ATPL B01 Q-BANK

1. Operator of an aircraft is referred to. natural person. legal person. government organization. all answers are correct.

2. Crew is referred to personnel assigned by the operator to work. on aboard aircraft during flight. on ground. in aircraft while on while on ground.

3. Which of the following is a member of flight crew?. pilot. flight attendant. engineer.

4. What is the qualification or limitation of a cruise relief pilot?. Be qualified as a Captain. Has completed the cruise relief pilot training. May perform pilot tasks of that type of aircraft during cruise flight. All answers are correct.

5. Alternate airport includes: departure alternate airport. en-route alternate airport. destination alternate airport. all answers are correct.

6. The total time from the moment an airplane first moves for the purpose of taking off until the moment it finally comes to rest after landing is called: service time. power time. flight time.

7. The total time from the moment an aircraft lifts off the ground until the moment it touches down at the end of the flight. It is for calculation and record keeping of service time of the aircraft, engine, propeller, installations and equipment thereof, unless the maintenance manual requires otherwise. This time is called: flight time. instrument time. service time.

8. Airport minima provides take-off and landing limitations of the airport. The standard is expressed in terms of: RVR. visibility, decision height. minimum descending altitude. all answers are correct.

9. A cabin pressure expressed in terms of altitude that corresponds to that pressure in the Standard Atmosphere is called: cabin pressure altitude. absolute altitude. flight altitude.

10. A precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height lower than 60 m (200 ft) but not lower than 30 m (100 ft) and runway visual range less than 550 m but not less than 300 m is called: category 1 instrument approach. category 2 instrument approach. category 3 instrument approach.

11. Large aircraft refers to. An airplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 5000 kg, or a helicopter of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 2500 kg. An airplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 5700 kg, or a helicopter of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 3175 kg. An airplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 7700 kg, or a helicopter of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 3850 kg.

12. Small aircraft refers to. An airplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass of 5000 kg or less, or a helicopter of a maximum certificated take-off mass of 2500 kg or less. An airplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass of 5700 kg or less, or a helicopter of a maximum certificated take-off mass of 3175 kg or less. An airplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass of 7700 kg or less, or a helicopter of a maximum certificated take-off mass of 3850 kg or less.

13. What is the definition of flight plan?. Specified information provided to air traffic services units, relative to an intended flight or portion of a flight of an aircraft. The operator's plan for the safe conduct of the flight based on consideration of meteorological conditions, aircraft performance, fuel requirements, flight route structure, other operating limitations and relevant expected conditions on the route to be followed and at the aerodromes concerned. All answers are correct.

14. What is the definition of operational flight plan?. Specified information provided to air traffic services units, relative to an intended flight or portion of a flight of an aircraft. The operator's plan for the safe conduct of the flight based on consideration of meteorological conditions, aircraft performance, fuel requirements, flight route structure, other operating limitations and relevant expected conditions on the route to be followed and at the aerodromes concerned. All answers are correct.

15. In an in-flight emergency situation requiring immediate action, the pilot in command may deviate from any rule or article to the extent required to meet that emergency. Each pilot-in-command who deviates from a rule or article shall notify the appropriate local authorities without delay. The pilot-in-command shall also notify CAA within _____ hours. 12. 24. 36.

16. An operator shall ensure that all pilots are familiar with the laws, regulations and procedures, pertinent to the performance of their duties, prescribed for ______, relating thereto. the areas to be traversed. the aerodromes to be used. the air navigation facilities. All answers are correct.

17. An operator or a designated representative shall have responsibility for operational control. Responsibility for operational control shall be delegated only to ______. the pilot-in-command (PIC) only. to both the PIC and the dispatcher. either the PIC or the dispatcher.

18. An operator shall ensure that a flight will not be commenced unless it has been ascertained by every reasonable means available that facilities directly required on such flights ______ are adequate for the type of operation for which the flight is to be conducted and are adequately operated for this purpose. for the safe operation of the aircraft. for the protection of the passengers. for the safe operation of the aircraft OR the protection of the passengers. for the safe operation of the aircraft AND the protection of the passengers.

19. An operator shall not engage in civil air operations unless the submitted ________ (ICAO format) is approved and the ________ is issued by CAA. airworthiness certificate. operations specifications. registration certificate.

20. What kind of full-time and qualified administrative personnel in company shall an operator arrange? The arrangement of such personnel shall be reported to CAA for acceptance. flight operations manager. fleet manager. maintenance manager. All answers are correct.

21. No person may serve as the Director of Operations of a transport operator unless he/she knows the content of the operator’s operations manual, operations specifications and all other pertinent regulations and rules that are necessary for the proper performance of his duties and?. Holds or has held an airline transport pilot licence and rating and has at least three years of experience as pilot in command of a small aircraft. Holds or has held an airline transport pilot licence and rating and has at least one years of experience as pilot in command of a large aircraft. Holds or has held an airline transport pilot licence and rating and has at least three years of experience as pilot in command of a large aircraft.

22. What qualification shall an air transport operator's fleet manager need to have?. Holds a valid air transport pilot licence with at least one of the type ratings of the aircraft used by the operator and has at least one year of experience as pilot in command of a large aircraft. Holds a valid air transport pilot licence with at least one of the type ratings of the aircraft used by the operator and has at least two years of experience as pilot in command of a large aircraft. Holds a valid air transport pilot licence with at least one of the type ratings of the aircraft used by the operator and has at least three years of experience as pilot in command of a large aircraft.

23. What qualification shall an air transport operator's aircraft maintenance manager need to have?. Has an experience in the maintenance on aircraft of transportation category for 5 years or more, and at least one year of which was in a supervisory capacity. Has an experience in the maintenance on aircraft of transportation category for 3 years or more, and at least one year of which was in a supervisory capacity. Has an experience in the maintenance on aircraft of transportation category for 2 years or more, and at least one year of which was in a supervisory capacity.

24. What qualification shall an air transport operator's quality control manager need to have?. Holds a valid aircraft maintenance engineer certificate for at least 1 year; and has at least 3 years of diversified maintenance experience on aircraft in a civil air transport enterprise or certificated repair station, 1 year of which must be in the capacity as maintenance inspector or quality assurance staff. Holds a valid aircraft maintenance engineer certificate for at least 2 years; and has at least 4 years of diversified maintenance experience on aircraft in a civil air transport enterprise or certificated repair station, 1 year of which must be in the capacity as maintenance inspector or quality assurance staff. Holds a valid aircraft maintenance engineer certificate for at least 3 years; and has at least 3 years of diversified maintenance experience on aircraft in a civil air transport enterprise or certificated repair station, 1 year of which must be in the capacity as maintenance inspector or quality assurance staff.

25. No person may serve as Director of Flight Safety unless he/she knows the operator’s manual, operations specifications and the applicable rules and regulations pertinent to the performance of his duties and. Has received training for professional Flight Safety Management Programme and holds the accomplishment certificate for such programme; and has at least 1 year experience in the areas of flight operations, maintenance or flight safety. Has received training for professional Flight Safety Management Programme and holds the accomplishment certificate for such programme; and has at least 2 years experience in the areas of flight operations, maintenance or flight safety. Has received training for professional Flight Safety Management Programme and holds the accomplishment certificate for such programme; and has at least 3 years experience in the areas of flight operations, maintenance or flight safety.

26. An operator shall establish _____ program for personnel of different areas in operations which will be carried into effect after approval by CAA. business operating program. personnel promotion program. training program.

27. All flight operations related personnel shall include _____ into the training program to ensure they are properly instructed in their particular duties and responsibilities and the relationship of such duties to the operation as a whole. management training. crew resource management training. self disciplinary training.

28. Personnel who may control taxiing aircraft on the ground in the air side of an airport shall meet which of the following qualifications. Has been duly authorized by the operator or a designated agent. Is qualified to use the radio. Has received instruction from a competent person in respect of aerodrome layout routes, signs, markings, lights, air traffic control signals and instructions, radio phraseology and procedures, and is able to conform to the operational standards required. All answers are correct.

29. Who is authorized to start helicopter's rotor blade and taxi a helicopter?. ground mechanic. qualified helicopter pilot. flight engineer.

