ATR 72-600 - Progress Check A

Where are the VHF antennas located?. On the bottom part of the fuselage. One on the top and one on the bottom part of the fuselage. On the top part of the fuselage. On the vertical stabilizer.

What are the main parameters computed by the ADC?. IAS, Vs, and Tas. las, Tas, and Gs. Vs, las, Tas, Tat, and Sat. Vs and las.

Where is the PFD located in normal condition?. PFD2 (Capt side) PFD1 (FO side) on DU1 and DU5 respectively. PFD1 (FO side) PFD2 (Capt side) on DU1 and DU5 respectively. PFD1 (Capt side) PFD2 (F/O side) DU2 and DU4 respectively. PFD1 (Capt side) PFD2 (FO side) on DU3 and DU4 respectively.

Choose the correct answer regarding the PFD Nav area logic reversions. ND ARC format on the MFD reverts to Mini-ND Arc format on the PFD. When having a TCAS alert, the Mini ND page automatically reverts to ROSE mode 10 nm. ND Rose and PLAN format on the MFD reverts to Mini ND ROSE format on the PFD. All answers are correct.

In how many different formats can the Nav part of the PFD be presented?. In two (HSI and Mini-ND). In two (HSI and ROLL-ND). In two (HDMI and Mini-ND). In two (HSI and Mini-ATT).

What are the main functions of the MFC in ATR 72-600?. To monitor and control the operation of different aircraft systems. To authorize the operation of various aircraft systems. To manage systems failures and command triggering of associated warnings in the FWS. All answers are correct.

What are the main functions hosted by the CAC in ATR 72-600?. Data Concentration (DCA). Centralized Maintenance (CMA), only CAC 1. Flight Warning (FWA) and Auto-Flight (AFCA). All answers are correct.

Select the answer which best defines the Flight Warning system (FWS) of the ATR 72-600. The FWS alerts the crew with visual attention getters. The FWS is a tool to monitor and manage aircraft system abnormalities and emergencies. The FWS manages the cabin temperature through packs. FWS provides aural alerts only.

Concerning the MFC's: What is the module voltage power supply?. Each module includes a dual 28 VDC power supply. Each module includes a dual 115 VDC power supply. Each module includes a Single 28 VDC power supply. All answers are correct.

Through what equipment can the captain and first officer select Decision Height (DH)?. ICP (Index Control Panel). FGPC (Flight Guidance and Control Panel). MCP (Multifunction Control Panel). MCDU (Multifunction Control Display Unit).

When the aircraft passes through rainfall, which button would activate the mode to compensate the weather radar system for attenuation of the radar signal?. Sect pushbutton. RCT pushbutton. Gain rotary control. Stab pushbutton.

What is the FMS (Flight Management System) controlled by?. 1 FGCP (Flight Guidance Control Panel). 2 VCP (Virtual Control Panel) and their associated MCP (Multifunction Control Panel). 2 MCDU (Multipurpose Control and Display Unit). All answers are correct.

Regarding the VOR system, which one of the following statements best describes the system?. The VOR receivers operate over the range 108.0 and 117.95MHZ. VOR Receiver 1 is used by the lESI. VOR frequency selection can be performed through MCP and MCDU. All answers are correct.

How can the AP automatically disconnect?. An engagement condition is not met, TCAS RA, AHRS disagreement or failure, ADC disagreement or failure. An engagement condition is not met, Stall Warning, AHRS disagreement or failure, GPWS Hard Alert, TCAS RA, ADC disagreement or failure. An engagement condition is not met, Descent below selected DA / MDA, TCAS RA, AHRS disagreement or failure, ADC disagreement or failure. An engagement condition is not met, Stall Warning, AHRS disagreement or failure, ADC disagreement or failure.

What is the AP maximum Bank Angle?. 27 deg. 30 deg. 25 deg. 23 deg.

AP engagement, with no vertical mode selected, results in which vertical mode being shown on the FMA?. The FMA will be blank as this is the basic pitch mode. WING LVL. PITCH HOLD. ALT HOLD.

