characteristic of the troposphere?. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles.

71. What weather feature occurs at altitude levels near the tropopause?. Maximum winds and narrow wind shear zones. Abrupt temperature increase above the tropopause. Thin layers of cirrus (ice crystal) clouds at the tropopause level.

72. Which feature is associated with the tropopause?. Absence of wind and turbulence. Absolute upper limit of cloud formation. Abrupt change of temperature lapse rate.

73. Where is a common location for an inversion?. At the tropopause. In the stratosphere. At the base of cumulus clouds.

74. Where are jetstreams normally located?. In areas of strong low pressure systems in the stratosphere. At the tropopause where intensified temperature gradients are located. In a single continuous band, encircling the Earth, where there is a break between the equatorial and polar tropopause.

75. Which type clouds may be associated with the jetstream?. Cumulonimbus cloud line where the jetstream crosses the cold front. Cirrus clouds on the equatorial side of the jetstream. Cirrostratus cloud band on the polar side and under the jetstream.

76. Where do the maximum winds associated with the jetstream usually occur?. In the vicinity of breaks in the tropopause on the polar side of the jet core. Below the jet core where a long straight stretch of the jetstream is located. On the equatorial side of the jetstream where moisture has formed cirriform clouds.

77. What term describes an elongnated area of low pressure?. Trough. Ridge. Hurricane or typhoon.

78. What is a feature of a stationary front?. The warm front surface moves about half the speed of the cold front surface. Weather conditions are a combination of strong cold front and strong warm front weather. Surface winds tend to flow parallel to the frontal zone.

79. Which event usually occurs after an aircraft passes through a front into the colder air?. Temperature/ dewpoint spread decreases. Wind direction shifts to the left. Atmospheric pressure increases.

80. What type weather change is to be expected in an area where frontolysis is reported?. The frontal weather is becoming stronger. The front is dissipating. The front is moving at a faster speed.

81. Which atmospheric factor causes rapid movement of surface fronts?. Upper winds blowing across the front. Upper low located directly over the surface low. The cold front overtaking and lifting the warm front.

82. In which meteorological conditions can frontal waves and low pressure areas form?. Warm fronts or occluded fronts. Slow-moving cold fronts or stationary fronts. Cold front occlusions.

83. What weather difference is found on each side of a "dry line"?. Extreme temperature difference. Dewpoint difference. Stratus versus cumulus clouds.

84. Where is the normal location of the jetstream relative to surface lows and fronts?. The jetstream is located north of the surface systems. The jetstream is located south of the low and warm front. The jetstream is located over the low and crosses both the warm front and the cold front.

85. Which type frontal system is normally crossed by the jetstream?. Cold front and warm front. Warm front. Occluded front.

86. Which term applies when the temperature of the air changes by compression or expansion with no heat added or removed?. Katabatic. Advection. Adiabatic.

87. Which process causes adiabatic cooling?. Expansion of air as it rises. Movement of air over a colder surface. Release of latent heat during the vaporization process.

88. Which type wind flows downslope becoming warmer and dryer?. Land breeze. Valley wind. Katabatic wind.

89. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope?. 3 deg per 1,000 ft. 2 deg per 1,000 ft. 4 deg per 1,000 ft.

90. What is the result when water vapor changes to the liquid state while being lifted in a thunderstorm?. Latent heat is released to the atmosphere. Latent heat is transformed into pure energy. Latent heat is absorbed from the surrounding air by the water droplet.

91. What weather condition occurs at the altitude where the dewpoint lapse rate and the dry adiabatic lapse rate converge?. Cloud bases form. Precipitation starts. Stable air changes to unstable air.

92. When saturated air moves downhill, its temperature increases. at a faster rate than dry air because of the release of latent heat. at a slower rate than dry air because vaporization uses heat. at a slower rate than dry air because condensation releases heat.

93. What feature is associated with a temperatuer inversion?. A stable layer of air. An unstable layer of air. Air mass thunderstorms.

94. What is indicated about an air mass if the termerature remains unchanged or decreases slightly as altitude is increased?. The air is unstable. A temperature inversion exists. The air is stable.

95. Which condition is present when a local pracel of air is stable?. The parcel of air resists convection. The parcel of air cannot be forced uphill. As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air.

96. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined?. Ambient temperature lapse rate. Atmospheric pressure at various levels. Surface temperature/ dewpoint spread.

97. What characterizes a ground-based inversion?. Convection currents at the surface. Cold temperatures. Poor visibility.

98. When does minimum temperature normally occur during a 24-hour period?. After sunrise. About 1 hour before sunrise. At midnight.

99. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground- or surface based temperature inversion?. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air. Widespread sinking of air whthin a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relative calm night.

100. How are haze layers cleared or dispersed?. By convective mixing in cool night air. By wind or the movement of air. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog.

101. When advection fog has developed, what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds?. Temperature inversion. Wind stronger than 15 knots. Surface radiation.

102. Which conditons are necessary for the formation of upslope fog?. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind. A clear sky, little or no wind, and 100 percent relative humidity. Rain falling through stratus clouds and a 10- to 25-knot wind moving the precipitation up the slope.

103. Which condition produces weather on the lee side of a large lake?. Warm air flowing over a colder lake may produce fog. Cold air flowing over a warmer lake may produce advection fog. Warm air flowing over a cool lake may produce rain showers.

104. Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?. The appearance of an anvil top. The start of rain at the surface. Growth rate of the cloud is at its maximum.

105. During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?. Cumulus. Dissipating. Mature.

106. What featuer is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?. Beginning of rain at the surface. Frequent lightning. Continuous updraft.

107. Why are downdrafts in a mature thunderstorm hazardous?. Downdrafts are kept cool by cold rain which tends to accelerate the downward velocity. Downdrafts converge toward a central location under the storm after striking the surface. Downdrafts become warmer than the surrounding air and reverse into an updraft before reaching the surface.

108. Where do squall lines most often develop?. In an occluded front. Ahead of a cold front. Behind a stationary front.

109. What is a difference between an air mass thunderstorm and a steady-state thunderstorm?. Air mass thunderstorms produce precipitation which falls outside of the updraft. Air mass thunderstorm downdrafts and precipitation retard and reverse the updrafts. Steady-state thunderstorms are associated with local surface heating.

110. Which type storms are most likely to produce funnel clouds or tornadoes?. Air mass thunderstorms. Cold front or squall line thunderstorms. Storms associated with icing and supercooled water.

111. Which type clouds is associated with violent turbulence and a tendency toward the production of funnel clouds?. Cumulonimbus mamma. Standing lenticular. Stratocumulus.

112. Which weather condition is an example of a nonfrontal instability band?. Squall line. Advective fog. Frontogenesis.

113. A severe thunderstorm is one in which the surface wind is. 58 MPH or greater and/or surface hail is 3/4 inch or more in diameter. 50 knots or greater and/or surface hail is 1/2 inch or more in diameter. 45 knots or greater and/or surface hail is 1 inch or more in diameter.

114. A squall is a sudden increase of at least 16 knots in average wind speed to a sustained speed of. 24 knots or more for at least 1 minute. 22 knots or more for at least 1 minute. 20 knots or more for at least 1 minute.

115. Atmospheric pressure changes due to a thunderstorm will be at the lowest value. during the downdraft and heavy rain showers. when the thunderstorm is approaching. immediately after the rain showers have stopped.

116. Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight?. Freezing rain. Clear air turbulence. Embedded thunderstorms.

117. What is indicated by the term "embedded thunderstorms"?. Severe thunderstorms are embedded in a squall line. Thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a stable air mass. Thunderstorms are obscured by other types of clouds.

118. A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates. the absence of clouds in the area. an area of no convective turbulence. an area where precipitation drops are not detected.

119. When flying over the top of a severe thunderstorm, the cloud should be overflown by at least. 1,000 feet for each 10 knots windspeed. 2,500 feet. 500 feet above any moderate to severe turbulence layer.

120. Which is a definition of "severe wind shear"?. Any rapid change of horizontal wind shear in excess of 25 knots; vertical shear excepted. Any rapid change in wind direction or velocity which causes airspeed changes greater than 15 knots or vertical speed changes greater than 500 ft/min. Any change of airspeed greater than 20 knots which is sustained for more than 20 seconds or vertical speed changes in excess of 100 ft/min.

121. In comparison to an approach in a moderate headwind, which is an indication of a possible wind shear due to a decreasing headwind when descending on the glide slope?. Less power is required. Higher pitch attitude is required. Lower descent rate is required.

122. Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind?. Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases. Indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases. Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases.

123. Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and the sink rate to decrease?. Sudden decrease in a headwind component. Tailwind which suddenly increases in velocity. Sudden increase in a headwind component.

124. Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind?. Altitude increase; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. Altitude, pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. Altitude, pitch and indicated airspeed increase.

125. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed?. Decreasing headwind or tailwind. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.

126. Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed?. Increasing tailwind and decreasing headwind. Increasing tailwind and headwind. Decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind.

127. Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity?. Loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance. Decreased takeoff distance. Increased climb performance immediately after takeoff.

128. Thrust is being managed to maintain desired indicated airspeed and the glide slope is being flown. Which characteristics should be observed when a tailwind shears to a constant headwind?. PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases. VERTICAL SPEED: Increases. INDICATED AIRSPEED: Decreases, then increases to approach speed. PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases. VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases. INDICATED AIRSPEED: Increases, then decreases. PITCH ATTITUDE: Decreases. VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases. INDICATED AIRSPEED: Decreases, then increases to approach speed.

129. What is an important characteristic of wind shear?. It is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms. It usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion. It may be associated with either a wind shift or windspeed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.

130. Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thundersotrm be found?. In front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell. Ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud. On all sides and directly under the thundersotrm cell.

131. Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear?. The temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10oC. A calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. A wind direction difference of at least 30o between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion.

132. The horizontal wind shear, critical for turbulence (moderate or greater) per 150 miles is. 18 knots or less. greater than 18 knots. not a factor, only vertical shear is a factor.

133. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?. Two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute. One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours. Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.

134. Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as. 8,000 ft/min. 7,000 ft/min. 6,000 ft/min.

135. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a micraburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of. 40 knots. 80 knots. 90 knots.

136. Doppler wind measurements indicate that the windspeed change a pilot may expect when flying through the peak intensity of a microburst is approximately. 15 knots. 25 knots. 45 knots.

137. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of. 40 knots. 80 knots. 90 knots.

138. (Refer to figure A.) If involved in a microburst encounter, in which aircraft positions will the most severe downdraft occur?(如圖A43_figureA). 4 and 5. 2 and 3. 3 and 4.

139. (Refer to figure A.) When penetrating a microburst, which aircraft will experience an increase in performance without a change in pitch or power?(如 圖A43_figureA). 3. 2. 1.

140. (Refer to figure A.) What effect will a microburst encounter have upon the aircraft in position 3?(如圖A43_figureA). Decreasing headwind. Increasing tailwind. Strong downdraft.

141. (Refer to figure A.) What effect will a microburst encounter have upon the aircraft in position 4?(如圖A43_figureA). Strong tailwind. Strong updraft. Significant performance increase.

142. (Refer to figure A.) How will the aircraft in position 4 be affected by a microburst encounter?(如圖A43_figureA). Performance increasing with a tailwind and updraft. Performance decreasing with a tailwind and downdraft. Performance decreasing with a headwind and downdraft.

143. What information from the control tower is indicated by the following transmission? "SOUTH BOUNDARY WIND ONE SIX ZERO AT TWO FIVE, WEST BOUNDARY WIND TWO FOUR ZERO AT THREE FIVE.". A downburst is located at the center of the airport. Wake turbulence exists on the west side of the active runway. There is a possibility of wind shear over or near the airport.

144. What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear?. Lower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed. Avoid overstressing the aircraft, "pitch to airspeed," and apply maximum power. Maintian, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed indications.

145. Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane?. Increased stall speed. Increased pitchdown tendencies. Increased angle of attack for stalls.

146. Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of a wing can. reduce lift by as much as 40 percent and increase drag by 30 percent. increase drag and reduce lift by as much as 40 percent. reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent.

147. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and. increased thrust. a decreased stall speed. an increased stall speed.

148. Which is a disadvantage of the one-step over the two-step process when deicing/anti-icing an airplane?. It is more complicated. The holding time is increased. More fluid is used with the one-step method when large deposits of ice and snow must be flushed off airplane surfaces.

