ATPL A42 Q-BANK

1. The maximum indicated airspeed that an aircraft may be flown in Class B airspace, after departing the primary airport, while at 1,700 feet AGL and 3.5 nautical miles from the airport is. 200 knots. 230 knots. 250 knots.

2. What service are provided for aircraft operating within Class C airspace?. Sequencing of arriving aircraft, separation of aircraft(except between VFR aircraft), and traffic advisories. Sequencing of arriving aircraft, separation of aircraft(except VFR aircraft), separation between all aircraft, and traffic advisories. Sequencing of arriving aircraft, separation between all aircraft, and traffic advisories.

3. What service are provided for aircraft operating within the outer area of Class C airspace?. The same as within Class C airspace when communications and radar contact is established. Radar vectors to and from secondary airports within the outer area. Basic radar service only when communications and radar contact is established.

4. Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines are. white in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway. yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway. yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway.

5. When instructed by ATC to "Hold short of a runway(ILS critical area, etc.)" the pilot should stop. with the nose gear on the hold line. so that no part of the aircraft extends beyond with the hold line. so the deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line.

6. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway.You are considered clear of runway when. the aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign. the flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line. all parts of the aircraft have crossed the hold line.

7. Holding position signs have. white inscriptions on a red background. red inscriptions on a white background. yellow inscriptions on a red background.

8. The "runway hold position" sign denotes. intersecting runways. an entrance to runway from a taxiway. an area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway.

9. Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have. yellow inscriptions on a black background. white inscriptions on a black background. black inscriptions on a yellow background.

10. Identity runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems. Amber lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then alternate red and white lights to the end. Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then red lights to the end. Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to the end of the runway.

11. Identity the runway distance remaining markers. Signs with increment of 1,000 feet distance remaining. Red markers lately placed across the runway at 3,000 feet from the end. Yellow marker laterally placed across the runway with signs on the side denoting distance to end.

12. Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL). Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline. Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the touchdown zone. Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the threshold through the touchdown zone.

13. What is the purpose of REIL?. Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting. Identification of a touchdown zone to prevent landing short. Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach.

14. (refer to figure 1 )this is an example of(如圖A42_Fig1). an ILS Critical area holding Position Sign. a runway Boundary Sign. an ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign.

15. (refer to figure 2 )What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?(如圖A42_Fig2). 1,000 ft. 1,500 ft. 2,000 ft.

16. (refer to figure 3 )What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?(如圖A42_Fig3). 2,000 ft. 2,500 ft. 3,000 ft.

17. (refer to figure 3 )What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?(如圖A42_Fig3). 2,500 ft. 2,000 ft. 1,500 ft.

18. (refer to figure 3 )What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?(如圖A42_Fig3). 500 ft. 1,000 ft. 1,500 ft.

19. (refer to figure 3 )What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?(如圖A42_Fig3). 1,000 ft. 2,000 ft. 2,500 ft.

20. (refer to figure 4 )What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?(如圖A42_Fig4). 3,000 ft. 2,500 ft. 1,500 ft.

21. (refer to figure 4 )What is the runway distance remaining at "E" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?(如圖A42_Fig4). 1,500 ft. 2,000 ft. 2,500 ft.

22. (refer to figure 4 )What is the runway distance remaining at "F" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?(如圖A42_Fig4). 2,000 ft. 1,500 ft. 1,000 ft.

23. (refer to figure 4 )What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?(如圖A42_Fig4). 2,000 ft. 3,000 ft. 3,500 ft.

24. (refer to figure 4 )What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?(如圖A42_Fig4). 1,000 ft. 1,500 ft. 1,800 ft.

25. (refer to figure 4 )What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?(如圖A42_Fig4). 1,000 ft. 2,000 ft. 2,500 ft.

26. Identify REIL. Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.

27. How can a pilot identify a military airport at night?. Green, yellow, and white beacon light. White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white. Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white.

28. How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night?. Green, yellow, and white beacon light. White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white. Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white.

