ATPL A45 Q-BANK (COMM)

1. What function are provided by ILS?. Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle. Azimuth, range, and vertical angle. Guidance, range, and visual information.

2. Within what frequency range does the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate?. 108.1 to 118.1 MHz. 108.1 to 111.95 MHz. 108.1 to 117.95 MHz.

3. Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group?. inner marker. middle compass locator. outer compass locator.

4. Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer group?. inner marker. middle compass locator. outer compass locator.

5. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker?. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.

6. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker?. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.

7. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer marker?. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.

8. When using a flight director system, what rate of turn or bank angle should a pilot observe during turns in a holding pattern?. 3 degree per second or 25 degree bank, whichever is less. 3 degree per second or 30 degree bank, whichever is less. 1-1/2 degree per second or 25 degree bank, whichever is less.

9. When entering a holding pattern above 14,000 feet the initial outbound leg should not exceed. 1 minute. 1-1/2 minute. 1-1/2 minute or 10 NM, whichever is less.

10. Maximum holding speed for a turbojet airplane between FL200 and FL340 is. 210 knots. 230 knots. 265 knots.

11. Expect during an emergency, when can a pilot except landing priority?. When cleared for an IFR approach. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft. In turn, on a first-come, first-serve basis.

12. When is radar service terminated while vectored for an IFR approach at an uncontrolled airport?. Only upon landing or advised to change to advisory frequency. When aligned on the final approach course. When cleared for the approach.

13. What actions should a pilot take if vectored across the final approach course during an IFR approach?. Continue on the last heading issued until otherwise instructed. Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course. Turn onto final, and broadcast in the blind that the flight has proceeded on final.

14. Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between the ground distance and displayed distance to the VORTAC. High altitude close to the VORTAC. Low altitude close to the VORTAC. Low altitude far from the VORTAC.

15. Pilots should notify controllers on initial contact that they have received the ATIS broadcast by. Stating "Have numbers". Stating "Have weather". Repeating the alphabetical code word appended to the broadcast.

16. When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?. On tower frequency. On approach control frequency. One pilot on tower frequency and the other on approach control frequency.

17. When cleared to execute a published side-step maneuver, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?. At the published DH. At the MDA published or a circling approach. As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.

18. The lowest ILS Category II minimums are?. DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet.

19. What is the lowest category IIIA minimum?. DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. RVR 1,000 feet. RVR 700 feet.

20. Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC, glide slope, maker beacons, and approach lights?. Radar and RVR. RCLS and REIL. HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR.

21. How does the LDA differ from an ILS LOC?. LDA-6 degree or12 degree wide,ILS-3 degree to 6 degree. LDA-offset from runway plus 3 degree ,ILS-3 aligned with runway. LDA-15 degree usable off course indications, ILS-35 degree.

22. What is the difference, if any, between the front and back azimuth of the microwave landing system?. None, expect indicator reversal. Transmissions are at a lower rate. Back azimuth has no DME/P.

23. In addition to basic information, what expansion capabilities does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) have?. Back azimuth glide path. Back azimuth and data transmissions. Variable front and back azimuth upon request.

24. To at least which altitude AGL is the approach azimuth guidance angle coverage of a Microwave Landing System (MLS)?. 20,000 ft. 10,000 ft. 8,000 ft.

25. What are the lateral approach azimuth angle limits, referenced to either side of the landing runway, of a Microwave Landing System (MLS)?. At least 15 degree. 20 degrees. At least 40 degree.

26. What are the respective range limits for the front and back guidance of a Microwave Landing System (MLS)?. 10 NM and 10 NM. 15 NM and 10 NM. 20 NM and 7 NM.

27. Aircraft navigating by GPS are considered, on the flight plan, to be. RNAV equipped. Astrotracker equipped. FMS/EFIS equipped.

28. GPS instrument approach operations, outside the United States, must be authorized by. the FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement. a sovereign country or government unit. the FAA Administrator only.

29. When using GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, a required alternate airport must have. an approved instrument approach procedure, besides GPS, that is expected to be operational and available at the ETA. a GPS approach that is expected to be operational and available at the ETA. authorization to fly approaches under IFR using GPS avionics.

30. A GPS missed approach requires that the pilot take action to sequence the receiver. over the MAWP. after the MAWP. just prior to the MAWP.

31. Each pilot, who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS II, resolution advisory (RA) is expected to. maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. request ATC clearance for the deviation. notify ATC of the deviation as son as practicable.