30. Aircraft in flight carrying passenger, cargo or mail may not simulate emergency or abnormal situation. Correct. Not correct. It depends.

31. An operator shall establish operational procedures designed to ensure that an airplane being used to conduct precision approaches crosses the threshold by a safe margin, with the airplane in the landing configuration and attitude. Correct. Not correct. It depends.

32. An air transport operator may be permitted to establish minimum flight altitudes for those routes flown for which minimum flight altitudes have been established by the state, provided they shall not be less than those established by that state. Correct. Not correct. It depends.

33. When establishing the aerodrome operating minima, the air transport operator shall take full consideration of. The type performance and operating characteristics of the aircraft. The composition of the flight crew, their competence and experience. The equipment available on the aircraft for the purpose of navigation and control of the flight path during the approach to landing and the missed approach. All answers are correct.

34. When establishing the aerodrome operating minima, the air transport operator shall take full consideration of. The dimensions and characteristics of the runway that may be selected for use. The adequacy and performance of the available visual and non-visual ground aids. The obstacles in the approach and missed approach areas and the obstacle clearance altitude/height for the instrument approach procedures. All answers are correct.

35. When an air transport operator evaluates minima flight altitudes, the operator shall take full consideration of. The accuracy and reliability with which the position of the aircraft can be determined. The inaccuracies in the indications of the altimeters used. Airspace restrictions. All answers are correct.

36. An operator shall maintain records of fuel and oil consumption for last _____ months for CAA inspection. 1. 2. 3.

37. An air transport operator shall ensure the operation competency and safety for an aircraft type newly introduced into service before operations for compensation or hire. In the case of airplane, an operator shall have flown at least ____ hours of proving tests. 25. 50. 75.

38. An air transport operator shall ensure the operation competency and safety for an aircraft type newly introduced into service before operations for compensation or hire. In the case of helicopter, an operator shall have flown at least ____ hours of proving tests. 25. 50. 75.

39. For each flight of an air transport operation, the operator shall designate _____ pilot to act as pilot-in-command. An operator shall establish an order of succession in the company’s pertinent manuals of flight operations in the event of the pilot-in-command’s incapacitation. 1. 2. 3.

40. An operator shall maintain current records of flight time, flight duty periods, rest periods, duty periods and standby of all its crew members for a continuous _____ -month period. 6. 12. 24.

41. For an air transport operator, when a pilot of a standard flight crew composition has flown on international flight exceeding 8 hours but less than 10 hours during any 24 consecutive hours, the pilot shall be given a rest period no less than _______ hours. 24. 18. 12.

42. For an air transport operator, the maximum consecutive flight time for a pilot of a standard flight crew composition on an international flight may not exceed? ______ hours. 6. 8. 10.

43. For an air transport operator, the maximum consecutive flight time for a pilot of a standard flight crew composition on a domestic flight may not exceed? ______ hours. 6. 8. 10.

44. For an air transport operator, when a pilot of a standard flight crew composition has flown on international flight not exceeding 8 hours during any 24 consecutive hours, the pilot shall be given a rest period no less than _______ hours. 6. 8. 10.

45. Flight time limitation for an air transport pilot of a standard flight crew composition on a mixed domestic and international flight should follow that of _______. domestic flight. international flight. labor law.

46. An air transport operator may assign a multiple flight crew pilot to a flight duty not exceeding _____ hours during any 24 consecutive hours on board an aircraft of which is provided with sleeping berths. 12. 14. 16.

47. If the aircraft is not equipped with sleeping berths but is provided with resting seats in the passenger cabin, a multiple flight crew pilot of an air transport operator may not exceed _____ hours flight duty. 12. 14. 16.

48. An air transport operator may assign a double flight crew pilot to a flight duty not exceeding _____ hours during any 24 consecutive hours on board an aircraft of which is provided with sleeping berths. 14. 16. 18.

49. If the aircraft is not equipped with sleeping berths, the aircraft shall have rest seats in the passenger cabin for the pilots. A double flight crew pilot of an air transport operator may fly no more than _____ hours on board such aircraft. 12. 14. 16.

50. An air transport operator may schedule a pilot to fly no more than 8 hours for domestic flights during any consecutive 24 hours. The pilot shall be given a rest period of no less than _____ consecutive hours at the end of flight duty. 6. 8. 10.

51. If the multiple flight crew pilot of an air transport operator has flown more than 12 hours in consecutive 24 hours, then a rest period of no less than _____ consecutive hours must be provided. 16. 20. 24.

52. If the multiple flight crew pilot of an air transport operator has flown more than 10 hours but less than 12 hours in consecutive 24 hours, then a rest period of no less than _____ consecutive hours must be provided. 14. 16. 18.

53. If the double flight crew pilot of an air transport operator has flown more than 16 hours in consecutive 24 hours, then a rest period of no less than _____ consecutive hours must be provided. 18. 20. 22.

54. If the double flight crew pilot of an air transport operator has flown less than 16 hours in consecutive 24 hours, then a rest period of no less than _____ consecutive hours must be provided. 10. 14. 18.

55. A standard flight crew pilot of an air transport operator shall be given a rest period of _____ consecutive hours during any consecutive 7 days. 18. 24. 30.

56. An air transport pilot who is assigned to act as a member of standard flight crew or a general aviation pilot, the total flight time shall not exceed _____ hours during any consecutive 7 days. 26. 30. 32.

57. A multiple flight crew pilot of an air transport operator shall be given a rest period of _____ consecutive hours during any consecutive 7 days. 18. 24. 30.

58. A double flight crew pilot of an air transport operator shall be given a rest period of _____ consecutive hours during any consecutive 7 days. 18. 24. 30.

59. Total flight time of an air transport pilot may not exceed _____ hours during any consecutive 30 days. 80. 100. 120.

60. Total flight time of an air transport pilot may not exceed _____ hours during any consecutive 90 days. 260. 280. 300.

61. Total flight time of a pilot may not exceed _____ hours during any consecutive 12 months. 800. 900. 1000.

62. An air transport operator may assign a standard flight crew pilot to a flight duty period up to _____ consecutive hours for domestic flights. 10. 12. 14.

63. An air transport operator may assign a standard flight crew pilot to a flight duty period up to _____ consecutive hours for international flights. 10. 12. 14.

64. An air transport operator may assign a multiple flight crew pilot to a flight duty period up to _____ consecutive hours. 14. 16. 18.

65. An air transport operator may assign a double flight crew pilot to a flight duty period up to _____ consecutive hours. 16. 20. 24.

66. Except for flight training, an air transport pilot shall not perform more than _____ times of take-off/landing for international flight in any flight duty period. 5. 6. 7.

67. Except for flight training, an air transport pilot shall not perform more than _____ times of take-off/landing for domestic flight in any flight duty period. 8. 10. 12.

68. After reporting for flight duty but before commencing the flight, if an air transport pilot has rested for more than _____ hours in a proper rest place arranged by the operator, such rest period may be excluded from the flight duty period. 1. 2. 3.

69. After the commencement of a flight duty, no prolongation of a flight duty period is allowed unless the air transport pilot has rested for more than _____ hours in a proper rest place arranged by the operator. On occasions of flight delay, the flight duty period may be extended by half of such rest period; in no circumstances should the total period of the extended flight duty period plus the rest period exceed 24 consecutive hours. 1. 2. 3.

70. Time spent positioning is part of a duty period for an air transport pilot. Correct. Not correct. It depends.

71. Upon CAA's approval, when an air transport operator engages in government emergency transportation missions, the flight time limitations for the flight crewmembers in such operation may be extended up to _____ hours during any 12 consecutive calendar month period. 1100. 1200. 1300.

72. Before the aircraft commences take-off, an air transport operator shall ensure that all passengers are made familiar with. The use of seat belts, including instructions on how to fasten and unfasten the seat belts. The location of emergency exits. The location and use of life jackets. All answers are correct.

73. An operator shall ensure that all passengers are informed to fasten seat belts or shoulder harness for take-off and landing. When encountering turbulence or emergency in flight, passengers shall also be informed to take appropriate actions by the crew member. Correct. Not correct. It depends.