29. What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI?. Pilots have a choice of glide angles. A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft. The three-bar VASI is much more visible and can be used at a greater height.

30. The higher glide slope of the three-bar VASI is intended for use by. high performance aircraft. helicopters. high cockpit aircraft.

31. A pilot of a high performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeper-than-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in. a hard landing. increase landing rollout. landing short of the runway threshold.

32. What does the tri-color VASI consist of. Three light bars; red,green, and amber. One light projector with three colors; red, green, and amber. Three glide slopes, each a different color; red, green, and amber.

33. Which color on a tri-color VASI is a "high" indication?. Red. Amber. Green.

34. Which color on a tri-color VASI is an "on course" indication?. Red. Amber. Green.

35. Which color on a tri-color VASI is an "low" indication?. Red. Amber. Green.

36. What is the normal range of the tri-color VASI at night?. 5 miles. 10 miles. 15 miles.

37. What are the indications of precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)?. High-white, on glidepath-red and white; low-red. High-white, on glidepath-green and white; low-red. High-white and green, on glidepath-green; low-red.

38. Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: of an intersecting runway only. of some designated point on the runway. only of an intersecting runway or taxiway.

39. A Land and Hold Short Operation (LAHSO) clearance, that the pilot accepts: must be adhered to. does not preclude a reject landing. precludes a rejected landing.

40. What is the one limitation when filing a random RNAV route on an IFR flight plan?. The waypoints must be located within 200 NM of each other. The entire route must be in radar environment. The waypoints, only be defined by degree-distance fixes based on appropriate navigational aids.

41. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an arrival turbojet aircraft operating below FL150?. 200 knots. 220 knots. 250 knots.

42. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet aircraft departing an airport?. 188 knots. 210 knots. 230 knots.

43. When is DME required for an instrument flight?. At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required. In terminal radar service areas. Above 12,500 feet MSL.

44. The visibility criteria for a particular instrument approach procedure is RVR 4,000 feet. What minimum ground visibility may be substituted for the RVR value?. 5/8 sm. 3/4 sm. 7/8 sm.

45. The prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 3000 ft for the runway of intended operation is not reported. What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of RVR value?. 3/8 sm. 5/8 sm. 3/4 sm.

46. What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of a prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 1600 ft when that RVR value is not reported?. 1/4 sm. 3/4 sm. 3/8 sm.

47. Assuming that all ILS components are operating and the required visual reference are nor acquired, the missed approach should be initiated upon. arrival at the DH on the glide slope. arrival at the visual descent point. expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach.

48. What action should be taken when a pilot is "cleared for approach " while being radar vectored on an unpublished route?. Descend to minimum vector altitude. Remain at last assigned altitude until established on a published route segment. Descend to initial approach fix altitude.

49. If being radar vectored to the final approach course of a published instrument approach that specifies "NO PT," the pilot should. advise ATC that a procedure turn will not be execute. not execute the procedure turn unless specifically cleared to do so by ATC. execute a holding-pattern type procedure turn.

50. What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when cleared for an ILS approach? The pilot. may begin a descent to the procedure turn altitude. must maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a published route or segment of the approach with published altitudes. may descend from the assigned altitude only when established on the final approach course.

51. When must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS approach?. At the DH when the runway is not clearly visible. When the time has expired after reaching the DH and the runway environment is not clearly visible. At the DH, if the visual reference for the intended runway are not distinctly visible or anytime thereafter the visual reference is lost.

52. When may ATC request a detailed report on an emergency even through a rule has not been violated?. When priority has been given. Anytime an emergency occurs. When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.

53. What is the maximum indicated airspeed an aircraft may be operated below 10,000 ft within Class B airspace?. 180 knots. 230 knots. 250 knots.

54. What is the maximum indicated airspeed a turbine powered aircraft may be operated below 10,000 feet MSL?. 288 knots. 250 knots. 230 knots.