32. Each pilot, who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory, is expected to notify ATC and. maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. request a new ATC clearance. expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory, after the conflict is resolved.

33. TCAS II provides. traffic and resolution advisories. proximity warning. maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic.

34. TCAS I provides. traffic and resolution advisories. proximity warning. recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic.

35. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts?. When collision with another aircraft is imminent. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or larger hail in the vicinity.

36. It is responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. 500 feet or less to another aircraft. 1000 feet or less to another aircraft.

37. What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency?. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs.

38. What is the hijack code?. 7200. 7500. 7777.

39. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC?. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur.

40. Which range of codes should a pilot avoid switching through when changing transponder codes?. 0000 through 1000. 7200 and 7500 series. 7500, 7600, and 7700 series.

41. When setting the altimeter, pilot should disregard. effects of nonstandard atmospheric temperatures and pressure. corrections for static pressure systems. correction for instrument error.

42. What is the maximum acceptable tolerance for penetrating a domestic ADIZ?. Plus or minus 10 miles;plus or minus 10 minutes. Plus or minus 20 miles;plus or minus 5 minutes. Plus or minus 10 miles;plus or minus 5 minutes.

43. Where are position reports required on an IFR flight on airways or routes?. Over all designated compulsory reporting points. Only where Specifically requested by ARTCC. When requested to change altitude or advise of weather conditions.

44. What action should a pilot take if asked by ARTCC to "verify 9,000 feet" and the flight is actually maintaining 8,000?. Immediately climb to 9,000. Report climbing to 9,000. Report maintaining 8,000.

45. What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit?. Time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. Time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed. Time, altitude/flight level, expected holding speed,and inbound leg length.

46. What action should a pilot take when a clearance is received from ATC that appears to be contrary to a regulation?. Read the clearance back in its entirely. Request a clarification from ATC. Do not accept the clearance.

47. An ATC "instruction". is the same as an ATC "clearance.". is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action. must be "read back" in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming effective.

48. Pilot should state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff. from a runway intersection. from a runway intersection, only at night. from a runway intersection, only during instrument conditions.

49. Under what condition does a pilot receive a "void time" specified in the clearance?. On an uncontrolled airport . When "gate hold" procedure are in effect. If the clearance is received prior to starting engines.

50. What minimum information does an abbreviated departure clearance "clear as filed" include?. Clearance limit and en route altitude. Clearance limit, en route altitude, and SID, if appropriate. Destination airport, en route altitude, and SID, if appropriate.

51. When does ATC issue a STAR?. Only when ATC deems it appropriate. Only to high priority flights. Only upon request of the pilot.

52. What is the primary purpose of a STAR?. Provide separation between IFR and VFR traffic. Simplify clearance delivery procedures. Decrease traffic congestion at certain airports.

53. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC?. One engine, on a multiengine aircraft. Airborne radar. DME.

54. When an aircarrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate?. VOR. ADF. VOR and DME.

55. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped?. In Class E airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations. Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required. For flights at or above FL 180.

56. While flying in controlled airspace under IFR, the ADF fails. What action is required?. Descend below Class A airspace. Advise dispatch via company frequency. Notify ATC immediately.

57. What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR?. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the administrator if requested. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.

58. What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace?. Notify ATC immediately. Squawk 7600. Monitor the VOR receiver.

59. Which facility may be substituted for the middle maker during a Category I ILS approach?. VOR/DME fix. Surveillance radar. Compass locator.

60. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken?. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on top. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance.

61. When takeoff minimums are not prescribed for a civil airport, what are the takeoff minimums under IFR for a three-engine airplane?. 1 SM. 1/2 SM. 300 ft and 1/2 SM.

62. If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations, the maximum bearing error permissible is. plus or minus 6 degree. plus 6 degree or minus 4 degree. plus or minus 4 degree.

63. What is the maximum permissible variation between the two bearing indicators on a dual VOR system when checking one VOR against the other?. 4 degree on the ground and in flight. 6 degree on the ground and in flight. 6 degree in flight and 4 degree on the ground.

64. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status?. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.

65. What does the term 'minimum fuel' imply to ATC?. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur.

66. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts?. When collision with another aircraft is imminent. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity.

67. What is the hijack code?. 7200. 7500. 7777.

68. What action should a pilot take if within 3 minutes of a clearance limit and further clearance has not been received?. Assume lost communications and continue as planned. Plan to hold at cruising speed until further clearance is received. Start a speed reduction to holding speed in preparation for holding.

69. Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining. who was responsible for any accident or incident. evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action. possible causes of accidents or incidents.

70. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken?. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance.

71. A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. What altitude should be used?. Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest. An altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route. A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg.

72. Each pilot, who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory, is expected to notify ATC and. maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. request a new ATC clearance. expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory, after the conflict is resolved.

73. What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency?. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs.

74. Which range of codes should a pilot avoid switching through when changing transponder codes?. 0000 through 1000. 7200 and 7500 series. 7500, 7600, and 7700 series.

75. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported?. Light and variable. Wind shear. Frontal passage.

76. An ATC 'instruction'. is the same as an ATC 'clearance.'. is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action. must be 'read back' in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming effective.

77. Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority?. When cleared for an IFR approach. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft. In turn, on a first-come, first-serve basis.

78. How should a pilot describe braking action?. 0%, 50%, 75%, 100%. Zero-zero, fifty-fifty, or normal. Nil, poor, fair, or good.

79. When is radar service terminated while vectored for an IFR approach at an uncontrolled airport?. Only upon landing or advised to change to advisory frequency. When aligned on the final approach course. When cleared for the approach.

80. When cleared for an IFR approach to an uncontrolled airport with no FSS, what precaution should the pilot take after being advised to change to advisory frequency?. Monitor ATC for traffic advisories as well as UNICOM. Broadcast position and intentions on the Common Traffic Advisory Frequency and monitor the frequency. Wait until visual contact is made with the airport and then broadcast position and intentions to land on UNICOM.

81. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment?. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, average TAS exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average TAS exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point.

82. Which reports are always required when on an IFR approach not in radar contact?. Leaving FAF inbound or outer marker inbound and missed approach. Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker inbound or outbound, and missed approach. Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker inbound or outbound, procedure turn outbound and inbound, and visual contact with the runway.

83. Pilots should notify controllers on initial contact that they have received the ATIS broadcast by?. stating 'Have Numbers'. stating 'Have Weather'. repeating the alphabetical code word appended to the broadcast.

84. What action should a pilot take if asked by ARTCC to 'VERIFY 9,000' and the flight is actually maintaining 8,000?. Immediately climb to 9,000. Report climbing to 9,000. Report maintaining 8,000.

85. Where are position reports required on an IFR flight on airways or routes?. Over all designated compulsory reporting points. Only where specifically requested by ARTCC. When requested to change altitude or advise of weather conditions.

86. Who is responsible for collision avoidance in an MOA?. Military controllers. ATC controllers. Each pilot.

87. When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?. On tower frequency. On approach control frequency. One pilot on tower frequency and the other on approach control frequency.

88. What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit?. Time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. Time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed. Time, altitude/flight level, expected holding speed, and inbound leg length.

89. How can a pilot identify a military airport at night?. A- Green, yellow, and white beacon light. B- White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white. C- Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white.

90. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker?. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.

91. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker?. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.

92.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outermarker?. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.

93. Within what frequency range does the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate?. 108.10 to 118.10 MHz. 108.10 to 111.95 MHz. 108.10 to 117.95 MHz.

94. What functions are provided by ILS?. Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle. Azimuth, range, and vertical angle. Guidance, range, and visual information.

95. Which 'rule-of-thumb' may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3° glidepath?. 5 times groundspeed in knots. 8 times groundspeed in knots. 10 times groundspeed in knots.

96. Which indication may be received when a VOR is undergoing maintenance and is considered unreliable?. Coded identification T-E-S-T. Identifier is preceded by 'M' and an intermittent 'OFF' flag might appear. An automatic voice recording stating the VOR is out-of-service for maintenance.

97. What DME indications should a pilot observe when directly over a VORTAC site at 12,000 feet?. 0 DME miles. 2 DME miles. 2.3 DME miles.

98. What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service?. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight, intended route of flight, and altitude. Severe weather information, changes in flight plans, and receipt of position reports. Radar vectors for traffic separation, route weather advisories, and altimeter settings.

99. For what purpose may cockpit voice recorders and flight data recorders NOT be used?. A- Determining causes of accidents and occurrences under investigation by the NTSB. B- Determining any certificate action, or civil penalty, arising out of an accident or occurrence. C- Identifying procedures that may have been conducive to any accident, or occurrence resulting in investigation under NTSB Part 830.

100. What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace?. Notify ATC immediately. Squawk 7600. Monitor the VOR receiver.