74. When an air transport aircraft engages in passenger-carrying operations with the equipage of _____, it shall not be moved on ground or operated for flight, unless the installed equipment has been armed for evacuation. Auto inflated slides. Life raft. Survival vest.

75. Carry-on baggage shall be securely stowed in _____ in order to prevent shifting or falling from its stowage compartment unless CAA approved to do so. In addition all baggage or cargo must be stowed in a manner not hindering the use of any emergency equipment and the access to the emergency exits. Under passenger seat. In overhead bins. All answers are correct.

76. Any airman, cabin crew or passengers smoking in an aircraft, the _____ shall report to Aviation Police Office to comply with Civil Aviation Act. Pilot in command. Cabin crew. Passengers.

77. An air transport operator shall ensure that no alcoholic beverage is served in its aircraft to the person who: Appears to be intoxicated. Escorts a person or is under escort. Is legally armed. All answers are correct.

78. An operator shall ensure that no drinks or meals are served to passengers while the aircraft is in the phases of ______. taxi. take-off. landing. all answers are correct.

79. Except for the aircraft maintenance release record that shall be kept for a period of one year or more, an operator shall retain completed flight preparation documents for at least _____ months. 1. 3. 6.

80. An operational flight plan shall be completed for every intended flight for air transport operations. The operational flight plan shall be approved and signed by the _____ and if situation allows, the flight operations officer/flight dispatcher. A copy shall be filed with the operator or a designated agent. mechanic. flight operations officer / flight dispatcher. pilot in command.

81. An air transport operator shall describe in the _____ or operational flight plan, minimum en-route flight altitudes, and operating minima for destination and alternate aerodrome. standard operating procedure. checklist. operation manual.

82. (Air transport operations) For a flight to be conducted in accordance with the instrument flight rules, at least one destination alternate aerodrome shall be selected and specified in the operational flight plan, unless: The duration of the flight is less than 6 hours flight time and the meteorological conditions prevailing are such that at the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome of intended landing, and for a period one hour before and one hour after such time, approach and landing may be made under visual meteorological conditions. The aerodrome of intended landing is isolated and there is no suitable destination alternate aerodrome. All answers are correct.

83. When determining suitable off-shore alternates for helicopter operations, mechanical reliability of critical control systems and critical components shall be considered and the following taken into account: The offshore alternates shall be used only beyond a point of no return. Prior to the point of no return on-shore alternates shall be used. One engine inoperative performance capability shall be attainable prior to arrival at the alternate. Offshore alternates should not be used when it is possible to carry enough fuel to have an on-shore alternate. All answers are correct.

84. (Air transport operation) Under what condition shall a take-off alternate aerodrome be selected and specified in the operational flight plan?. The weather conditions at the aerodrome of departure are at or below the applicable aerodrome operating minima. It would not be possible to return to the aerodrome of departure for any reason. All answers are correct.

85. (Air transport operation) The take-off alternate aerodrome of an airplane having two power-units shall be located within which distance from the aerodrome of departure: Not more than a distance equivalent to one hour at the twin-engine cruise speed. Not more than a distance equivalent to one hour at the single-engine cruise speed. Not more than a distance equivalent to two hours at the single-engine cruise speed.

86. (Air transport operation) The take-off alternate aerodrome of an airplane having three or more power-units shall be located within which distance from the aerodrome of departure: Not more than a distance equivalent to one hour at the single-engine cruise speed. Not more than a distance equivalent to two hours at the single-engine cruise speed. Not more than a distance equivalent to one hour at the twin-engine cruise speed.

87. (Air transport operation) For an aerodrome to be selected as a take-off alternate the available information shall indicate, that at least ______ the estimated time of arrival, the conditions will be at or above the aerodrome operating minima for that operation. 1 hour before and 1 hour after. 2 hour before and 2 hour after. 3 hour before and 3 hour after.

88. A flight to be conducted in accordance with visual flight rules shall not be commenced unless current meteorological reports or forecasts indicate that the meteorological conditions will be such as to render compliance with these rules. Correct. Not correct. It depends.

89. A flight to be conducted in accordance with instrument flight rules shall not be commenced unless information is available which indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of intended landing will be at or below the aerodrome operating minima. Correct. Not correct. It depends.

90. Aircraft without ________ shall not operate in known or forecasted icing weather conditions. wind shield wiper. anti/de-icing devices. air conditioning.

91. An operator shall ensure that pressurized aircraft (or "pressurized airplane" for General Aviation) operated in expected thunderstorms or severe meteorological conditions is equipped with weather radar and functions normally. Correct. Not correct. It depends.

92. A flight shall not be commenced unless the aircraft carries sufficient fuel and oil to ensure that it can safely complete the flight. While calculating the amount of fuel and oil to be carried, the following must be taken into account: Forecast meteorological conditions. Expected air traffic control routings and traffic delays. Instrument approach and possible missed approach over destination aerodrome. All answers are correct.

93. A flight shall not be commenced unless the aircraft carries sufficient fuel and oil to ensure that it can safely complete the flight. While calculating the amount of fuel and oil to be carried, the following must be taken into account: The procedures prescribed in the operations manual for loss of pressurization where applicable, or failure of one power-unit while en route. Any other contingencies that may delay aircraft landing or increased fuel and/or oil consumption. CAA approved contingency fuel and oil for any other expected and unexpected delay. All answers are correct.

94. When a destination alternate is not required due to the duration of the flight is less than 6 hours flight time and the meteorological conditions prevailing are such that at the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome of intended landing, and for a period one hour before and one hour after such time, approach and landing may be made under visual meteorological conditions, the flight shall carry sufficient fuel to fly to the aerodrome to which the flight is planned and there after for _____ minutes at the cruising level for piston-engined airplane of air transport operations. 30. 45. 60.

95. A flight (air transport operations) of a turbine-engined airplane, when a destination alternate aerodrome is not required due to the duration of the flight is less than 6 hours flight time and the meteorological conditions prevailing are such that at the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome of intended landing, and for a period one hour before and one hour after such time, approach and landing may be made under visual meteorological conditions, shall carry sufficient fuel to allow the aircraft to fly to the aerodrome which the flight is planned and the additional fuel to fly _____. for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 ft above the aerodrome to which the flight is planned under standard temperature conditions and contingency fuel. for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 ft above the aerodrome to which the flight is planned under standard temperature conditions and contingency fuel. for 15 minutes at holding speed at 3,000 ft above the aerodrome to which the flight is planned under standard temperature conditions and contingency fuel.

96. Turbine-engined airplane of an air transport operations, when a destination alternate aerodrome is required, shall carry sufficient fuel to allow the aircraft to fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach, at the aerodrome to which the flight is planned, and thereafter: To fly to the alternate aerodrome. To fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 ft above the alternate aerodrome under standard temperature conditions, and approach and land. Contingency fuel. All answers are correct.

97. A flight of a turbine-engined airplane (air transport operations), when a destination is isolated and there is no suitable (destination) alternate aerodrome, shall carry sufficient fuel to fly to the aerodrome to which the flight is planned and thereafter for _____ hours at normal cruise consumption. 1. 2. 3.

98. Helicopter flights conducted in accordance with visual flight rules (VFR) shall carry a sufficient amount of fuel to allow the helicopter to fly to the heliport of which the flight is planned and thereafter to fly for a period of _____ minutes at best-range speed and contingency fuel. 10. 20. 30.

99. Helicopter flights conducted in accordance with instrument flight rules (IFR) in terms of Article 57, paragraph 1, subparagraph 1 for an air transport operations, or Article 214 for a general aviation operations, when no alternate is required, to fly to the heliport to which the flight is planned, and thereafter to fly for _____ minutes at holding speed at 1,500ft above the destination heliport under standard temperature conditions, and approach and land, and contingency fuel. 30. 45. 60.

100. Helicopter flights conducted in accordance with instrument flight rules (IFR), when no suitable alternate is available, should carry sufficient fuel to fly to the destination aerodrome to which the flight is planned and thereafter for a period of _____minutes at normal cruise. 60. 120. 160.

