ATPL A44 Q-BANK (GEN)

1. The emergency lights on a passenger-carrying airplane must be armed or turned on during. taxing,takeoff,cruise,and landing. taxing,takeoff,and landing. taxing,cruise,and landing.

2. If a passenger-carring landplane is required to have an automatic deploying escape slide system, when must this system be armed?. For taxi,takeoff,and landing. Only for takeoff,and landing. During taxi,takeoff,landing,and after ditching.

3. When may two persons share one approved safety belt in a lounge seat?. When one is an adult and one is a child under 3 years of age. Only during the en route flight. During all operations except the takeoff and landing portion of a flight.

4. An air carrier airplane must have an operating public address system if. has a seating capacity of 19 passengers. has a seating capacity for more than 19 passengers. weights more than 12,500 pounds.

5. A crewmember interphone system is required on which airplane?. A larger airplane. A turbojet airplane. An airplane with more than 19 passenger seats.

6. At which cabin pressure altitude must oxygen be provided for all passengers during the entire flight at those altitudes?. 20,000 feet. 13,000 feet. 10,000 feet.

7.What is the highest flight level that operations may be conducted without the pilot at the controls wearing and using an oxygen mask, while the other pilot is away from duty station?. FL 240. FL 250. Above FL 250.

8. A flight crewmember must be able to don and use a quick-donning oxygen mask within. 5 seconds. 10 seconds. 15 seconds.

9. How will the airspeed indicator react if the ram air input to the pitot head is blocked by ice, but the drain hole and static port are not?. Indication will drop to zero. Indication will rise to the top of the scale. Indication will remain constant but will increase in a climb.

10. What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice?. The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude. No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs and descents.

11. What should the deice/anti-ice fluid temperature be during the last step of a two-phase process?. Hot. Warm. Cold.

12. Which of the following will decrease the holding time during anti-ice using a two-step process?. Apply heated Type 2 fluid. Decrease the water content. Increase the viscosity of Type 1 fluid.

13. Which procedure increase holding time when deicing/anti-icing an airplane using a two-step process. Heated Type 1 fluid followed by cold Type 2 fluid. Cold Type 2 fluid followed by hot Type 2 fluid. Heated Type 1 or 2 fluid followed by cold Type 1 fluid.

14. Which is a disadvantage of the one-step over the two-step process when deicing/anti-icing an airplane?. It is more complicated. The holding time is increased. More fluid is used with the one-step method when large deposits of ice and snow must be flushed off airplane surfaces.

15. What is the minimum glycol content of Type 2 deicing/anti-icing fluid?. 30%. 50%. 80%.

16. What is the minimum glycol content of Type 1 deicing/anti-icing fluid?. 30%. 50%. 80%.

17. The purpose of diluting ethylene glycol deicing fluid with water in non precipitation conditions is to. raise the eutectic point. decrease the freeze point. increase the minimum freezing point.

18. Snow on top of deicing or anti-icing fluid. need not be considered as adhering to the aircraft. must be considered as adhering to the aircraft. must be considered as adhering to the aircraft, but a safe takeoff can be made as it will blow off.

19. Anti-icing fluid should provide freezing point protection to. -20 F ambient temperature. +32 F outside temperature or below. a freezing point no greater than 20F below the ambient or airplane surface temperature.

20. The practice developed and accepted by the North American air carrier industry using traditional North American fluid is to ensure that the freeze point of the remaining film is below ambient temperature by at least. 10F. 20F. 20C.

21. What is the effect of Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluid residue on engine fan or compressor blades?. It could cause FPD vapors to enter the aircraft but would have no effect on engine thrust or power. It can increase performance and cause stall or surges. It can reduce engine performance and cause surging and/or compressor stall.

22. Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluid used for deicing. provide ice protection during flight. are intended to provide ice protection on the ground only. on the ground, cause no performance degradation during takeoff.

23. The adverse effect of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and. increase thrust. a decreased stall speed. an increased stall speed.

24. Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane?. Increased stall speed. Increased pitchdown tendencies. No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs and descents.

25. Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane?. Decreased stall speed. Decreased pitchup tendencies. Decreased angle of attack for stall.

26. What effect, if any, landing at a higher-than-recommended touchdown speed have on hydroplaning?. No effect on hydroplaning, but increases landing roll. Reduces hydroplaning potential if heavy braking is applied. Increases hydroplaning potential regardless of braking.

27. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing?. Apply full main wheel braking only. Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly. Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage.

28. At what minimum speed will dynamic hydroplaning begin if a tire has an air pressure of 70 PSI?. 85 knots. 80 knots. 75 knots.

29. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI?. 90 knots. 96 knots. 110 knots.

30. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping?. Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases. Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown. Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines.

31. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for turbojet aircraft?. Immediately after ground contact. Immediately prior to touchdown. After applying maximum wheel braking.

32. What recovery would be appropriate in the event of compressor stall?. Reduce fuel flow, reduce angle of attack, and increase airspeed. Advance throttle, lower angel of attack, and reduce airspeed. Reduce throttle, reduce airspeed, increase angle of attack.

33. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage?. Intermittent "backfire" stall. Transient "backfire" stall. Steady, continuous flow reversal stall.

34. What indication that a compressor stall has developed and become steady?. Strong vibrations and loud roar. Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal. Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed.

35. What characterizes a transient compressor stall?. Loud, Steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering. Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine. Intermittent "bang", as backfires and flow reversals take place.

36. Minimum specific fuel consumption of the turboprop engine is normally available in which altitude range?. 10,000 feet to 25,000 feet. 25,000 feet to the tropopause. The tropopause to 45,000 feet.

37. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine?. Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power. Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease.

38. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of. turbine inlet temperature. shaft horsepower and jet thrust. propeller thrust only.

39. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is. limiting compressor speed. limiting exhaust gas temperature. limiting torque.

40. As outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will. increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air. remain the same since compressor of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure. decrease due to higher density altitude.

41. What effect, if any, does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine?. Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density. Thrust remain the same, but turbine temperature will be higher. Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air.

42. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance?. As air density decreases, thrust increases. As temperature increases, thrust increases. As temperature increases, thrust decreases.

43. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature?. Compressor discharge. Fuel spray nozzles. Turbine inlet.

44. If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected?. No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made. Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb. Constant indicated airspeed during descent.

45. Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluid are highly soluble in water; however,. ice is slow to absorb it but fast to melt when in contact with FPD. ice absorbs it very fast but is slow to melt when in contact with it. ice is slow to absorb it, and to melt when in contact with it.

46. Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluid residue on engine fan or compressor blades. can increase performance and cause stalls or surges. could cause FPD vapors to enter the aircraft but would have no effect on engine thrust or power. can reduce engine performance and cause surging and/or compressor stalls.

47. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan?. 1 month. 3 months. 12 months.

48. Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system?. All turbine-powered airplanes. Passenger- carrying turbine-powered airplanes only. Large turbine-powered airplanes only.

49. An airplane operated by a flag air carrier operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?. Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices. Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror. Survival kit for each passenger.

50. An airplane operated by a supplemental air carrier operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?. Survival kit for each passenger. Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices. Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror.

51. An airplane operated by a commercial operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?. A signal mirror and colored smoke flares. Survival kit for each passenger. An approved survival-type emergency locator transmitter.

52. What emergency equipment is required for a long range overwater flight operation?. A potable survival emergency locator transmitter for each liferaft. A pyrotechnic signaling device for each life preserve. A life preserve equipped with a survivor locator light, for each person on the airplane.

53. Life preservers required for overwater operations as stored. with easy reach of each passenger. under each occupant seat. within easy reach of each seated occupant.

54. How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of an accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight?. 60 days. 90 days. 30 days.