55. If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, what action(s) should the pilot take?. Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway until established on the missed approach course. Turn toward the landing runway maintaining MDA, and if visual reference is not regained, perform missed approach. Make a climbing turn toward the VOR/NDB, and request further instructions.

56. What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit?. Time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. Time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed. Time, altitude/flight level, expected holding speed, and inbound leg length.

57. When using a flight director system, what rate of turn or bank angle should a pilot observe during turns in a holding pattern?. 3° per second or 25° bank, whichever is less. 3° per second or 30° bank, whichever is less. 1-1/2° per second or 25° bank, whichever is less.

58. When holding at an NDB, at what point should the timing begin for the second leg outbound?. Abeam the holding fix or when the wings are level after completing the turn to the outbound heading, whichever occurs first. At the end of a 1-minute standard rate turn after station passage. When abeam the holding fix.

59. What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?. Two-way communications. Two-way communications and transponder. Transponder and DME.

60. What services are provided for aircraft operating within Class C airspace?. Sequencing of arriving aircraft, separation of aircraft (except between VFR aircraft), and traffic advisories. Sequencing of arriving aircraft (except VFR aircraft), separation between all aircraft, and traffic advisories. Sequencing of all arriving aircraft, separation between all aircraft, and traffic advisories.

61. What is the purpose of MOAs?. To protect military aircraft operations from civil aircraft. To separate military training activities from IFR traffic. To separate military training activities from both IFR and VFR traffic.

62. Who is responsible for collision avoidance in an MOA?. Military controllers. ATC controllers. Each pilot.

63. When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?. On tower frequency. On approach control frequency. One pilot on tower frequency and the other on approach control frequency.

64. When cleared to execute a published side-step maneuver, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?. At the published DH. At the MDA published or a circling approach. As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.

65. When simultaneous ILS approaches are in progress, which of the following should approach control be advised of immediately?. Any inoperative or malfunctioning aircraft receivers. If a simultaneous ILS approach is desired. If radar monitoring is desired to confirm lateral separation.

66. Under what condition may a pilot cancel an IFR flight plan prior to completing the flight?. Anytime it appears the clearance will cause a deviation from FARs. Anytime within controlled airspace by contacting ARTCC. Only if in VFR conditions in other than Class A airspace.

67. What minimum information does an abbreviated departure clearance 'cleared as filed' include?. Clearance limit and en route altitude. Clearance limit, en route altitude, and SID, if appropriate. Destination airport, en route altitude, and SID, if appropriate.

68. Under what condition does a pilot receive a 'void time' specified in the clearance?. On an uncontrolled airport. When 'gate hold' procedures are in effect. If the clearance is received prior to starting engines.

69. What action should a pilot take if asked by ARTCC to 'VERIFY 9,000' and the flight is actually maintaining 8,000?. Immediately climb to 9,000. Report climbing to 9,000. Report maintaining 8,000.

70. Where are position reports required on an IFR flight on airways or routes?. Over all designated compulsory reporting points. Only where specifically requested by ARTCC. When requested to change altitude or advise of weather conditions.

71. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment?. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, average TAS exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average TAS exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point.

72. Which reports are always required when on an IFR approach not in radar contact?. Leaving FAF inbound or outer marker inbound and missed approach. Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker inbound or outbound, and missed approach. Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker inbound or outbound, procedure turn outbound and inbound, and visual contact with the runway.

73. Pilots should notify controllers on initial contact that they have received the ATIS broadcast by?. stating 'Have Numbers'. stating 'Have Weather'. repeating the alphabetical code word appended to the broadcast.

74. What is the suggested time interval for filing and requesting an IFR flight plan?. File at least 30 minutes prior to departure and request the clearance not more than 10 minutes prior to taxi. File at least 30 minutes prior to departure and request the clearance at least 10 minutes prior to taxi. File at least 1 hour prior to departure and request the clearance at least 10 minutes prior to taxi.

75. How should the route of flight be defined on an IFR flight plan?. A simplified route via airways or jet routes with transitions. A route via airways or jet routes with VORs and fixes used. A route via airways or jet routes with only the compulsory reporting points.