149. The purpose of diluting ethylene glycol deicing fluid with water in non precipitation conditions is to. raise the eutectic point. decrease the freeze point. increase the minimum freezing point (onset of crystallization).

150. Which procedure increases holding time when deicing/anti-icing an airplane using a two-step process?. Heated Type 1 fluid followed by cold Type 2 fluid. Cold Type 2 fluid followed by hot Type 2 fluid. Heated Type 1 or 2 fluid followed by cold Type 1 fluid.

151. Which of the following will decrease the holding time during anti-icing using a two-step process?. Apply heated Type 2 fluid. Decrease the water content. Increase the viscosity of Type 1 fluid.

152. What should the deice/anti-ice fluid temperature be during the last step of a two-phase process?. Hot. Warm. Cold.

153. What is the minimum glycol content of Type 1 deicing/anti-icing fluid?. 30%. 50%. 80%.

154. What is the minimum glycol content of Type 2 deicing/anti-icing fluid?. 30%. 50%. 80%.

155. Anti-icing fluid should provide freezing point protection to. minus 20oF ambient temperature. 32oF outside temperature or below. a freezing point no greater than 20oF below the ambient or airplane surface temperature.

156. Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluids used for deicing. provide ice protection during flight. are intended to provide ice protection on the ground only. on the ground cause no performace degradation during takeoff.

157. Snow on top of deicing or anti-icing fluids. need not be considered as adhering to the aircraft. must be considered as adhering to the aircraft. must be considered as adhering to the aircraft, but a safe takeoff can be made as it will blow off.

158. Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluids are highly soluble in water; however,. ice is slow to absorb it but fast to melt when in contact with FPD. ice absorbs it very fast but is slow to melt when in contact with it. ice is slow to absorb it, and to melt when in contact with it.

159. Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluid residue on engine fan or compressor blades. can increase preformance and cause stalls or surges. could cause FDP vapors to enter the aircraft but would have no affect on engine thrust or power. can reduce engine performance and cause surging and/or compressor stalls.

160. The practice developed and accepted by the North American air carrier industry using traditional North American fluids is to ensure that the freeze point of the remaining film is below ambient temperature by at least. 10oF. 20oF. 20oC.

161. What is a feature of supercooled water?. The water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0oC until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates.

162. What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight?. Supercooled water drops. Water vapor. Visible water.

163. Which type of icing is associated with the samllest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds?. Clear ice. Frost ice. Rime ice.

164. Freezing rain encountered during climb is normally evidence that. a climb can be made to a higher altitude without encountering more than light icing. a layer of warmer air exists above. ice pellets at higher altitudes have changed to rain in the warmer air below.

165. Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present?. Wet snow. Freezing rain. Ice pallets.

166. What condition is indicated when ice pellets are encountered during flight?. Thunderstorms at higher levels. Freezing rain at higher levels. Snow at higher levels.

167. What temperature condition is indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight: The temperature is above freezing at flight altitude. The temperature is above freezing at higher altitudes. There is an inversion with colder air below.

168. Which conditions result in the formation of frost?. The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing and small dorplets of moisture are falling. Dew collects on the surface and then freezes because the surface temperature is lower than the air temperature. Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint and the dewpoint is also below freezing.

169. When will frost most likely form on aircraft surfaces?. On clear nights with stable air and light winds. On overcast nights with freezing drizzle precipitation. On clear nights with convective action and a small temperature/ dewpoint spread.

170. The pilot in command of an airplane en route determines that icing conditions can be expected that might adversely affect safety of the flight. Which action is appropriate?. The pilot in command may continue to the original destination airport, after climbing to a higher altitude. The pilot in command shall not continue flight into the icing conditions. The flight may continue to the original destination airport, provided all anti-icing and de-icing equipment is operational and is used.

171. What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane?. Sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off.

172. A pretakeoff contamination check for snow, ice or frost is required by FAR Part 135. this check is required to. be made within 2 minutes of starting the takeoff roll. be completed within 5 minutes prior to beginning the takeoff. see that the aircraft is clean, therefore, a safe takeoff can be made during the next 5 minutes.

173. Deicing procedures and equipment developed for large transport airplanes. will not be appropriate for the smaller aircraft, used under FAR Part 135. will be appropriate for all of the smaller aircraft, used under FAR Part 135. may not be appropriate for some of the smaller aircraft, used under FAR Part 135.