55. Who is directly responsible for determining the status of each mechanical irregularity previously entered in the aircraft maintenance log?. Aircraft dispatcher. Line maintenance supervisor. The next pilot in command.

56. Who is responsible for submitting a mechanical reliability report?. Each certificate holder. Director of maintenance at the facility that discovers the reportable condition. Chief inspector at the facility where the condition is found.

57. What is the reason for variation is geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade?. It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight. It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight. It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight.

58. Under normal operating conditions, which combination of MAP and RPM produce the most severe wear, fatigue, and damage to high performance reciprocating engines?. High RPM and low MAP. Low RPM and high MAP. High RPM and high MAP.

59. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines?. Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust.

60. Test data indicated that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of a wing can. reduce lift by as much as 40 percent and increase drag by 30 percent. increase drag and reduce lift by as much as 40 percent. reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent.

61. Why will the EPR indication increase falsely if the P(t) probe at the engine nose dome opening ices up?. The P(t) probe vent will act as a P(s) probe. Anti-ice air pressurizes the nose dome and the vent hole causing an increase in EPR. The reduced inlet area causes pressure to increase, and magnifies the influence of ram air pressure.

62. Which action should be completed immediately during the start sequence if the TIT attempts to exceed the temperature limit? Shut off the. fuel. starter. ignition.

63. Which is a means of controlling the fuel temperature on turbojet-powered airplanes?. Electrically heated fuel filters. Engine bleed air routed to a heat exchanger. Fuel filters heated by engine lubricating oil.

64. Entrained water in aviation turbine fuel is a hazard because of its susceptibility to freezing as it passes through the filters. Which is a common method of preventing this hazard?. Use of micromesh fuel strainers. Use of anti-icing fuel additives. Adding deicing fluid to the fuel.

65. What will cause the EPR indication to decrease falsely if the P(t) probe at the engine nose dome is iced closed?. The P(t) probe vent will act as a P(s) probe. Anti-ice air will pressurize the nose dome and the vent hole causing a decrease in EPR. The reduced inlet area causes pressure to increase, and magnifies the influence of ram air pressure.

66. Which engine instrument will indicate a higher than normal reading if the compressor has damage?. EPR. EGT or TIT. Oil pressure.

67. What condition will cause a false, high EPR indication, in flight or on the ground?. Bleed valve stuck open. Ice in the inlet pressure lines. Loose turbine discharge pressure lines.

68. What condition will cause a high EGT, W(f), and RPM with a normal EPR indication, at all power settings?. FOD. Bleed valve stuck open. Ice in the inlet pressure lines.

69. Fuel heaters should not be operated on takeoff, approach, or go-around because the. EPR will decrease significantly. engine may flameout from fuel vaporization. oil temperature will increase significantly as fuel temperatures rise within the oil cooler.

70. What may result from excessive operation of the fuel heater?. Increased fuel consumption. Heat damage to the fuel control. The fuel filter screen may melt.

71. When should manual fuel heaters normally be operated?. During takeoff, approach, or go-around. When ambient temperatures are below +32°F. When the fuel temperature approaches +32°F.

72. What may result if the manual fuel heater is operated excessively?. Vapor lock. A false increase in EPR. A significant increase in fuel consumption.

73. What is the event sequence for the continuous combustion cycle of a turbine engine?. Intake, compression, combustion, and exhaust. Intake, pressure, combustion, and acceleration. Compression, ignition, fuel, expansion and thrust.

74. The purpose of the engine diffuser is to. decrease the velocity and increase the static pressure of the air. prevent air piling up (choking) in the rear stages of the compressor. increase the velocity of the air going into the combustion chamber.

75. In a dual axial-flow compressor system the first stage turbine drives the. N(1) compressor. N(2) compressor. N(1) and N(2) compressors.

76. Which difference does engine pressure ratio measure?. Uncorrected compressor inlet pressure and turbine discharge pressure. Compressor inlet total pressure corrected for inlet duct loss and turbine discharge total pressure. Compressor outlet total pressure corrected for temperature and turbine discharge total pressure.