76. How should an off-airway direct flight be defined on an IFR flight plan?. The initial fix, the true course, and the final fix. All radio fixes over which the flight will pass. The initial fix, all radio fixes which the pilot wishes to be compulsory reporting points, and the final fix.

77. What is the primary purpose of a STAR?. Provide separation between IFR and VFR traffic. Simplify clearance delivery procedures. Decrease traffic congestion at certain airports.

78. When does ATC issue a STAR?. Only when ATC deems it appropriate. Only to high priority flights. Only upon request of the pilot.

79. What action(s) should a pilot take if vectored across the final approach course during an IFR approach?. Continue on the last heading issued until otherwise instructed. Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course. Turn onto final, and broadcast in the blind that the flight has proceeded on final.

80. While being vectored to the final approach course of an IFR approach, when may the pilot descend to published altitudes?. Anytime the flight is on a published leg of an approach chart. When the flight is within the 10-mile ring of a published approach. Only when approach control clears the flight for the approach.

81. When is radar service terminated while vectored for an IFR approach at an uncontrolled airport?. Only upon landing or advised to change to advisory frequency. When aligned on the final approach course. When cleared for the approach.

82. When cleared for an IFR approach to an uncontrolled airport with no FSS, what precaution should the pilot take after being advised to change to advisory frequency?. Monitor ATC for traffic advisories as well as UNICOM. Broadcast position and intentions on the Common Traffic Advisory Frequency and monitor the frequency. Wait until visual contact is made with the airport and then broadcast position and intentions to land on UNICOM.

83. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport?. Continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency. Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise. Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines.

84. What is the pilot's responsibility for clearance or instruction readback?. Except for SIDs, read back altitude assignments, altitude restrictions, and vectors. If the clearance or instruction is understood, an acknowledgment is sufficient. Read back the entire clearance or instruction to confirm the message is understood.

85. To assure expeditious handling of a civilian air ambulance flight, the word "LIFEGUARD" should be entered in which section of the flight plan?. Aircraft type/special equipment block. Pilot's name and address block. Remarks block.

86. How should a pilot describe braking action?. 00 percent, 50 percent, 75 percent, or 100 percent. Zero-zero, fifty-fifty, or normal. Poor, fair, or good.

87. Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is. an airborne radar system for monitoring approaches to two runways. a radar system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways. a high update rate radar system for monitoring multiple aircraft to a single runway.

88. Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority?. When cleared for an IFR approach. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft. In turn, on a first-come, first-serve basis.

89. If ATC requests a speed adjustment that is not within the operating limits of the aircraft, what action must the pilot take?. Maintain an airspeed within the operating limitations as close to the requested speed as possible. Attempt to use the requested speed as long as possible, then request a reasonable airspeed from ATC. Advise ATC of the airspeed that will be used.

90. When must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS approach?. At the DH when the runway is not clearly visible. When the time has expired after reaching the DH and the runway environment is not clearly visible. At the DH, if the visual references for the intended runway are not distinctly visible or anytime thereafter that visual reference is lost.

91. If being radar vectored to the final approach course of a published instrument approach that specifies 'NO PT,' the pilot should. advise ATC that a procedure turn will not be executed. not execute the procedure turn unless specifically cleared to do so by ATC. execute a holding-pattern type procedure turn.

92. Assuming that all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not acquired, the missed approach should be initiated upon. arrival at the DH on the glide slope. arrival at the visual descent point. expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach.

93. What action should be taken when a pilot is 'cleared for approach' while being radar vectored on an unpublished route?. Descend to minimum vector altitude. Remain at last assigned altitude until established on a published route segment. Descend to initial approach fix altitude.

94. Under which condition, if any, may a pilot descend below DH or MDA when using the ALSF-1 approach light system as the primary visual reference for the intended runway?. Under no condition can the approach light system serve as a necessary visual reference for descent below DH or MDA. Descent to the intended runway is authorized as long as any portion of the approach light system can be seen. The approach light system can be used as a visual reference, except that descent below 100 feet above TDZE requires that the red light bars be visible and identifiable.