101. For an air transport aircraft operating in domestic flights, due to short flight legs or limited refuelling facilities in aerodromes, an operator may use CAA approved ______ for flight operations. fuel policy. maintenance program. simplified operational flight plans.

102. Althought the fuel on board is sufficient, an aircraft in flight may not be re-dispatched to another destination. Correct. Not correct. It depends.

103. An airplane shall not be refuelled when passengers are embarking, on board or disembarking unless: It is properly attended by qualified personnel ready to initiate and direct an evacuation of the airplane. Two-way communication shall be maintained between the ground crew supervising the refuelling and the qualified personnel on board the airplane. All answers are correct.

104. Unless the operation has been specifically approved by CAA, an air transport airplane with two turbine power-units shall not be operated on a route where the flight time at single-engine cruise speed to an adequate en-route alternate aerodrome exceeds a _____ minutes under wind calm condition. 45. 60. 90.

105. A flight shall not be commenced unless sufficient stored breathing oxygen is carried to supply the crew and passengers for any period that the cabin pressure altitude in compartments occupied by them will be _____ feet or above. 13,000. 10,000. 8,000.

106. A flight shall not be commenced unless sufficient stored breathing oxygen is carried to supply all crew members and 10 percent of the passengers for any period in excess of _____ minutes that the cabin pressure altitude in compartments occupied by them will be between 10,000ft and 13,000ft. 10. 20. 30.

107. A flight to be operated with a pressurized aircraft shall not be commenced unless in the event of loss of pressurization, sufficient quantity of stored breathing oxygen shall be carried to supply all crew members and passengers when the cabin pressure altitude in compartments occupied by them will be ______ ft or above. 5,000. 8,000. 10,000.

108. A flight to be operated with a pressurized aircraft shall not be commenced unless when operating at 25,000ft or above, sufficient quantity of stored breathing oxygen shall be carried to supply all the crewmembers and passengers in the event of loss of pressurization for at least a _____-minute supply for the occupants in the passenger compartment. 5. 10. 15.

109. All flight crewmembers of an air transport operator, when engaged in performing duties essential to the safe operation of an airplane in flight, shall use breathing oxygen continuously whenever the cabin pressure altitude is at _____ ft or above. 8,000. 10,000. 12,000.

110. A flight shall not be continued towards the destination aerodrome,?unless the latest available information indicates that at the expected time of arrival, a landing can be affected at that aerodrome or at least one destination alternate aerodrome in compliance with the operating minima. Correct. Not correct. It depends.

111. Hazardous flight conditions encountered other than those associated with meteorological conditions, shall be reported to_____ as soon as possible. The reports so rendered shall give such details as may be pertinent to the safety of other aircraft. The appropriate air traffic control unit. Taiwan Transport Safety Board (TTSB). Flight Safety Foundation (FSF).

112. An aircraft shall be operated in compliance with the terms of its_____ and within the approved operating performance and limitations contained in its flight manual. certificate of registration. certificate of airworthiness. radio station operator license.

113. Only ______ helicopters may be operated to and from elevated heliports in congested area. Class 1. Class 2. Class 3.

114. What manual will enable the PIC to determine whether a flight may be commenced or continued from any intermediate stop should any instrument, equipment or system become inoperative?. Minimum Equipment List. Flight Manual. Operating Manual.

115. How many first aid kits shall a 51-seat aircraft be equipped?. 1. 2. 3.

116. How may first aid kits shall a 255-seat aircraft be equipped?. 1. 2. 3.

117. How many portable fire extinguisher shall a 56-seat transport category aircraft be equipped?. 1. 2. 3.

118. How many portable fire extinguisher shall a 158-seat transport category aircraft be equipped?. 1. 2. 3.

119. An operator shall ensure that a seat or berth with safety belt is provided to each occupant who has reached his or her _____ birthday, for the use of whom during the take-off, landing and enroute phases. 1st. 2nd. 3rd.

120. An air transport airplane shall be equipped with _____ axe, to break the fuselage when the cabin door or emergency exit cannot be opened. 1. 2. 3.

121. An air transport airplane with a seating capacity of more than 60 but less than 100, shall have _____ battery-powered megaphone in the passenger cabin where it would be readily accessible to a normal cabin crew seat. 1. 2. 3.

122. An air transport airplane with a seating capacity of 100 passengers or more, two megaphones are required. One must be installed at the forward end and the other at the most rearward location where it would be readily accessible to a normal cabin crew seat. Correct. Not correct. It depends.

123. An air transport passenger-carrying airplane shall be equipped with emergency lighting of ______ for each emergency exit. in common with other systems power source. independent power source. VHF COM 1 power source.

124. An aircraft shall be equipped with means of ensuring that the following information and instructions are informed and notified to passengers: When seat belts are to be fastened and when the seat backs are to be up-righted. When and how oxygen equipment is to be used. Location and use of life jackets or equivalent individual floatation devices. All answers are correct.

125. An air transport aircraft shall carry, in addition to documents required by Article 38 of the Civil Aviation Act, the following approved and updated documents/manuals: Airplane flight manual. Flight operations manual. Minimum Equipment List. All answers are correct.

126. If areas of the fuselage suitable for break-in by rescue crews in emergency are marked on an airplane, such areas shall be marked in ______, and shall be outlined in white to contrast with the background. The lines for such marking shall be 9 cm × 3 cm, and be no more than 2 m between adjacent markings. red. yellow. all answers are correct.

127. An aircraft shall be equipped with a _____ capable of recording essential information of a flight, in order to serve the purpose of aircraft accident investigation. auto pilot. flight data recorder. compass.

128. The flight recorder shall be activated before flight, and shall not be deactivated in flight. However, in the case of an aircraft accident or a serious incident, the flight data recorder ______. Same requirement For an aircraft incident and required by CAA, the same requirement will apply. shall be deactivated when the flight ends. shall not be re-activated until the flight data has been retrieved. all answers are correct.

129. An aircraft when operated in accordance with the instrument flight rules, or when the aircraft cannot be maintained in a desired attitude without reference to one or more flight instruments, shall be equipped with _____ pressure altimeters indicators. 1. 2. 3.

130. All aircraft when operated as _____ flight shall be equipped with a magnetic compass; an accurate timepiece indicting the time in hours, minutes and seconds; a sensitive altimeter, an airspeed indicator and such additional instruments or equipment as may be prescribed by CAA. VFR. IFR. All answers are correct.

131. A long-range over-water flight indicates. Twin-engine airplane with alternate aerodromes planned, used over routes on which the airplane may be over water and away from land at more than a distance corresponding to 60 minutes at cruising speed for one power-unit inoperative or 200 NM. Twin-engine airplane with alternate aerodromes planned, used over routes on which the airplane may be over water and away from land at more than a distance corresponding to 90 minutes at cruising speed for one power-unit inoperative or 300 NM. Twin-engine airplane with alternate aerodromes planned, used over routes on which the airplane may be over water and away from land at more than a distance corresponding to 120 minutes at cruising speed for one power-unit inoperative or 400 NM.

132. Performance class 1 or 2 helicopters intended to be flown over water shall be fitted with a permanent or rapidly deployable means of floatation, and the life jacket shall be worn by flight crew during all phrases of flight so as to ensure a safe ditching of the helicopter when flying over water at a distance from land corresponding to more than _____ minutes normal cruising speed. 5. 10. 15.

133. Aircraft intended to be operated at a cabin pressure altitude higher than _____ft shall be equipped with oxygen storage and dispensing apparatus capable of storing and dispensing the oxygen supplies. 10,000. 15,000. 20,000.

134. Pressurized aircraft operated above _____ft shall be equipped with a device to provide positive warning to the pilot of any dangerous loss of pressurization. 15,000. 20,000. 25,000.

135. What equipment shall an aircraft be equipped when operated at night?. Taxi light. Two landing lights or one having two separately energised filaments. Navigation and anti-collision lights. All answers are correct.

136. What equipment shall an aircraft be equipped when operated at night?. Illumination for all instruments and equipment. Lights in all passenger cabin. An electric torch for each crewmember station. All answers are correct.