AP engagement, with no lateral mode selected, results in which lateral mode being shown on the FMA?. WING LVL, HDG HOLD or ROLL HOLD. HDG HOLD, YAW HOLD or WING LVL. ROLL HOLD, HDG HOLD or ALT HOLD. The FMA will be blank as this is the basic roll mode.

PLA quadrant has two clearly identified positions, WHITE mark (on the notch) and beginning of AMBER sector (ramp threshold). The ramp threshold may be overridden to the end / stop of PLA quadrant. This is an exceptional emergency procedure which will provide up to: 3% more power than RTO. 15 % more power than RTO. 10 % more power than RTO. 5% more power than RTO.

Regarding PEC (Propeller Electronic Control), through what does the PEC calculate the propeller speed?. PVM (Propeller Valve Module) and NH sensors. PVM (Propeller Valve Module). PIU (Propeller Interface Unit) and NP sensors. ECC (altitude and airspeed data) and NP sensors.

Regarding the propeller speed governing, which of the following statements about the blade angle governing is correct?. The PVM adjusts the propeller pitch according to the power setting (maintain a constant propeller speed NP). This is the normal on ground governing mode. The EEC automatically increases the fuel flow so as to maintain a minimum propeller speed (NP = 66%). This governing mode is available only if ECC is on.

Regarding the Ignition System, which of the following statements is correct?. It consists of two engine-mounted ignition exciters (A and B), powered by the HOT EMER BAT and two spark igniters. When on ground, it starts by using exciter A or exciter B only, (according to ENG START rotary selector position). When in flight, the system starts using exciters A+B, regardless of start selection. When EEC is deselected, exciters A + B cannot be activated.

The propeller brake is fitted on the engine reduction gear box. When the system is activated, what does it stop?. The propeller only. The propeller and the power turbine. The propeller and the HP spool drives. The propeller and the compressor.

The engine air intake is offset and is a shallow "s" bend designed to: Divide airflow in a primary flow directed to the engine and a secondary flow directed to the oil cooler. Provide uniform inlet flow to the compressor. Provide inertial separation and protection in the event of foreign object ingestion. All answers are correct.

Which fuel pumps operate during fuel crossfeed operation?. One electric pump and two engine feed jet pumps. One electric pump and one engine feed jet pump. Two electric pumps and one engine feed jet pump. Two electric pumps and two engine feed jet pumps.

What fuel pumps are used in normal operation?. The electrical pump during engine start. The electrical pump, in case of cross feed operation. The jet pump, activated after the engine is started. All answers are correct.

What is the feeder jet pump?. A jet pump energized by DC BUS 1. A jet pump to keep the feeder tank full at all times. A jet pump to supply fuel to the engine. An electrical pump to keep the feeder tank full at all times.

Where are the electric pump and the jet pump located?. Both in the surge tank and always submerged. Both in the feeder tank. ELEC PUMP in the feeder tank and the JET PUMP in the motive flow tank. ELEC PUMP in the motive flow tank and JET PUMP in the feeder tank.

How is the lavatory waste bin fire extinguishing system activated?. Automatically, with photoelectric smoke detectors. The lavatory waste bin only has fire detection, no fire extinguishing is available. Pushing the lavatory fire pb in the cabin panel. Automatically, when the temperature is greater than 78°C (172°F).

What do the extinguishing bottles contain?. Water pressurized by nitrogen. Powder mixed with water. Halon pressurized by nitrogen. Extinguishing foam.

What does an illuminated AMBER DISCH light indicate, in relation to the fire extinguisher bottle?. The fire extinguisher bottle is depressurized. There is a fault in the discharge function of the fire extinguisher bottle. The fire extinguisher bottle is ready to be discharged. Discharge test is OK.

What does the fire protection system ensure detection and extinguishing for?. In case of nacelle overheat in the right engine. In case of an engine fire in respective engine. In case of fire in the aft cargo compartment. In case of fire in the lavatory waste bin.

Where can the battery voltage indicator be found?. On the SD ELEC page, LH maintenance panel and the DC / AC overhead panel. On the SD ELEC page and the DC / AC overhead panel. On the SD ELEC page and the LH maintenance panel. On the DC / AC overhead panel and the LH maintenance panel.