95. What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when cleared for an ILS approach? The pilot. may begin a descent to the procedure turn altitude. must maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a published route or segment of the approach. may descend from the assigned altitude only when established on the final approach course.

96. When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply?. The IFR alternate minimums. 2000-3 for at least 1 hour before until 1 hour after the ETA. The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart for the airport.

97. What action should a pilot take when a clearance is received from ATC that appears to be contrary to a regulation?. Read the clearance back in its entirety. Request a clarification from ATC. Do not accept the clearance.

98. When cleared to execute a published side-step maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?. At the published minimum altitude for a circling approach. As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight. At the localizer MDA minimums and when the runway is in sight.

99. An ATC 'instruction'. is the same as an ATC 'clearance.'. is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action. must be 'read back' in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming effective.

100. Aircraft navigating by GPS are considered, on the flight plan, to be. RNAV equipped. Astrotracker equipped. FMS/EFIS equipped.

101. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off. prior to the point where the jet touched down. beyond the point where the jet touched down. at the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway.

102. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status?. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.

103. What does the term 'minimum fuel' imply to ATC?. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur.

104. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts?. When collision with another aircraft is imminent. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity.

105. What is the hijack code?. 7200. 7500. 7777.

106. Which range of codes should a pilot avoid switching through when changing transponder codes?. 0000 through 1000. 7200 and 7500 series. 7500, 7600, and 7700 series.

107. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported?. Light and variable. Wind shear. Frontal passage.

108. What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency?. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs.

109. Which observed target aircraft would be of most concern with respect to collision avoidance?. One which appears to be ahead and moving from left to right at high speed. One which appears to be ahead and moving from right to left at slow speed. One which appears to be ahead with no lateral or vertical movement and is increasing in size.

110. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength?. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down.

111. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is. developing lift. operating at high airspeeds. using high power settings.

112. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to. sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began.

113. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should. lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flightpath. climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flightpath. remain below the flightpath of the jet airplane.

114. After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach?. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach proc. at the corrected ETA, + or - 3 minutes. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is later.

115. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken?. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance.

116. A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. What altitude should be used?. Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest. An altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route. A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg.

117. Each pilot, who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory, is expected to notify ATC and. maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. request a new ATC clearance. expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory, after the conflict is resolved.

118. Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining. who was responsible for any accident or incident. evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action. possible causes of accidents or incidents.

119. What does the Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of?. Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white, and green. Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white. One light projector with two colors; red and white.

120. What is the resulting performance loss when one engine on a twin engine fails?. Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50 percent. Reduction of climb by 50 percent or more. Reduction of all performance by 50 percent.

121. What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on groundspeed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airplane weight?. Higher than at low elevation. Lower than at low elevation. The same as at low elevation.

122. What should a pilot do to maintain 'best range' airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered?. Increase speed. Maintain speed. Decrease speed.

123. A definition of the term 'viscous hydroplaning' is where. the airplane rides on standing water. a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber.

124. Which term describes the hydroplaning which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction?. Reverted rubber hydroplaning. Dynamic hydroplaning. Viscous hydroplaning.

125. What characterizes a transient compressor stall?. Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering. Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine. Intermittent 'bang,' as backfires and flow reversals take place.

126. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for turbojet aircraft?. Immediately after ground contact. Immediately prior to touchdown. After applying maximum wheel braking.

127. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff?. Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. Lower-than-standard air density. Increased headwind component.

128. An alternate airport for departure is required. if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. when the weather forecast at the ETD is for landing minimums only at the departure airport. when destination weather is marginal VFR (ceiling less than 3,000 feet and visibility less than 5 SM).

129. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplanes?. 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with both engines operating. 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating.