101. While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow?. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. Advise ATC immediately. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency.

102. While flying in controlled airspace under IFR, the ADF fails. What action is required?. Descend below Class A airspace. Advise dispatch via company frequency. Notify ATC immediately.

103. Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach?. VOR/DME FIX. Surveillance radar. Compass locator.

104. Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining. who was responsible for any accident or incident. evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action. possible causes of accidents or incidents.

105. When instructed by ATC to 'Hold short of a runway (ILS critical area, etc.),' the pilot should stop. with the nose gear on the hold line. so that no part of the aircraft extends beyond the hold line. so the flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line.

106. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of the runway when. the aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign. the flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line. all parts of the aircraft have crossed the hold line.

107. Holding position signs have. white inscriptions on a red background. red inscriptions on a white background. yellow inscriptions on a red background.

108. Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have. yellow inscriptions on a black background. white inscriptions on a black background. black inscriptions on a yellow background.

109. Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines are. white in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway. yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway. yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway.

110. TCAS I provides. traffic and resolution advisories. proximity warning. recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic.

111. TCAS II provides. traffic and resolution advisories. proximity warning. maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic.

112. Each pilot, who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory, is expected to notify ATC and. maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. request a new ATC clearance. expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory, after the conflict is resolved.

113. Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS II, resolution advisory (RA) is expected to. maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. request ATC clearance for the deviation. notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable.

114. A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance, that the pilot accepts: must be adhered to. does not preclude a rejected landing. precludes a rejected landing.

115. What altitude information is transmitted by MODE C of the transponder?. Pilot's indicated altitude. Altitude in 10-foot increments. Altitude without barometric pressure correction.

116. What is the significance of a flashing red ATCT light gun signal?. Vehicles or personnel should clear the taxiway. Aircraft in flight should exercise extreme caution. Aircraft on the ground should return to their starting point on the airport.

117. What is the significance of a flashing red ATCT light gun signal?. Vehicles or aircraft on the ground should stop where they are. Aircraft in flight should not land because the airport is unsafe. Aircraft on the ground should return to their starting point on the airport.

118. What is the significance of a steady red ATCT light gun signal?. Vehicles, personnel, or aircraft on the ground should stop where they are. Aircraft on the ground should return to their starting point on the airport. Vehicles, equipment, personnel, or aircraft should exercise extreme caution.

119. Which frequency is preferred to declare an emergency to ATC?. 121.5 MHz VHF. 243.0 MHz UHF. The one in use.

120. A cockpit voice recorder must be operated. from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of final checklist upon termination of flight. from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of checklist prior to engine shutdown. when starting to taxi for takeoff to the engine shutdown checklist after termination of the flight.

121. What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms?. Request radar vectors from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land. Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operations manual for such an event. Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered, and there is enough fuel remaining.

122. .Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: of an intersecting taxiway only. of some designated point on the runway. only of an intersecting runway or taxiway.

123. Readability 5 means that your transmission is : Readable now and then. Readable. Perfectly readable. Unreadable.

124. The abbreviation HJ means that the aerodrome is: open between sunrise and sunset. open between sunset and sunrise. open 24 hours. open during unspecified hours.

125. The phrase used by ATC to instruct you listen out on a frequency is: CONTACT. MONITOR. TRY. REPORT.

126. An altitude of 13,500 feet would be spoken as: ONE THREE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET. THIRTEEN THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET. ONE THREE THOUSAND FIVE ZERO ZERO FEET.

127. The definition of the instruction "MONITOR" is: you are being watched. establish communications on frequency... listen out on frequency... watch out for visual signals on frequency.

128. Your action on receipt of the message "STANDBY ON 118.9 FOR TOWER" is to: change to freq 118.9 and contact TOWER. change to freq 118.9 and wait for TOWER to initiate communications. wait for TOWER to contact you on present frequency to let you know when they are ready.

129. When flying on a SW headind at 3500 feet, you would report your heading and level as: HEADING 045 AT THREE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED. HEADING 225 AT THRITY FIVE HUNDRED. HEADING 225 AT THREE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED. SOUTHWEST HEADING AT THREE FIVE ZERO ZERO.

130. The readback from an aircraft that is cleared to change level from FL100 to FL80 is: DESCENDING TO FL80. LEAVING FL100 DESCENDING TO FL80. DOWN TO FL80.