137. An air transport category aircraft intended to be operated above _____ feet shall carry equipment to measure and indicate continuously the dose rate of total cosmic radiation being received and the cumulative dose on each flight. The display unit of the equipment shall be readily visible to a flight crewmember. 30,000. 40,000. 49,000.

138. All aircraft with speed limitations expressed in terms of Mach number shall be equipped with _____ indicator. airspeed. Mach number. ground speed.

139. Which warning shall a ground proximity warning system provide?. Excessive descent rate. Excessive terrain closure rate. Excessive descent below the instrument glide path. All answers are correct.

140. The radio communication equipment of an aircraft shall provide for communication on the aeronautical emergency frequency _____ MHz. 120.5. 121.5. 122.5.

141. The navigation equipment installation shall be such that the failure of any single unit required for either communications or navigation purposes or both will not result in the other unit required for communications or navigation purposes. Correct. Not correct. It depends.

142. _____ shall bear the primary responsibility for the proper maintenance of its aircraft including the airframe, power plant, propeller, appliance, and their parts and maintained in an airworthy condition. The aircraft operator. The aircraft owner. The maintenance manager.

143. The operator shall provide, for the use and guidance of maintenance and operational personnel concerned, a _____ approved by the CAA. training programme. maintenance programme. utilization programme.

144. Operators shall provide, for the use and guidance of maintenance and operational personnel concerned, a ____ which shall be carried into effect after acceptance of CAA. A designated maintenance organization shall conduct maintenance in accordance with ____ of the operator. flight manual. GMM. operating manual.

145. An operator shall ensure that all its maintenance personnel receive ________ training appropriate to their assigned tasks and responsibilities. The maintenance personnel shall be trained to be competence of planning, performing, supervising, inspecting and releasing the work to be performed. reliability program. maintenance program. initial and continuation training.

146. In order to reduce human induced incidents or accidents, the training programme established by the operator shall, include ________ training, and in knowledge and skills related to human performance, including coordination with other maintenance personnel and flight crew. maintenance resource management. technical. tool.

147. Operators shall establish a ________, identifying required inspection item and ensure the inspections of aircraft maintenance, overhaul and alterations, which have been completed by qualified authority personnel in accordance with the requirements of the aircraft maintenance control manual. system of inspection. system of examination. system of audit.

148. he person signing a maintenance release shall be either the holder of ________, and shall ensure that operations in regard to maintenance and maintenance release be conducted as authorized by GMM. a valid technician's certificate. a valid CAA aircraft maintenance engineer certificate, or the holder of a valid mechanic license acceptable to CAA. a valid dispatcher's certificate.

149. Records of maintenance release shall include the reference to the task, summary of the task, the completion date and the signature of the engineer who released the aircraft. Correct. Not correct. It depends.

150. Daily maintenance work and maintenance release records shall be recorded with indelible ink and kept for a minimum period of ________ months. 6. 12. 18.

151. What is the duty of a pilot-in-command?. The pilot-in-command shall be responsible for the operation and safety of the aircraft and for the safety of all crewmembers, passengers and cargo on board during flight time, and may take actions as necessary in the event of an emergency. The pilot-in-command shall ensure that the checklists are complied with in detail. The pilot-in-command shall be responsible for reporting all known or suspected defects in the aircraft to the operator at the termination of the flight. All answers are correct.

152. What is the rules of a flight crewmember when he/she is his/her station?. A flight crewmember may leave his/her station due to physiological needs during take-off or landing. A flight crewmember may leave his/her station during cruise provided works are not jeopardized. A flight crewmember shall keep his/her seat belts fastened when at station, and shall keep the safety harness fastened during take-off and landing phases.

153. An air transport operator shall not assign a pilot to act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft unless that pilot has made at least ____ take-offs and landings within the preceding 90 days on the same type of aircraft for which the pilot holds the type rating. 1. 2. 3.

154. An air transport operator may not schedule any pilot to serve as pilot of an aircraft, unless within the preceding 12 calendar months that pilot has passed ____ line check in which he has satisfactorily performed the duties and responsibilities of a pilot in the types of aircraft he is to fly. 1. 2. 3.

155. An air transport operator shall not assign a pilot to act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft, unless within the preceding ____ calendar months that pilot has obtained or maintain his qualification on an aerodrome, route or within an area specified by the operator. 6. 9. 12.

156. Due to certain environmental factors or terrain, CAA or an operator may designate an aerodrome or route as special ones for which an operator shall not assign a pilot as pilot-in-command to operate in such flight unless: Within the preceding 12 months, the pilot has acted as a flight crewmember or observer in the aircraft or flight simulator. The pilot has operated on the special route or made at least one take-off and landing at the special aerodrome under the supervision of a qualified instructor or check airman. The pilot has completed the CAA approved training programme which incorporate diagrams and text in detail for the special aerodrome or route. All answers are correct.

157. An air transport operator shall not assign a first officer to operate at the flight controls of an aircraft during take-off and landing unless that first officer has made at least three take-offs and landings within the preceding _____ days on the same type of aircraft or in a flight simulator approved by CAA. 30. 60. 90.

158. An air transport pilot who is older than 60 years of age shall not engaged in single pilot operations. Correct. Not correct. It depends.

159. Except for aircraft newly introduced into service, a pilot-in-command of an air transport operator shall not be assigned a flight duty with a junior first officer unless either one of them has acquired an operating experience of no less than ____ hours flight time. 50. 75. 100.

160. (Air transport operations)The acquisition of initial operating experience for newly hired pilots shall be conducted under the supervision of an instructor pilot or a check airman. The flight time in which a pilot serves as an observer is ______. be account for 50%. be divided by number of pilot. not considered as part of operating experience.

161. In any flight, when a first officer has not logged 100 hours of flight time in the aircraft type in which he is to flight, the captain shall perform the take-off and landing when the visibility is less than _____ m or when the runway intended to be landed is covered with water, slush or ice. 800. 1,200. 2,400.

162. A pilot shall have logged at least ____ hours of flight time in an aircraft type before he is to perform test flights after maintenance or inspection, or to perform special ferry flight of such aircraft type. 200. 250. 300.

163. An air transport operator shall ensure that a pilot's proficiency check be performed twice within every 12 months _____. The interval of such two checks shall be between 4 months and 8 months. And, the content of the subsequent check shall not be identical with the preceding check. during the valid period of his/her pilot license. during the valid period of his/her medical license. starting from the date when he/she pass the proficiency check or a re-qualification check.

164. When a medical certificate can be obtained only with correcting lenses, the applicant may be assessed as fit provided that. the certificate holder can fly without correcting lenses if he/she feels fine. such correcting lenses are carried during flight but not necessarily be used. such correcting lenses are worn during the exercise of the privileges of the license or rating applied for or held; and, in addition, a pair of suitable correcting spectacles is kept readily available during the exercise of the privileges of the applicant.

165. Duties of flight operations officers/flight dispatchers are: Assist the pilot-in-command in flight preparation and provide the relevant information. Assist the pilot-in-command in preparing the operational and ATS flight plans and file the ATS plan with the appropriate ATS unit. Furnish the pilot-in-command, while in flight, by appropriate means of information, which may be necessary for the safe conduct of the flight. All answers are correct.

166. Within the preceding ____ months, at least one observation flight on the flight deck of an aircraft over any area in which that individual is authorized to exercise the privileges of a flight operations officer / flight dispatcher. 6. 9. 12.

167. A flight operations officer/flight dispatcher who has ceased to exercise the privileges of his/her license for ________ months or more shall not be assigned to such duty unless being given another flight operations officer/flight dispatcher training by the operator. 6. 9. 12.

168. An air transport operator shall assign at least ____ cabin crewmember to a flight operated by an aircraft with a seating capacity of more than 50 but less than 101 passengers. 1. 2. 3.

169. An operator shall ensure that cabin crewmember receive recurrent training on a regular interval to ensure that each cabin crewmember is: Competent to execute those safety duties and functions which the cabin crewmember is assigned to perform in the event of an emergency or in a situation requiring emergency evacuation, including assisting the mentally or physically handicapped. Drilled and capable in the use of emergency and lifesaving equipment required to be carried, such as life jackets, life-saving rafts, evacuation slides, emergency exits, portable fire extinguishers, oxygen equipment, first aid kits, medical kits and universal kits. When serving on airplanes operated at altitudes of 10,000 ft or above, knowledgeable as regards the effect of lack of oxygen and physiological phenomena accompanying a loss of pressurization. All answers are correct.