77. During starting, what should prevent the engine from driving a pneumatic Drive shaft shear point.starter to burst speed?. Drive shaft shear point. Sprag clutch assembly. Design of the starter turbine nozzle vanes which causes choking.

78. During engine start, closing of the start air valve may be verified by. engine RPM stabilizing at idle. air manifold pressure increasing slightly. air manifold pressure decreasing slightly.

79. Why are pneumatic starters used on most large turbine engines?. Less weight. Simple design requires no clutch. Air starters are mechanically more reliable than electrical starters.

80. How does compressor RPM affect the power output of a turbofan engine?. Power increases linearly with an increase in compressor speed. Efficiency increases when compressor blade tips reach Mach 1 or slightly higher. Compressor aerodynamics cause a nonlinear increase in power relative to compressor speed.

81. Which location has the highest gas pressure in a turbine engine?. Turbine outlet. Compressor outlet. Combustion chamber outlet.

82. Which is the most critical parameter for a turbine engine during starting?. Oil pressure. EGT. Starter engagement time.

83. Why should turbine engines normally be operated at idle for a period of time before shutdown?. The turbine case cools faster and may shrink down and seize the turbine blades. Rapid cooling of the compressor section may cause cracking of compressor blades. Temperature reduction and stabilization prevents a hot combustion chamber from igniting residual fuel.

84. The speed (RPM or percent) of the low pressure compressor of a dual compressor engine is referred to as. N1. N2. N3.

85. The two basic elements of the turbine section of a turbine engine are the. rotor and stator. bucket and expander. impeller and diffuser.

86. The purpose of the diffuser section in a turbine engine is to. convert pressure to velocity. increase pressure and reduce velocity. reduce pressure and increase velocity.

87. Which is the main advantage of an APU's centrifugal flow compressor?. High-pressure rise per stage. Low starting power requirements. Shorter than an axial compressor.

88. Dirty compressor blades may result in. Low RPM. Low EGT. High EGT.

89. If a turbine engine catches fire internally during the start cycle, what initial action should be taken?. Secure all switches and leave the airplane. Shut off the fuel and continue motoring the starter. Discharge CO(2) into the inlet duct while continuing to motor the engine.

90. What is the proper start sequence for a turbine engine?. Ignition, starter, then fuel. Starter, ignition, then fuel. Starter, fuel, then ignition.

91. While starting a turbine engine with an air starter, a hung start occurs before the starter disengages. Which procedure is correct?. Shut down the engine. Increase the air velocity to the starter. Slowly increase the power lever until the engine accelerates to idle.

92. What will happen if the oil filter on the engine becomes clogged?. The oil screen bypass will open and unfiltered oil will go directly to the engine. The oil pressure increase will cause the oil to bypass the primary filter and flow through the secondary filter. The oil will bypass the filter and flow to the hopper tank where carbon sludge and dirt particles are then collected before flowing to the engine.

93. What type of oxygen system is used for passengers?. Demand. Constant-flow. Diluter-demand.

94. Which type of oxygen system is the flight deck equipped with normally?. Constant-flow. Phase dilution. Diluter-demand.

95. Which temperature indicator, without applying a correction factor, predicates operation of in-flight engine anti-icing?. Ram air temperature (RAT). Total air temperature (TAT). Outside air temperature (OAT).

96. What is the most prevalent condition for engine icing?. High-engine speed in flight. Low-engine speed on the ground. High-engine speed on the ground.

97. When may rain repellent be applied to a windshield?. Prior to entering rain. After it starts raining. Whenever the windshield is dirty.

98. Which is a reason for heating cockpit windows?. Deicing. Prevent thermal shock. Bird-impact protection.

99. What should the deice/anti-ice fluid temperature be during the last step of a two-phase process?. Hot. Warm. Cold.

100. What should the temperature be for deicing fluid dispensed by a ground unit during a one-phase process?. Cold. Heated. Same as ambient.