131. The correct call to make asking for radio check on the ground is: G-ABCD RADIO CHECK. STEPHENVILLE TOWER, G-ABCD HOW DO YOU READ 118.7. STEPHENVILLE TOWER, G-ABCD READABILITY CHECK, 118.7. STEPHENVILLE TOWER, G-ABCD RADIO CHECK, 118.7.

132. The ATC message "DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED" signifies that: all aircraft are to end their transmission. all aircraft on the frequency are to change to another frequency. normal ATC is resumed after an emergency.

133. If you make a miastake in transmission, you should use the phrase: Sorry. I say again. Correction. Correct.

134. The suffix in the callsign of an aerodrome control service would be: CONTROL. APRON. GROUND. TOWER.

135. "WILCO" means: I have received all your last transmission. I understand your message and I will comply with it. Permission for proposed action granted.

136. The frequency to transmit on first for an urgency call is the: frequency of the nearest radar station. frequency in use now. international distress frequency.

137. The action that you carry out in response to the instruction "SQUAWK IDENT" is to: press the special identification (Ident) button on the control panel. reset the numbers on the control panel. move the switch on the control unit to the ALT position.

138. If a controller would like to say to you "Pass me the following information", he would use the expression: READBACK. REQUEST. REPORT. SAY AGAIN.

139. When unable to establish 2-way communications, you should prefix your message with: RADIO CHECK. TRANSMITTING BLIND. PAN PAN PAN. DO YOU READ?.

140. A setting of 7700 on the transpoder indicates: DISTRESS. AIRCRAFT IS LOST. RADIO FAILURE. HI-JACKING.

141. The condition that defines the state of Urgency is that: there is concern about the safety of the aircraft or a person on board but it does not require immediate assistance. the aircraft is threatened by serious or imminent danger and requires immediate assistance. there is an emergency on the ground.

142. When making a blind transmission , you should: transmit each word twice. repeat the message on 121.5 MHz. transmit the message twice. wait for visual signal.

143. The phrase used by ATC to impose radio silence during an emergency situation is: STOP TRANSMITTING MAYDAY OUT. MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY OUT. DISTRESS TRAFFIC IN PROGRESS.

144. Setting a Squawk of 7500 indicates that you: have an emergency. have a radio failure. are not receiving a radar service. are being Hi-jacked.

145. The theoretical VHF range that you can obtain at FL50 is: 85 nm. 120 nm. 71 nm. 9 nm.

146. The frequency on which ATIS can be found is. Discrete VHF only. VOR frequency only. Discrete VHF or VOR frequency. any ATC frequency.

147. A controller would say "BREAK BREAK" when he: wishes to create a pause in a long message to an aircraft. is in a busy environment and has communications with more than one aircraft. is instructing an aircraft to abandon take-off. wishes to cancel a message already transmitted to an aircraft.

148. If you are unable to contact a station on a designated frequency, you should: try another approiate frequency. transmit the words twice. start transmitting blind.

149. An aircraft at FL100 over flat terrain on a clear day will have a maximum VHF communication range of about: 120 nm. 100 nm. 150 nm. 75 nm.

150. Clearance limit is defined as: the height below which you will hit the first obstacle. the flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance. the point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance. the time at which the ATC clearance expires.

151. If you are flying an aircraft without a transponder then reply to an instruction to "SQUAWK IDENT" should be: NEGATIVE TRANSPONDER. NO SQUAWK. SQUAWK NOT POSSIBLE. NO SQUAWK.

152.On hearing an Urgency message, a pilot should: maintain a listening watch to see if you can assist in any way. acknowledge the message straight away. change frequency because a radio silence will be imposed.

153. The term "CORRECTION" is used when: the message to be deleted. the readback of a message is correct. an error has been made in the transmission and correct version is.

154. The definition of the phrase "STANDBY" is: wait and I will call you. hold your present position. consider the transmission is not sent.

155. The phrases proceeding an URGENCY message should be: PanPan PanPan PanPan. Urgency Urgency Urgency. Mayday Mayday Mayday.

156. The best signals for VHF communications are obtained when the position of the aircraft is at: high altitude and in the vicinity of the aerodrome. high altitude at long range. low altitude and short range.

157. SAR stands for: Single Aircraft Radio. Search And Rescue. Secondary Airborne Radar.

158. The callsign FASTAIR 1234 can be abbreviated to: No abbreviation. FASTAIR 34. 1234. FOXTROT34.

159. You would use the phrase "WORDS TWICE" when you. want each word repeat twice. make a blind transmission. want the message to be repeated.