174. What type turbulence should be reported when it causes slight, rapid, and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness without appreciable changes in attitude or altitude, less than one-third of the time?. Occasional light chop. Moderate turbulence. Moderate chop.

175. What type turbulence should be reported when it causes changes in altitude and/or attitude more than two-thirds of the time, with the aircraft remaining in positive control at all times?. Continuous severe chop. Continuous moderate turbulence. Intermittent moderate turbulence.

176. What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time?. Occasional light chop. Moderate chop. Intermittent light turbulecne.

177. Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as. convective turbulence. high altitude turbulence. clear air turbulence.

178. Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence?. NImbostratus. Standing lenticular. Cirrocumulus.

179. What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave?. Rotor cloud. Standing lenticular. Low stratus.

180. Clear air turbulence (CAT) associated with a mountain wave may extend as far as. 1,000 miles or more downstream of the mountain. 5,000 feet above the tropopause. 100 miles or more upwind of the mountain.

181. What is a likely location of clear air turbulences?. In an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream.

182. Which type jetstream can be expected to cause the greater turbulence?. A straight jetstream associated with a high pressure ridge. A jetstream associated with a wide isotherm spacing. A curving jetstream associated with a deep low pressure trough.

183. Which action is recommended if jetstream turbulence is encountered with a direct headwind or tailwind?. Increase airspeed to get out of the area quickly. Change course to fly on the polar side of the jetstream. Change altitude or course to avoid a possible elongate turbulent area.

184. Which action is recommended regarding an altitude change to get out of jetstream turbulence?. Descend if ambient temperature is falling. Descend if ambient temperature is rising. Maintain altitude if ambient temperature is not changing.

185. What action is recommended when encountering turbulence due to a wind shift associated with a sharp pressure trough?. Establish a course across the trough. Climb or descend to a smoother level. Increase speed to get out of the trough as soon as possible.

186. Which arctic flying hazard is caused when a cloud layer of uniform thickness overlies a snow or ice covered surface?. Ice fog. Whiteout. Blowing snow.

187. Which weather condition is present when the tropical storm is upgraded to a hurricane?. Highest windspeed, 100 knots or more. A clear area or hurrican eye has formed. Sustained winds of 65 knots or more.

188. What is the general direction of movement of a hurricane located in the Carribean or Gulf of Mexico region?. Northwesterly curving to northeasterly. Westerly, until encountering land, then easterly. Counterclockwise over open wate, then dissipating outward over land.

189. (Refer to chart 1.) What was the METAR local Central Standard Time of the Aviation Routine Weather Report at Taiwan Taoyuan International Airport(RCTP)?(如圖 A43_chart1). 00:00 UTC. 08:00 UTC. 00:00 LT.

190. (Refer to chart 1.) What type of report is listed for Kadena (RODN) at 25/ 2255Z ?(如圖A43_chart1). An Aviation selected special weather report. A special report concerning very low station pressure. A routine weather report.

191. (Refer to chart 1.) What condition is reported at Taichung Ching Chuang-Kang Airport(RCMQ)?(如圖A43_chart1). Mist (BR), the visibility is 5 kilometers. Heavy rain showers began 42 minutes after the hour. The ceiling is solid overcast at an estimated 1,800 feet above sea level.

192. (Refer to chart 1.) What condition is reported at Narita Airport(RJAA)) (如 圖A43_chart1). The tops of the overcast is 10,000 feet. Temperature/ dewpoint spread is 8oF. Altimeter setting is 999 hPa.

193. METAR KSPS 131757Z 09014KT 6SM -RA SCT025 OVC090 24/22 A3005. SPECI KSPS 131820Z 01025KT 3SM +RA FC OVC015 22/21 A3000. Which change took place at Wichita Falls (KSPS) between 1757 and 1820 UTC?. The rain became lighter. Atmospheric pressure increased. A funnel cloud was observed.

194. The prevailing visibility in the following METAR is? METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV004 06/05 A2989 RMK AO2 $. less than 1/4 statute mile. measured 1/4 statute mile. a mean (average) of 1/4 statute mile.

195. Which primary source contains information regarding the expected weather at the destination airport, at the ETA?. Low-Level Prog Chart. Radar Summary and Weather Depiction Charts. Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.