101. Which is an advantage of a one-step over a two-step process when deicing/anti-icing an airplane?. It is quicker. The holding time is minimized. Less fluid is used with the one-step method when large deposits of ice and snow must be flushed off the airplane surfaces.

102. Which is a disadvantage of the one-step over the two-step process when deicing/anti-icing an airplane?. It is more complicated. The holding time is increased. More fluid is used with the one-step method when large deposits of ice and snow must be flushed off airplane surfaces.

103. A turbojet aircraft is equipped with heated inlet ducts and airfoil leading edges. When is this type of anti-icing system usually activated during flight?. It is operated continuously while in flight. At all times when the OAT is below freezing. Whenever icing conditions are first encountered or are expected to occur.

104. Which statement is correct when applying liquid rain repellent?. Begin application as soon as rain begins, to form a barrier between the rain and the windshield. Apply rain repellent first, then activate the windshield wipers to spread the repellent. The number of times the repellent is applied is determined by the intensity of the rain.

105. What safeguard should be taken when using mobile ground deice/anti-ice equipment?. Open the air-conditioning pack valves. Operate the airplane engines above idle to prevent flameout. Apply fluid to the lower door sills and the door bottoms prior to closing for flight.

106. When the cabin pressure regulator is operating in the differential mode, reference pressure is vented to the atmosphere by the. relief valve. isobaric metering valve. differential metering valve.

107. In a pressurized system, what is the purpose of the dump valve?. Relieve a negative pressure differential. Relieve all positive pressure from the cabin. Relieve any pressure in excess of maximum cabin differential.

108. The cabin pressure control setting has a direct effect upon the. compressor speed. outflow valve opening. pneumatic system pressure.

109. Which component of an airplane pressurization system prevents the cabin altitude from becoming higher than the airplane altitude?. Cabin rate of descent control. Negative pressure relief valve. Compression ratio limit switch.

110. If the cabin rate of climb is too great, how should the pressurization controls be adjusted?. Open the outflow valve slower. Close the outflow valve faster. Close the outflow valve faster.

111. How is cabin pressurization controlled?. The pressure valve regulates the air output of the compressor. The outflow valve dumps all air pressure in excess of the amount for which it is set. The inflow valve limits the amount of air to the cabin when a pressure equivalent to cabin altitude has been reached.

112. Which best describes cabin differential pressure?. The difference between ambient and internal air pressure. The difference between the cabin flight altitude pressure and MSL pressure. The difference between the cabin pressure controller setting and the actual cabin pressure.

113. Which component gives an indication of the rate of change in cabin altitude and what unit of measurement is used?. Pressure controller, PSI. Cabin vertical-velocity indicator, PSI. Cabin vertical-velocity indicator, feet per minute.

114. Which section of a turbine engine provides air for the pressurization and air-conditioning systems?. Intake. Compressor. Combustion.

115. Which component of an air-cycle cooling system undergoes a pressure and temperature drop of air during operation?. Expansion turbine. Primary heat exchanger. Refrigeration bypass valve.

116. Which components make up the basic air-cycle cooling system?. Heaters, coolers, and compressor. Ram air source, compressors, and engine bleeds. A source of compressed air, heat exchangers, and a turbine.

117. The air-cycle cooling system produces cold air by. passing heated air through a compressor. passing air through an expansion turbine and extracting heat energy. passing air through cooling coils that contain a volume of refrigerant.

118. Which cabin air-conditioning system utilizes a refrigerant to carry away cabin heat?. Air cycle. Vapor cycle. Evaporative cycle.

119. Which control systems for operating cabin pressurization use reference chamber air pressure within the controller to regulate the outflow valve?. Isobaric and differential. Unpressurized and pressurized controls. Ambient, differential, and maximum differential.