170. Emergency evacuation from an aircraft of more than 44 passengers shall be completed within ________ seconds. 60. 90. 120.

171. (Air transport operation) The flight crew compartment doors in passenger-carrying aircraft shall be _____ in flight. An operator shall provide means by which cabin crewmember can discreetly notify the flight crew in the event of unlawful interference which may endanger the safety of flight. securely closed and locked. securely closed and unlocked. open.

172. An operator shall establish a programme to conduct random tests for narcotic drugs and alcohol for operations personnel such as ________. The records for such tests shall be retained for review. flight dispatchers and maintenance personnel. cabin crewmember. flight crew. All answers are correct.

173. Test standards for narcotic drugs and alcohol include. For narcotic drugs test: the test result of a Urine specimen shall be negative. For Alcohol test: In the test result, the concentration of alcohol shall not be more than 0.02% in blood. For Alcohol test: In the test result, the concentration of alcohol shall not be exceed 0.1 mg per litre in breath. All answers are correct.

174. A general aviation operator shall establish and maintain ________ to be filed with CAA for approval. self-audit programme. flight safety accident prevention programme. All answers are correct.

175. (General aviation operation) The _____ shall be responsible for ensuring that a flight will not be commenced if any flight crewmember is physically unable to perform duties from any cause such as injury, sickness, fatigue, under the influence of alcohol or drugs. aircraft operator. aircraft owner. pilot in command.

176. A general aviation aircraft with seating capacity of 10-30 shall be equipped with ___ portable fire extinguisher. 1. 2. 3.

177. Amphibians or landplanes, when operates under either one of the following conditions, shall carry for each personnel on board one life jacket or equivalent individual floatation device, stowed in a position easily accessible from the seat or berth of the person for whose use it is provided. Flying over water and at a distance of more than 50 NM away from the shore. Flying en route over water beyond gliding distance from the shore. During take-off or landing at an aerodrome, the take-off and approach path is over water. All answers are correct.

178. Performance class 3 helicopters, when operating beyond autorotation distance from land, all persons on board shall wear one life jacket or equivalent individual flotation device. Correct. Not correct. It depends.

179. The maintenance personnel on board shall be given a rest period of at least ____ consecutive hours during any seven consecutive days of his/her duty, except for those who are performing emergency duties. 18. 22. 24.

180. (General aviation operator) At least ____ portable fire extinguisher must be conveniently located in the cabin of an airplane accommodating more than 30 passengers. 1. 2. 3.

181. An airplane authorized to carry more than _____ passengers on a sector length of more than 2 hours shall be equipped with a medical kit. 100. 150. 200.

182. Any person who hijacks an aircraft by force, threat or other means shall be subject to. punishment by death, imprisonment for life, or imprisoned for not less than 7 years. 10 or more years imprisonment. 7 years or less imprisonment.

183. Any person operating an aircraft without an airworthiness certificate shall be subject to imprisonment not exceeding ___ years, detention or a fine of up to NT$1,000,000. The same applies also to a person flying an aircraft with an invalid airworthiness certificate. 3. 5. 8.

184. Any person who engages in a flight without a airman certificate and medical certificate shall be subject to imprisonment not exceeding ___ years, detention or a fine of up to NT$1,000,000. 1. 3. 5.

185. Any person who, by fraudulence in application for certification or registration, obtaining an airman certificate, medical certificate, certificate of aircraft registration or airworthiness certificate, shall be subject to imprisonment up to 5 years, detention or a fine of up to NT$ _____. 500,000. 1,000,000. 1,500,000.

186. The responsible person of a manufacturer or repair station, their employee or other hired person who undertakes the manufacture or maintenance with unapproved aviation products, appliances and parts, shall be subject to imprisonment not more than ___ years, detention, or in lieu of or addition to, a fine of up to NT$1,000,000. 1. 2. 3.

187. Any airman committing a technical error that leads to an aircraft accident or a serious incident shall be subject to a fine from NT$60,000 to NT$__________ or be suspended from duty for a period of one to three months for any of the following; and in serious cases, the penalty shall be revocation of the certificate. 100,000. 200,000. 300,000.

188. The certificate of airworthiness is valid if the registration number is unchanged when ownership of an aircraft is transferred. Correct. Not correct. It depends.

189. The certificate of registration shall become invalid upon any of the following events: Transfer of aircraft ownership. Aircraft is destroyed or damaged beyond repair. Forfeiture or loss of aircraft nationality. All answers are correct.

190. The certificate of airworthiness shall become invalid upon any of the following events: Expiration of the certificate. Registration certificate becomes ineffective. Aircraft does not meet airworthiness requirements. All answers are correct.

191. An airman shall be. more than 20 years of age. one who has at least completed universal compulsory education. a citizen of the ROC, unless granted a special approval by MOTC.

192. When performing flight duties, a pilot shall carry both rating certificate and medical certificate. Correct. Not correct. It depends.

193. According to the Civil Aviation Law, the term "flight" means. the activities begin at passengers and cargo loaded and door closed till after flight doors open. takeoff, navigation in the air, landing of aircraft and its taxiing on the ground of an airport or of an airfield before takeoff and after landing. the activities begin at engine start, navigation till landing.

194. Which of the following personnel need not to apply for rating certificate issued by CAA?. Aircraft dispatcher. Flight attendant. Air traffic controller.

195. Which is not a "special flight"?. Aircraft test flight or aerobatic flight. Flight beyond prescribed limits or repair as well as maintenance and ferry flight. Chartered flight.

196. If obstructive structures around an air terminal, airfield or navigation aid installation were already in place at the time the prohibition or restriction rulings were promulgated,. the obstructive structures must not be removed. the operator of the airport or the airfield shall pay compensation for the relocation or for installing obstruction lights and markings. the local government shall pay compensation for the relocation or for installing obstruction lights and markings.

197. Whose responsibility is it to develop airport noise abatement and prevention program?. Environmental Protection Administration (EPA). CAA. CAA in coordination with EPA.

198. An aircraft shall carry the following documents during any flight: Aircraft registration certificate; Airworthiness certificate; Aircraft radio station license. Flight logbook. Passenger's manifest when carrying passengers; Cargo and mail manifest. All answers are correct.

199. CAA shall send personnel or delegate another agency or body to inspect the maintenance activities of the owner or operator of the aforesaid aircraft. The owner or operator of an aircraft may not refuse, evade or impede such inspection. Correct. Not correct. It depends.

200. If the aircraft is found not to be airworthy determined by an inspector or the pilot-in-command, the aircraft shall not be allowed to take off. Correct. Not correct. It depends.

201. The flight is ready while the airwothiness certificate of the aircraft is found expired before departure. Which action is correct?. The aircraft can proceed for take-off on the condition that CAA is informed of this situation and the aircraft has been inspected and released by a qualified engineer. The aircraft shall be delayed until aircraft has been rechecked and released by a qualified engineer. The aircraft shall be stopped for operation.

202. A pilot who flys over prohibited area shall be? subject to imprisonment not exceeding ____, detention or a fine of up to NT$400,000. 6 months. 1 year. 2 years.

203. Any gun, cannon, knife referred to in the Act Governing the Control and Prohibition of Gun, Cannon, Ammunition, and Knife, and any other suspicious articles hazardous to flight safety can be carried on board an aircraft when specially authorized firearms according to the demand of the special mission approved by the Aviation Police Office and agreed by the operator. Correct. Not correct. It depends.

204. Violation of Civil Aviation Act, a person who carries on board an aircraft any gun, cannon, knife, or any other suspicious articles hazardous to flight safety shall be subject to a fine. from NT$60,000 to NT$300,000. from NT$50,000 to NT$200,000. from NT$20,000 to NT$100,000.

205. Any telecommunication device can be used on board an aircraft if the device is approved by CAA, instructed by cabin crew with the consent of pilot in command. Correct. Not correct. It depends.