130. If a four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport?. Not more than 2 hours at cruise speed with one engine inoperative. Not more than 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative. Not more than 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

131. Under what conditions may an air carrier pilot continue an instrument approach to the DH, after receiving a weather report indicating that less than minimum published landing conditions exist at the airport?. If the instrument approach is conducted in a radar environment. When the weather report is received as the pilot passes the FAF. When the weather report is received after the pilot has begun the final approach segment of the instrument approach.

132. Below what altitude, except when in cruise flight, are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crewmembers prohibited?. 10,000 ft. 14,500 ft. FL 180.

133. With regard to flight crewmember duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the 'critical phase of flight'?. Taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet MSL, including cruise flight. Descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. Taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet, excluding cruise flight.

134. What action should a pilot take if within 3 minutes of a clearance limit and further clearance has not been received?. Assume lost communications and continue as planned. Plan to hold at cruising speed until further clearance is received. Start a speed reduction to holding speed in preparation for holding.

135. The pilot in command of an airplane en route determines that icing conditions can be expected that might adversely affect safety of the flight. Which action is appropriate?. The pilot in command may continue to the original destination airport, after climbing to a higher altitude. The pilot in command shall not continue flight into the icing conditions. The flight may continue to the original destination airport, provided all anti-icing and deicing equipment is operational and is used.

136. What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane?. Sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. Add 15 knots to the normal V(R) speed as the snow will blow off.

137. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?. Five minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 2 to 4 minutes. One microburst may continue for as long as an hour. Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.

138. Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as. 1,500 ft/min. 4,500 ft/min. 6,000 ft/min.

139. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of. 40 knots. 80 knots. 90 knots.

140. Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind?. Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases. Indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases. Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases.

141. Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and the sink rate to decrease?. Sudden decrease in a headwind component. Tailwind which suddenly increases in velocity. Sudden increase in a headwind component.

142. Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind?. Altitude increases; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase.

143. What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear?. Lower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed. Avoid overstressing the aircraft, 'pitch to airspeed,' and apply maximum power. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed indications.

144. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed?. Decreasing headwind or tailwind. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.

145. Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed?. Increasing tailwind and decreasing headwind. Increasing tailwind and headwind. Decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind.

146. Which is a definition of 'severe wind shear'?. Any rapid change of horizontal wind shear in excess of 25 knots; vertical shear excepted. Any rapid change in wind direction or velocity which causes airspeed changes greater than 15 knots or vertical speed changes greater than 500 ft/min. Any change of airspeed greater than 20 knots which is sustained for more than 20 seconds or vertical speed changes in excess of 100 ft/min.

147. Doppler wind measurements indicate that the windspeed change a pilot may expect when flying through the peak intensity of a microburst is approximately. 15 knots. 25 knots. 45 knots.

148. Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity?. Loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance. Decreased takeoff distance. Increased climb performance immediately after takeoff.

149. Thrust is being managed to maintain desired indicated airspeed and the glide slope is being flown. Which characteristics should be observed when a tailwind shears to a constant headwind?. PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases. VERTICAL SPEED: Increases. INDICATED AIRSPEED: Decreases, then increases to approach speed. PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases. VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases. INDICATED AIRSPEED: Increases, then decreases. PITCH ATTITUDE: Decreases. VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases. INDICATED AIRSPEED: Decreases, then increases to approach speed.

150. Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as. 8,000 ft/min. 7,000 ft/min. 6,000 ft/min.

151. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of. 40 knots. 80 knots. 90 knots.

152. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?. Two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute. One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours. Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.

153. What is a characteristic of the troposphere?. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles.

154. What is the primary cause of all changes in the Earth's weather?. Variations of solar energy at the Earth's surface. Changes in air pressure over the Earth's surface. Movement of air masses from moist areas to dry areas.

155. What characterizes a ground-based inversion?. Convection currents at the surface. Cold temperatures. Poor visibility.

156. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?. A stable layer of air. An unstable layer of air. Air mass thunderstorms.