120. What type of electrolyte is contained in a lead-acid battery?. Boric acid. Sulfuric acid. Potassium hydroxide.

121. What are the characteristics of the electrolyte in a nickel-cadmium battery?. Noncorrosive. Much like household lye and will cause severe burns. Harmless compared to the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery.

122. What will neutralize the electrolyte from a nickel-cadmium battery?. Soap and water. Bicarbonate of soda. A solution of boric acid, vinegar, lemon juice, or some other mildly acid solution.

123. What is the purpose of a fuse-type current limiter?. Prevent overloads in low power circuits. Fast blow design prevents damage to sensitive circuits or equipment. Permit short periods of overload before the fuse link melts and breaks the circuit.

124. What is a purpose of enclosing wires or electrical units in metal?. Eliminates ground wires. Prevents the buildup of static discharges. Eliminates interference with radio reception.

125. What is residual voltage?. Voltage produced that is not in phase with the current. Voltage stored in the generator exciter output windings. Voltage produced by permanent magnets which starts the ac generator output.

126. What is the difference between a relay and a solenoid?. Relays have movable cores. Solenoids have movable cores. Relays are used as mechanical control devices.

127. What is the purpose of an electrical relay?. Controls remote, high current equipment items with a small switch. Prevents static buildup by connecting shock mounted equipment to ground. Engages starter gears, moves locking pins or other mechanical control devices.

128. What is an advantage of using 115 volts, 400-Hz alternating current?. The AC voltage may be changed easily by the use of rectifiers which reduces wire size and weight. Inductive reactance at high frequency increases current and more efficient power transmission. High-voltage AC motors are smaller and lighter than equivalent DC powered motors.

129. Why is it important that all electrical loads and power sources be turned off before connecting or disconnecting the battery?. To prevent discharging the battery. To prevent a spark from igniting explosive gas. To prevent power surges from spiking sensitive equipment.

130. What is the name for the visible discharge of static electricity from the airplane into the air?. Corona threshold. Saint Elmo's fire. Precipitation static.

131. If the airplane is equipped with a battery rated to deliver 45 amperes for 2.5 hours, what is the ampere-hour rating?. 90.0 ampere-hour. 18.0 ampere-hour. 112.5 ampere-hour.

132. Aircraft fuse capacities are rated in. volts. watts. amperes.

133. In aircraft electrical systems, automatic reset circuit breakers. are not used as circuit protective devices. are used in all circuits essential to safe operation of the aircraft. are found in locations where only temporary overloads are encountered.

134. What is an electrical relay?. A magnetically operated switch. A device used to increase, or step-up voltage. A conductor which receives electrical energy and passes it on with little or no resistance.

135. How are electrical generators rated?. Watts at rated voltage. Amperes at rated voltage. Voltage at rated amperes.

136. What unit of power is used in dc electrical circuits?. Volts. Watts. Amperes.

137. What is the function of the circuit breaker in the instrument lighting system?. Protects the lights from too much current. Protects the wiring from too much current. Prevents excessive voltage from reaching the wiring.

138. Which are protective functions of an ac generator control unit?. Open phase, underexcitation, and overvoltage. Undervoltage, differential fault, and manual paralleling. Generator underspeed and bus-tie circuit-breaker automatic closing.

139. Which is a feature of a parallel bus electrical system?. External power may be paralleled with operating generators. The electrical load is automatically redistributed when one generator fails. Each generator supplies power separately from the other generators to its respective bus.

140. Which is a purpose of a transformer rectifier?. Converts 115 volts ac, 400-Hz to 28 volts dc. Changes dc to alternating 26 volts or 115 volts, 400-Hz power. Operates emergency flight instruments and radios from the airplane battery.

141. What is the approximate nominal voltage rating of a fully charged nickel cadmium battery containing twenty cells?. 12 volts. 20 volts. 25 volts.

142. Why is it necessary to periodically completely discharge and recharge a nickel-cadmium battery?. To restore electrolyte levels. To eliminate cell imbalance and loss of capacity. To dissolve nickel oxide formations on positive cells to restore capacity.