206. As a way to show gratefullness to someone, a passenger drops streamers from the cabin of an aircraft after take-off. The act is. legal. illegal. customary human relation and has nothing to do with law.

207. A person drops of object from an aircraft in flight without justifiable reasons shall be subject to imprisonment not exceeding _____ years, detention or a fine of up to NT$600,000. 2. 3. 4.

208. The ____ of an aircraft is directly responsible for the safe operation of that aircraft and may take any necessary steps to deal with an emergency. owner. operator. pilot in command.

209. When dispute arises between the passenger and the air carries, during the progress of transport or at the end of transport, who would be the mediator?. CAA. Custom. Air Police Bureau.

210. If passengers ignore efforts at mediation and refuse to leave aircraft after landing, the air carrier with CAA consent may request assistance of the _____ to persuade or force passengers to leave aircraft after landing. Air Police Bureau. Bureau of Investigation. Criminal Police Squad.

211. The use of air space and demarcation of control area, control zone, restricted area, dangerous area and prohibited area shall be determined by. CAA. Ministry of Interior. Ministry of Transportation and Communications in co-ordination with Ministry of National Defense.

212. A civil air transport enterprise permit, Air Operator Certificate or air route certificate is _____, and the holder of the permit/certificate must not consider him- or herself as enjoying exclusive rights to operate the various services as prescribed in the permit or certificate thereof. transferable. not transferable. transferable after approval.

213. Which has a higher transport priority between airmails and passenger/cargo for a civil air transport operator?. Air mail. Passenger and cargo. No difference.

214. In the event of any urgent requirement by the government, which unit of the government is in charge of the command of the transport assignments to a civil air transport enterprise?. Ministry of National Defense. Ministry of Interior. Ministry of Transportation and Communications.

215. Foreign aircraft shall not be allowed to fly over, take off or land in ROC territory without permission from _____, unless otherwise provided for in a treaty or an agreement. Ministry of National Defense. Ministry of Transportation and Communications. CAA.

216. Foreigners, aside from complying with the provisions set forth in Chapter 7 of Civil Aviation Act, shall not own aircraft in the ROC. Correct. Not correct. It depends.

217. An aircraft that has been registered in a foreign country is allowed to apply for registration in the ROC even when its registration has not been cancelled. Correct. Not correct. It depends.

218. Before the aircraft owner or operator apply to the CAA airworthiness certification he or she shall present the aircraft document of. radio license. registration certificate. certificate of origin.

219. Where casualties or damage to property occur as a result of aircraft accident, the _____ shall be liable for compensation regardless of whether such accident is due to willful action or negligence. PIC of the flight. operator of the aircraft. owner of the aircraft.

220. Who shall be liable for causing damage to passengers because of flight delay?. PIC of the flight. Operator of the aircraft. Owner of the aircraft.

221. Whose responsibility is to investigate and determine the cause of an aviation occurrence?. Taiwan Transportation Safety Board. CAA. Ministry of Transportation and Communications.

222. When an aviation occurrence of an aircraft of any nationality arises in the territory of the ROC, which unit shall undertake the investigation?. Airline. Local judicial authority. Taiwan Transportation Safety Board.

223. Applicant for airline transport pilot licence of aeroplane or helicopter shall not be less than _____ years of age. 20. 23. 25.

224. Cross-country flight means that the distance from a point where an aircraft takes off to a point where it lands is no less than? _____ kilometers. 30. 60. 90.

225. A holder of private pilot licence can apply for flight instructor rating. Correct. Not correct. It depends.

226. When an airman is under the provision of licence suspension, the holder is prohibited from applying for any added rating. Correct. Not correct. It depends.

227. The pilot designated by the operator, or the owner, as being in command and charged with the safe conduct of a flight. Captain. Chief Pilot. PIC.

228. A manual approved by the State of Design or a manual accepted by the CAA and associated with the certificate of airworthiness, containing limitations within which the aircraft is to be considered airworthy, and instructions and information necessary to the flight crew members for the safe operation of the aircraft. This manual is called. Flight Manual. Flight Operations Manual. Aircraft Operating Manual.

229. A manual established by the operator, containing general policy, regulations and limitations for the flight operations of the aircraft. The manual is established in accordance with CAA and aircraft manufacture's instructions. This manual is called. Flight Manual. Flight Operations Manual. Aircraft Operating Manual.

230. A manual, established by the aircraft manufacturer, or amended by the specified operator containing normal, abnormal and emergency procedures, checklists, limitations, performance information, details of the aircraft systems and other material relevant to the operation of the aircraft. This manual is called. Flight Manual. Flight Operations Manual. Aircraft Operating Manual.

231. he total time from the moment a helicopter's rotor blades start turning until the moment the helicopter finally comes to rest at the end of the flight, and the rotor blades are stopped. This time is defined as. service time. power time. flight time.

232. The time regarded for the calculation from the moment that flight crew members commence the flight duty and the limitation of flight time log. This time is called. flight time. service time. duty period.

233. A period which starts when a flight or cabin crew member is required by an operator to report for or to commence a duty and ends when that person is free from all duties. This period is called. duty period. rest period. flight duty period.

234. Which statement is correct regarding to "Minimum Equipment List (MEL)"?. The list, prepared by the aircraft operator, is established based on approved "Flight Manual" and take specific operational conditions into account. The list shall not be less restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List. The list is a CAA accepted manual instead of CAA approved manual.

235. Which statement is correct regarding to "Configuration Deviation List (CDL)"?. The list, prepared by the aircraft operator, is established based on manufacturer's "Master Minimum Equipment List" and take specific operational conditions into account. The list identifies any external parts of an aircraft type which may be missing for the aircraft to continue service, and contains, where necessary any information on the associated operating limitations and performance correction. The list is a CAA accepted manual instead of CAA approved manual.

236. The training required for a crew member who has not been qualified and served in the same position on another aircraft of the same type. The training is called. initial training. transition training. upgrade training.

237. The training required for crew member who is qualified and serves in the same position on anther aircraft type. The training is called. initial training. transition training. upgrade training.

238. Operations with performance such that, in the event of a critical power-unit failure, performance is available to enable the helicopter to safely continue the flight to an appropriate landing area, unless the failure occurs prior to reaching the take-off decision point (TDP) or after passing the landing decision point (LDP), in which cases the helicopter must be able to land within the rejected take-off or landing area. The helicopter is classified as. Performance class 1 helicopter. Performance class 2 helicopter. Performance class 3 helicopter.

239. Operations with performance such that, in the event of critical power-unit failure, performance is available to enable the helicopter to safely continue the flight to an appropriate landing area, except when the failure occurs early during the take-off manoeuvre or late in the landing manoeuvre, in which cases a forced landing may be required. The helicopter is classified as. Performance class 1 helicopter. Performance class 2 helicopter. Performance class 3 helicopter.

240. Operations with performance such that, in the event of a power-unit failure at any time during the flight, a forced landing will be required. The helicopter is classified as. Performance class 1 helicopter. Performance class 2 helicopter. Performance class 3 helicopter.

241. A period which commences when a crew member is required to report for duty that includes a flight or a series of flights and which finishes when the aeroplane finally comes to rest at the end of the last flight on which he/she is a crew member. This period is called. duty period. rest period. flight duty period.

242. The operations of an aircraft, when operating abroad, must comply with the laws, regulations and procedures of _____. Republic of China. those States in which operations are conducted. United Nation.

243. An air transport operator shall establish aerodrome operating minima for each aerodrome to be used in operations. Such minima _____ any that may be established for such aerodromes by the State in which the aerodrome is located. , after the risk assessment, can be higher than. shall be equal to. shall not be lower than.

244. Duty rosters of an air transport operator should cover a period of at least _____; duty and rest periods shall be identified. 7 days. 14 days. 1 month.

245. Air transport flight crew on flight duty of aircraft flown between two points which has a time zone difference of 6 hours or more and stay more than 48 hours in such different time zone, shall not be scheduled for another flight duty within _____ hours at the end of such flight, except if the next scheduled flight destination is in the same time zone as that of the previous flight or is within 3 hours time zone difference of the previous stop. 24. 36. 48.