157. When does minimum temperature normally occur during a 24-hour period?. After sunrise. About 1 hour before sunrise. At midnight.

158. Which area or areas of the Northern Hemisphere experience a generally east to west movement of weather systems?. Arctic only. Arctic and subtropical. Subtropical only.

159. Freezing rain encountered during climb is normally evidence that. a climb can be made to a higher altitude without encountering more than light icing. a layer of warmer air exists above. ice pellets at higher altitudes have changed to rain in the warmer air below.

160. What is an important characteristic of wind shear?. It is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms. It usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion. It may be associated with either a wind shift or a windspeed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.

161. What information from the control tower is indicated by the following transmission? 'SOUTH BOUNDARY WIND ONE SIX ZERO AT TWO FIVE, WEST BOUNDARY WIND TWO FOUR ZERO AT THREE FIVE.'. A downburst is located at the center of the airport. Wake turbulence exists on the west side of the active runway. There is a possibility of wind shear over or near the airport.

162. Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight?. Freezing rain. Clear air turbulence. Embedded thunderstorms.

163. Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence?. Nimbostratus. Standing lenticular. Cirrocumulus.

164. Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?. The appearance of an anvil top. The start of rain at the surface. Growth rate of the cloud is at its maximum.

165. What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?. Beginning of rain at the surface. Frequent lightning. Continuous updraft.

166. What is indicated by the term 'embedded thunderstorms'?. Severe thunderstorms are embedded in a squall line. Thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a stable air mass. Thunderstorms are obscured by other types of clouds.

167. Where do squall lines most often develop?. In an occluded front. Ahead of a cold front. Behind a stationary front.

168. Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found?. In front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell. Ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud. On all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell.

169. What action is recommended when encountering turbulence due to a wind shift associated with a sharp pressure trough?. Establish a course across the trough. Climb or descend to a smoother level. Increase speed to get out of the trough as soon as possible.

170. In comparison to an approach in a moderate headwind, which is an indication of a possible wind shear due to a decreasing headwind when descending on the glide slope?. Less power is required. Higher pitch attitude is required. Lower descent rate is required.

171. Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present?. Wet snow. Freezing rain. Ice pallets.

172. Which action is recommended if jetstream turbulence is encountered with a direct headwind or tailwind?. Increase airspeed to get out of the area quickly. Change course to fly on the polar side of the jetstream. Change altitude or course to avoid a possible elongated turbulent area.

173. Which action is recommended regarding an altitude change to get out of jetstream turbulence?. Descend if ambient temperature is falling. Descend if ambient temperature is rising. Maintain altitude if ambient temperature is not changing.

174. Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as. convective turbulence. high altitude turbulence. clear air turbulence.

175. What is a likely location of clear air turbulences?. In an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream.

176. Which primary source contains information regarding the expected weather at the destination airport, at the ETA?. Low-Level Prog Chart. Radar Summary and Weather Depiction Charts. Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.

177. Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast?. Altocumulus. Cumulonimbus. Stratocumulus.

178. What type turbulence should be reported when it causes slight, rapid, and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness without appreciable changes in attitude or altitude, less than one-third of the time?. Occasional light chop. Moderate turbulence. Moderate chop.

179. What type turbulence should be reported when it causes changes in altitude and/or attitude more than two-thirds of the time, with the aircraft remaining in positive control at all times?. Continuous severe chop. Continuous moderate turbulence. Intermittent moderate turbulence.

180. What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time?. Occasional light chop. Moderate chop. Intermittent light turbulence.

181. Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane?. Decreased stall speed. Decreased pitchup tendencies. Decreased angle of attack for stalls.

182. Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane?. Increased stall speed. Increased pitchdown tendencies. Increased angle of attack for stalls.

183. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aiaircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and. increased thrust. an increased stall speed. a decreased stall speed.

184. A calm wind that is forecast, in the International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF), is encoded as. VRB00KT. 00000KT. 00003KT.