143. What causes cell imbalance in a nickel-cadmium battery?. Low temperatures. Deep rapid discharges. Constant-potential (voltage) charging.

144. The purpose of a constant speed drive for an ac generator is to. control field strength. regulate generator voltage. maintain a uniform frequency.

145. What speed does a frequency meter give a direct indication of?. Engine N2. Generator RPM. CSD input speed.

146. How are airplane ac generators rated?. Volts. Kiliwatts (KW). Kilovolt-amps (KVA).

147. What is a purpose of a rotary inverter?. Change 115 volts ac to 28 volts dc. Convert dc to 115 volts, 400-Hz power. Transform 26/29 volts dc to 115/200 volts dc.

148. The purpose of a reverse-current relay is to. prevent one generator from driving another generator. increase or decrease the voltage of a generator so it carries its share. disconnect the generator from the main bus when generator voltage drops below battery voltage.

149. What is the nominal voltage rating of a fully charged lead-acid battery containing six cells?. 6 volts. 12 volts. 24 volts.

150. The purpose of fusible plugs in the wheel is to prevent. tire blowout. overservicing the tire. damage to the tire resulting from heat expansion.

151. What tread wear will occur if tires are under-inflated?. Uniform wear at a fast rate. Tread worn away more on the shoulders than in the center. Accelerated centerline wear while leaving rubber on the shoulder.

152. What tread wear will occur if tires are over-inflated?. Uniform wear at a slow rate. Tread worn away more on the shoulders than in the center. Accelerated centerline wear while leaving rubber on the shoulder.

153. Where should the chines be located for a dual nosewheel installation?. One on each side of the tires. On the inside of the tires only. On the outside of the tires only.

154. The purpose of chines on tires is to. increase traction on snow or ice covered runways. reduce the tendency to hydroplane on wet runways. deflect water or slush away from the engine intakes.

155. Which of the following are considered primary flight controls?. Tabs. Flaps. Outboard ailerons.

156. Which of the following is considered a secondary flight control?. Rudder. Servo tab. Inboard ailerons.

157. Which direction from the primary control surface does an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved?. Same direction. Opposite direction. Remains fixed for all positions.

158. What direction should the ailerons move when the control wheel is moved?. Left aileron down when the control wheel is moved right. Right aileron up when the control wheel is moved left. Left aileron down when the control wheel is moved left.

159. A purpose of leading edge flaps is to. increase the camber of the wing. reduce lift without increasing airspeed. direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.

160. A purpose of flight spoilers is to. increase the camber of the wing. reduce lift without increasing airspeed. direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.

161. A purpose of ground spoilers is to. reduce the wing's lift upon landing. aid in rolling an airplane into a turn. increase the rate of descent without gaining airspeed.

162. A purpose of wing mounted vortex generators is to. prevent shock induced separation of air from the wing. increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed. break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing.

163. What is a disadvantage of wing mounted vortex generators?. Drag is increased slightly at slow airspeeds. Parasite drag increases significantly at high airspeeds. Shock induced flow separation from vortex generators increases control surface buffet.

164. What is a disadvantage of a stabilizer and elevator located at the top of the vertical fin?. Heavier structure. Undesirable spin characteristics. Less effective fin and rudder due to the end plate action of the stabilizer location.

165. An advantage of a stabilizer and elevator located at the top of the vertical fin is that. the structural weight is decreased. the cruise speed is more fuel efficient. the horizontal tail is above the wing turbulence.

166. What action should be taken if a hydraulic stationary connection has a static leak?. Reduce the accumulator pressure. Notify maintenance to repair it. Pressurize the system and perform an operational check.

167. An advantage of Skydrol is that it. is resistant to water contamination. has a wide operating temperature range. is compatible with vegetable-base hydraulic fluid.

168. A disadvantage of Skydrol is that. it is incompatible with synthetic-base fluid. sustained operations below -40°C should be avoided. it will break down the insulation on some electrical wiring.