160. When asking for a repeat of a message, you should say: WORDS TWICE. REPEAT MESSAGE. SAY AGAIN. SPEAK SLOWER.

161. A "BLIND TRANSMISSION" is a transmission: from an aircraft that is directly overhead the ground station. from one station to another when there is no communication but where is believed that the caller station is able to receive the transmission. where the transmission is unable to see the receiver.

162. The term "CANCEL" means: consider the message is not sent. your flight has been cancelled by your operator. annul the previously transmitted clearance.

163. The condition that defines the state of an aircraft in imminent danger is: MAYDAY. URGENCY. DISTRESS. PAN PAN.

164. The message "READABILITY3" means: Readable now and then. Readable. Readable but with difficulty. Unreadable.

165. When do you look for visual signals after a communications failure?. After landing. Joining the circuit at a controlled airfield. Overhead an aerodrome.

166. What information does VOLMET broadcast on VHF?. SIGMETs. METARs for various aerodromes. TAFs for specific aerodromes.

167. If you are told to "SQUAWK 1250", you should. set code 1250 on SSR transponder (mode A). change to frequency 125.0 MHz. say "TESTING 1250".

168. The message "CHECK" to an aircraft means that you should: confirm that you received and understood the last message. examine a system or procedure. stay where you are.

169. The full range of VHF frequencies used for communication is: 118.0 to 136.975 MHz. 108.0 to 139.5 MHz. 3 to 30 MHz. 88 to 108 MHz.

170. On what frequency do you transmit your first MAYDAY call?. 121.5. The frequency of the nearest radar station. The frequency in use. The frequency of the nearest FIS.

171. The priority for an urgency call is: lower than for a Pan Pan medical. higher than for everything else but less than for distress. dependant upon the length of the queue.

172. The Squawk code for radio failure is : 7700. 7600. 7500.

173. The word for the expression "Have I correctly received the following" is: ACKNOWLEDGE. CONFIRM. VERIFY. ARE U SURE.

174. .The term "VERIFY" means: confrim your last transmission. identify yourself. check and confirm with originator.

175. If you want to backtrack then your transmission should be: REPORTING BACKTRAACK. REQUEST BACKTRACK. REQUEST VACATE RUNWAY.

176. How does ATC report RVR?. In feet and inches. In meters at touchdown, mid-point and stop-end of runway. In kilometers along the final approach. In nautical miles along with runway.

177. How do you report a level of 3500feet?. THREE FIVE ZERO FEET. THREE THOUSND FIVE HUNDRED FEET. THIRTY FIVE HUNDRED FEET.

178. The call from an aircraft in imminent danger is: OH NO!. MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY. PANPAN PANPAN PANPAN. PAN PAN MEDICAL.

179. The term" DISREGARD" means: Pay no attention to what I say. Consider the last message as not sent. Cancel the last clearance.

180. When told "RE-SQUAWK 1015", you should: press the identification (Ident) button on the control panel. reselect the digits on the transponder mode A. set 1015 on your altimeter. switch on mode C.

181. The time given in aeronautical communications is: in minutes only. local mean time. UTC. daylight savings time.

182. Word for the expression"Permission not granted" is: WILCO. NOT APPROVED. NEVER. NEGATIVE.

183. The abbreviation SSR stands for: Single System Receiver. Sector Safety Range. Secondary Surveillance Radar.

184. The selection of the code 7600 on a transponder indicates: distress. hi-jacking. loss of comms. urgency.

185. On hearing the message "ALL STATIONS, STEPHENVILLE RADAR, STOP TRANSMITTING MAYDAY", you should: assist with the emergency. not interfere with the distress traffic. leave the frequency. re-transmitting the message.

186. The band for frequencies between 118.0 to 136.975 MHz is known as the: UHF band. VHF band. SHF band. HF band.

187. When referring to a frequency the word "DECIMAL" can be dropped: only during a readback of a frequency. Never. only after satisfactory communications have been established.

188. The information in a message from ATC that has to be readback includes: weather, wing. QNH, runway in use. everything except hesitation sounds.

189. The abbreviation for the callsign "CHEROKEE XY-ABC" would be: CHEROKEE XY-BC. CHEROKEE BC. XY-BC. ABC.

190. The name or suffix on the callsign of an aeronautical station may be omitted: Never. provided that the aircraft is in visual contact with the aerodrome. only after satisfactory communications have been established and providing there will be no confusion.

191. "Readability 2" means that your transmission is : two way communications have been established. readable now and then. readable but with difficulty. unreadable.