196. Weather conditions expected to occur in the vicinity of the airport, but not at the airport, are denoted by the letters "VC". When VC appears in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast, it covers a geographical area of. a 8 to 16 statute kilometer radius from the airport. a 8-kilometer radius of the center of a runway complex. 16 kilometers of the station originating the forecast.

197. What weather is predicted by the term VCTS in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast?. Thunderstorms are expected in the vicinity. Thunderstorms may occur over the station and within 50 miles of the station. Thunderstorms are expected between 5 and 25 miles of the runway complex.

198. Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast?. Altocumulus. Cumulonimbus. Stratocumulus.

199. A calm wind that is forecast, in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) is encoded as. VRB00KT. 00000KT. 00003KT.

200. In the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF), a variable wind direction is noted by "VRB" where the three digit direction usually appears. A calm wind appears in the TAF as. 00003KT. VRB00KT. 00000KT.

201. What is the single source reference that contains information regarding volcanic eruption, turbulence, and icing conditions for a specific region?. Weather Depiction Chart. In-Flight Weather Advisories. Area Forecast.

202. Constant Pressure Analysis Charts contain contours, isotherms and some contain isotachs. The contours depict. ridges, lows, troughs and high aloft. ridges, lows, troughs and ridges on the surface. ridges, lows, troughs and ridges corrected to MSL.

203. Vertical wind shear can be determined by comparing winds on vertically adjacent constant pressure charts. The vertical wind shear that is critical for probability of turbulence is. 4 knots or greater per 1,000 feet. 6 knots or more per 1,000 feet. greater than 8 knots per 1,000 feet.

204. (Refer to chart 3) What approximate wind direction and speed are expected for ZGGG at 18,000 feet?(如圖A43_chart3). 260° true; 10 knots. 23° true; 6 knots. 235° magnetic; 6-16 knots.

205. (Refer to chart 3)What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) are expected for ZSSS at 29,000 feet?(如圖A43_chart3). 023° magnetic; 53 knots; 47°C. 300° true; 70 knots; -35°C. 235° true; 34 knots; -7°C.

206. Isobars on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure. at the surface. reduced to sea level. at a given atmospheric pressure altitude.

207. Under what conditions would clear air turbulence (CAT) most likely be encountered?. When constant pressure charts show 20-knot isotachs less than 60 NM apart. When constant pressure charts show 60-knot isotachs less than 20 NM apart. When a sharp trough is moving at a speed less than 20 knots.

208. A strong wind shear can be expected. on the low pressure side of a 100-knot jetstream core. where the horizontal wind shear is 15 knots, in a distance equal to 2.5o longitude. if the 5° C isotherms are spaced 100 NM or closer together.

209. (Refer to Figure 11.) What is the height of the 300-millibar level at the low pressure center in Canada?(如圖A43_figure11). 9,120 meters MSL. 18,000 meters MSL. 11,850 meters MSL.

210. (Refer to Figure 12.) What type weather system is approaching the California Coast from the west?(如圖A43_figure12). LOW. HIGH. Cold front.

211. (Refer to figure 9 ) The 12-Hour Significant Weather Prognostic Chart indicates that West Virginia will likely experience(如圖A43_figure9). continuous or showery precipitation covering half or more of the area. thunderstorms and rain showers covering half or more of the area. continuous rain covering less than half of the area.

212. (Refer to figure 9 ) The chart symbols over southern California on the 12-Hour Significant Weather Prognostic Chart indicate(如圖A43_figure9). expected top of moderate turbulence layer to be 12,000 feet MSL. expected base of moderate turbulence layer to be 12,000 feet MSL. light turbulence expected above 12,000 feet MSL.

213. If squalls are reported at the destination airport, what wind conditions existed at the time?. Sudden increases in windspeed of at least 15 knots, to a sustained wind speed of 20 knots, lasting for at least 1 minute. Sudden increases in windspeed of at least 16 knots, the speed rising to 22 knots or more for 1 minute or longer. Rapid variation in wind direction of at least 20o and changes in speed of at least 10 knots between peaks and lulls.

214. (Refer to Chart 4 ) Which system in the Convective SIGMET listing has the potential of producing the most severe storm?(如圖A43_chart4). The storms in Texas and Oklahoma. The storms in Colorado, Kansas, and Oklahoma. The isolated storm 50 miles northeast of Memphis (MEM).