169. The purpose of a bypass valve in the hydraulic filter is to. bypass a clogged element. maintain the desired temperature and viscosity by controlling the amount of fluid through the unit. ensure adequate flow when the engines are started until the fluid is warmed sufficiently to flow freely.

170. What action should be taken in case of eye contact with any hydraulic fluid?. Apply an aesthetic eye dressing. Flush thoroughly with soap and water. Flush with water and consult a doctor.

171. What should be used to remove Skydrol from your skin?. Solvent. Soap and water. Trichlorethylene.

172. The purpose of a hydraulic accumulator is to. store hydraulic fluid under pressure. collect hydraulic fluid from system leaks. gather foam and extract the air before returning it to the reservoir.

173. What type of gas may be used to service hydraulic accumulators?. Nitrogen. Dry oxygen. Cardon dioxide.

174. Which principle operates a hydraulic fuse?. Heat. Electrical. Differential pressure.

175. The purpose of pressurizing a hydraulic reservoir is to. provide an alternate source of pressure in case of a hydraulic pump failure. assure a positive feed of foam free fluid to the hydraulic pump at high altitudes. insure an adequate supply of fluid to the hydraulic pump inlet during negative-G flight.

176. Why should hydraulic fluid be filtered?. Water in the fluid could freeze. It assures a positive feed of foam free fluid to the hydraulic pump inlet. Contaminants may damage the seals and cylinder walls causing internal leakage.

177. An advantage of a piston-type accumulator is that it. takes up less area than a sphere-type accumulator. may be used with higher pressure than a bladder-type accumulator. can store more hydraulic fluid than a diaphragm-type accumulator.

178. What is the difference between a hydraulic sequence valve and a priority valve?. Sequence valves are electrically actuated. Mechanical contact opens a priority valve. Priority valves are opened by hydraulic pressure.

179. Which principle operates a hydraulic fuse?. Quantity of flow. Thermal increase. Pressure increase.

180. One purpose of a hydraulic accumulator is to. compress hydraulic fluid. absorb sudden pressure surges. store hydraulic fluid from small system leaks.

181. Which hydraulic operation normally uses a double-acting, balanced linear actuator?. Brakes. Landing gear. Automatic pilot servo.

182. Why should synthetic hydraulic fluid be stored in an airtight container?. High evaporation rate. Vapor is extremely toxic. Atmospheric moisture contamination.

183. How may pressure from an engine-driven hydraulic pump be regulated?. Constant speed drive. Variable-displacement pump. In-line variable restrictor orifice.

184. The purpose of the antiskid system control box is to. sense wheel speed change. prevent landing with the brakes applied. meter the brake pressure to prevent stoppage of wheel rotation.

185. Pressure from an engine-driven hydraulic pump may be regulated by a. system bypass valve. constant speed drive. in-line variable restrictor orifice.

186. Moisture in a pneumatic system may cause. corrosion. a variety of sounds including banging, squealing and chattering. return lines to freeze when the pressure of the air drops during actuation.

187. What type of gas is normally used to service the air-storage bottles of an emergency pneumatic system?. Nitrogen. Dry oxygen. Carbon dioxide.

188. What safety device is actuated by the compression and extension of a landing gear strut?. Unlock switch. Downlock switch. Ground safety switch.

189. The purpose of fusible plugs in aircraft wheels is to. prevent tire blowouts. quickly deflate tires for repair. protect the antiskid electrical system.

190. One of the main gear tires has deflated as a result of a thermal fuse melt. What does this mean?. Heavy braking has overheated the wheel, melted a plastic fuse in the rim, and prevented the danger of a tire blowout. High tire temperatures have melted a fusible metal plug installed in the aircraft wheel and caused the tire to deflate. High temperatures in the wheel well have caused the tire's temperature sensitive valve core to melt, deflated the tire, and prevented damage to the wing.