246. For air transport operators, the minimum rest period immediately before commencing a flight duty period or positioning may not be less than _____ hours. 8. 10. 12.

247. An air transport operator may not schedule a crew member for more than _____ consecutive days of night operations during local time 0200 and 0500 at which flight duty begins. 1. 2. 3.

248. (Air transport operator) Opportunities for crew member to consume a meal must be arranged when the flight duty period exceeds _____ hours. 4. 5. 6.

249. (Air transport operator) A series of duty periods accumulated prior to the commencement of flight duty is not part of flight duty periods. Correct. Not correct. It depends.

250. (Air transport operator) For the crewmenber who is standby at rest place, the flight duty period shall commence from _____. the time the crewmember reports for duty. the time the crewmember performs a standby duty. the time the crewmember departs from the rest place.

251. (Air transport operator) The maximum crew member duty period may not exceed _____ hours in any 30 consecutive days. 210. 220. 230.

252. BEFORE passing the outer marker or final approach point (FAP) (whichever reaches first) in the case of precision approach, if the latest reported visibility or controlling RVR falls below the specified minimum, the precision approach _____. shall not be continued. may be continued to DA/H. may be continued to Missed Approach Point.

253. AFTER passing the outer marker or final approach point (FAP) (whichever reaches first) in the case of precision approach, if the latest reported visibility or controlling RVR falls below the specified minimum, the precision approach _____. shall not be continued. may be continued to DA/H. may be continued to Missed Approach Point.

254. Can flight crewmembers required to be on flight deck duty communicate through hand microphones while aircraft below the transition level/altitude?. Yes, they can. No, they can't. It is the pilot's discretion.

255. (Air transport operation) Following an act of unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall submit, without delay, a report of such an act to _____. Both CAA and the designated local authority. Either CAA or the designated local authority. Local air police unit.

256. (General aviation operation) Is it necessary to select and specify at least one destination alternate aerodrome in the flight plan when a flight be conducted in accordance with the instrument rules and the estimated destination has standard instrument arrival procedures?. Necessary. Not necessary. It depends on the weather conditions of the takeoff aerodrome.

257. (General aviation operation) Airplane flight in accordance with the instrument flight rules shall carry sufficient fuel to fly to the aerodrome to which the flight is planned and thereafter for _____ minutes at cruising level when a destination alternate aerodrome is not required. 30. 45. 60.

285. (General aviation operation) Airplane flight in accordance with the instrument flight rules shall carry a sufficient amount of fuel to fly to the aerodrome to which the flight is planned, thence to an alternate aerodrome, thereafter for _____ minutes at cruising level when a destination alternate aerodrome is required. 30. 45. 60.

259. All aircraft operated in accordance with instrument flight rules shall comply with the instrument flight procedures published by _____. the state in which the aerodrome is located. Republic of China. the state in which the aircraft is registered.

260. Which kind of pilot whose proficiency check can be performed once within every 12 months starting from the date when he/she pass the proficiency check or a re-qualification check?. The pilot of general aviation engaged in business charter flight operation. The pilot-in-command of general aviation operation. The First Officer of general aviation operation.

261. The total flight time shall not exceed _____ hours during any consecutive 7 days for a general aviation pilot. 80. 100. 120.

262. The flight time, duty time and rest period for flight crewmembers engaging in business charter operations shall be the same as flight crewmembers of _____. air transport operation. a generation aviation operation. the Air Force.

263. Is the occurrence of ground safety events incurred in non-operations of aircraft a "flight safety related event"?. Yes. No. It depends.

264. Can a foreigner engage in private aircraft activities?. Yes. No. It depends.

265. Any non-ROC aircraft leased from a foreign country for a period more than ____ months by ROC citizens, legal persons or government agencies, may be registered as an ROC aircraft if its registration in the foreign country has been duly cancelled, provided the lessee is responsible for operating such aircraft and employing the required personnel and equipment. 3. 6. 12.

266. fter the aircraft has been _____, the ROC nationality marks and registration number shall be displayed on a conspicuous part of the aircraft. imported. registered. issued certification.

267. Except as otherwise specified in Civil Aviation Act or other laws, aircraft shall not be detained, attached or provisionally attached from _____. the time the doors are closed until the doors are open. the time the first engine start until all engines are shut down. the time it takes off until completion of its flight.

268. When shall the passengers and cargo of an aircraft be available for examination by appropriate authorities in accordance with law?. Only prior to a flight. Only after a flight. Both prior to and after a flight.

269. To serve the needs of public interest, CAA may, with MOTC approval, instruct any civil air transport enterprise to adjust or increase designated air routes. Correct. Not correct. It depends.

270. A general aviation enterprise that operates business charter shall provide private and exclusive aviation passenger transportation with an airplane or helicopter having a passenger-seat configuration of _____ seats or fewer, excluding each crewmember seat, and shall not engage in individual solicitations. 9. 15. 19.

271. Applicant for airman rating shall complete the required written examination within a period of 12-calendar-month, and shall successfully pass every subject within a maximum of _____ examination sessions. If the applicant fails to do so, it is required that the applicant shall start the application process anew. 2. 4. 6.

272. The practical examination for an applicant for airman rating shall follow the applicant's passage of written examination and shall be completed within a period of _____-calendar-year within a maximum of 3 examination sessions. 1. 2. 3.

273. Unless the rating is either suspended or revoked, the rating holder may apply for renewal in _____ months before the current rating expires. 1. 2. 3.

274. Airman with rating overdue for more than _____ months, shall successfully pass both written and practical examinations before any re-application of the rating can be processed. 6. 9. 12.

275. Flight training equipment means. aircraft. flight simulators. flight training devices. All answers are correct.

276. According to Regulations Governing Establishment of Civil Aviation Training Institutions, flight training means. training activity of ground school course. training activity of actual flight. training activities of ground school course and actual flight.

277. Civil airmen's training can be classify into. aircraft pilot training (flight school). airmen's proficiency training (training center). aviation maintenance technician school. All answers are correct.

278. A civil aviation training institution set up by an academic institution, the name of the training institution shall contain _____. Training Center. Training Academy. Training College.

279. A civil aviation training institution shall have several departments to carry out. teaching, training technique services. general affairs, Human Resources and accounting. All answers are correct.

280. Can the business of an affiliated training institution be run by the relevant department of its parent organization??. Yes, it can. No, it can't. It depends.

281. What document shall be submitted in addition to the ordinary application documents when the applicant intends to carry out flight training at a training institution overseas?. The approval document issued by the civil aviation authority of the country. The approval document issued by the education authority of the country. The approval document issued by the labor authority of the country.

282. What circumstance may CAA report to MOTC for disapproval of the application of a training institution?. Insufficient time slots available at the airport. Insufficient facilities or airspaces at the airport. All answers are correct.

283. The weekly flight timetable of a training institution shall be submitted to the airport or airdrome for approval _____ days prior to the expected date. 7. 10. 14.

284. Training institutions engaged in flight training activities shall purchase _____. liability insurance. accident insurance. medical insurance.

285. What flight activities is not permitted by the aircraft of training institutions?. approved flight training activities. approved test flights. aerial tourism.

286. The license of a training institution is valid for _____ months. 12. 24. 36.

287. When a training institution changes the training syllabi of the training courses such changes shall be reported to CAA for _____. acceptance. approval. review.

288. When a training institution revises training specifications, such revisions shall be reported to CAA for _____. acceptance. approval. review.

289. Can a flight examiner conduct the phase check or final check on those trainees instructed exclusively by himself/herself?. Yes. No. It depends.

290. A training institution for aircraft pilot shall keep the trainees’ training records for a minimum of _____ years from the date of completion of training, suspension of training or transfer to another training institution. 2. 3. 4.

291. What is peer pressure?. The influence of the leader to the member of a group. The influence by the member of a group. The influence by someone who influences the group.

292. Which of the following item is not the symptom of Jet lag?. Sleep disturbance. Elimination habits. Exciting.

293. What is Murphy's law?. We make mistakes because we are human. People will cheat to make life easier. Things that can go wrong will go wrong.

294. What is the hub of the SHELL model of human factors?. Hardware. Software. Liveware.