215. (Refer to Chart 4 )What time period is covered by the outlook section of the Convective SIGMET?(如圖A43_chart4). 24 hours after the valid time. 2 to 6 hours after the valid time. No more than 2 hours after the valid time.

216. What sources reflect the most accurate information on current and forecast icing conditions?. Low-Level Sig Weather Prog Chart, RADATs, and the Area Forecast. PIREPs, Area Forecast, and the Freezing Level Chart. PIREPs, AIRMETs, and SIGMETs.

217. Which type of weather can only be directly observed during flight and then reported in a PIREP?. Turbulence and structural icing. Jestream-type winds and icing. Level of the tropopause and turbulence.

218. (Refer to figure 1) 'The turbulence located at N45W170 is (如圖A43_figure1). Light turbulence. Moderate turbulence. Severe turbulence.

219. (Refer to figure 1) 'What is the jet stream at N45W170t?(如圖A43_figure1). a jet stream with a maximum wind speed of 100kts at FL 280. a jet stream with a maximum wind speed of 110kts at FL 370. a jet stream with a maximum wind speed of 100kts at FL 360.

220. (Refer to figure 1)' When does the HIGH LEVEL SIGWX CHART become valid(如 圖A43_figure1). 2010 MAY 06 0000Z. 2010 MAY 07 1800Z. 2010 MAY 06 1200L(TPE).

221. (Refer to figure 1) 'The depiction N15E140 in figure 1 represents (如圖 A43_figure1). Turbulence at FL500. Ceiling at FL500. A tropopause height of FL500.

222. (Refer to figure 1) The chart in figure 1 encompasses airspace(如 A43_figure1). FL250 and below. FL250-FL630. All answers are correct.

223. (Refer to figure 1)' what is the ceiling of the CB located at N30E140 (如圖 A43_figure1). FL 250. FL 430. From sea level to FL 320.

224. (Refer to figure 1), in figure 1 at N42W125 represents(如圖A43_figure1). Light CAT. Moderate CAT. Severe CAT.

225. (Refer to figure 1)' , the height of the cloud at S10E110 is(如圖A43_figure1). FL 250. Sea level - FL 320. FL 530.

226. (Refer to figure 1), N40W130 represents(如圖A43_figure1). turbulence at FL360. jet stream at FL350 with maximum wind speed of 100kts. the moving direction of the cloud.

227. (Refer to figure 1)' , is there any information in this figure indicates light turbulence(如圖A43_figure1). No indication of light turbulence. Light turbulence at N40E164. Both answers are wrong.

228. (Refer to figure 1)' , S25E160 at which flight level will the turbulence to occur (如圖A43_figure1). FL250-FL450. FL350-FL470. FL250-FL500.

229. (Refer to figure 2)' , under standard atmosphere, at which flight level will 200hpa be?(如圖A43_figure2). FL350. FL390. FL200.

230. According to figure 3,the SIGNIFICANT WEATHER PROGNOSTIC CHART figure 3, what kind of significant weather will the flight from RCTP toZSQD encounter?(如圖 A43_figure3). Moderate icing. Moderate turbulence. Severe icing. Severe turbulence.

231. According to the figure 3'What is the altitude range of the cloud heights above ROAH ?(如圖A43_figure3). between 240 and 360hPa. between 240 and 360mm. between 10,000 meters and 25,000 meters. between FL 100 and 250.

232. According to the figure 3,'the ISOL CB encountered in the previous question means:(如圖A43_figure3). cumulonimbus clouds spread up in line. cumulonimbus cover all the mark area. isolated cumulonimbus. cumulonimbus weakening.

233. Refer to the 300 hPa PROGNOSTIC CHART provided in figure 4, which flight level will be related to this figure in general?(如圖A43_figure4). FL400. FL 350. FL 300. FL 250.

234. Refer to the significant weather prognostic chart in figure 5 , what is the ceiling of the CB in the topical cyclone to the east of Philippines?(如圖 A43_figure5). FL 540. FL 500. FL 490.

235. Refer to the figure 5, the moving direction and speed of this tropical cyclone is (如圖A43_figure5). W 5KT. NW 10KT. NW 5KT.