Which statement is true regarding the Bus Tie Contactors (ACW)?. Automatically closes when one ACW GEN drops off line. Open if the BTC pb is pressed (ISOL). Open with both engines running in normal operation. All answers are correct.

What can external power be supplied by?. Only ACW supply. DC supply and ACW supply. DC supply and AC supply. Only DC supply.

Which bus supplies non essential equipment?. DC EMER BUS. UTLY BUS 1 and 2. NON ESS BUS. DC STBY BUS.

What is the purpose of the TRU?. To convert DC to AC electrical power. To increase power to the engines. To energize the entire electrical system. To preserve the batteries in electrical emergency condition (dual generator fault).

What two functions are performed by the communications rocker switch on the control column?. PTT (depressed) and MASK (forward). PTT (depressed) and INT (forward). MECH (depressed) and INT (forward). PA (depressed) and RAD (forward).

Where are TCAS Resolutions shown?. On the VSI on the PFD. On the ALT tape on the PFD. On the ADI on the PFD. On the ASI tape on the PFD.

What happens when the EMER call pushbutton at the cabin attendant station is depressed?. Three chimes sounds in the cockpit and the EMER call light illuminates. A single chime sounds and the EMER call light in the cockpit illuminates. Master Caution light illuminates and three chimes sound in the cockpit. Master Caution light illuminates and single chime sounds in the cockpit.

Where are the Radio Altimeter antennas located?. One on the top and one on the bottom part of the fuselage. On the lower part of the fuselage. On the vertical stabilizer. On the top part of the fuselage.

What is the height of the ATR 72-600?. ca 9.9 m. ca 7.7 m. ca 6.6 m. ca 8.8 m.

Which of the following functions is not performed by the AHRS?. The AHRS provides IAS indication in the PFDs. The AHRS supplies the crew and the Ap with magnetic HDG. The AHRS provides Hdg. The AHRS provides Attitude.

When the A / C is on ground powered with Batteries, which are the non powered screens?. D1, D3, and D6. D2, D3, and D5. D1, D3, and D5. D1, D3, and D4.

How many hours can be recorded by the CVR?. Last 30 min or 45 min, depending on the version. Entire flight. Last 60 min, standard for ATR. Last 30 min or 120 min, depending on the version.

What is the Air Data System (ADS) composed of?. The ADS comprises 4 independent ADCs, with each having static ports, pitot tube, TAT probe, and a STBY system. The ADS comprises 2 independent ADCs (Air Data Computers), with each having static ports, pitot tube, TAT probe, and NO STBY system. The Air Data System comprises 3 ADCs (Air Data Computers), 1 STBY pitot probe, and 2 static probes. The ADS comprises 2 independent ADCs ( Air Data Computers), with each having static ports, pitot tube, TAT probe, and a STBY system.

Which of the following statements regarding the MFC system holds true?. De icing boots inflation/ deflation sequence is controlled by the MFCs. When de icing OVRD pb is pressed in, MFCs are not overridden. On ground, when selecting Battery Master Switch in the ON position, the MFC modules B are not tested when the cargo door is open. All answers are incorrect.

What are the main functions hosted by the CAC in ATR 72-600?. Flight Warning (FWA) and Auto-Flight (AFCA). Data Concentration (DCA). Centralized Maintenance (CMA), only CAC 1. All answers are correct.

The MFD System Display can display which of the following page / s?. Fuel page. FLT ctls page. Engine (only secondary parameters). Landing Gear page.

Which of the following best describes the Virtual Control Panel (VCP)?. The VCP is mainly used for sensing and indicating different aircraft parameters. The VCP is located in the overhead panel and it is mainly used for De icing purposes. The VCP displays information about the Comm, Nav, and Surveillance. The VCP is mainly used to set up different aircraft indications.

The function terrain and obstacle awareness" uses aircraft geographic position and a worldwide terrain database to predict potential conflicts. If the aircraft penetrates the caution envelope boundary, which one of the following statements holds true?. On each pilot's glareshield, pushbutton light illuminates AMBER "GPWS". An aural message "terrain ahead" or "obstacle ahead" is generated. The conflicting terrain areas are shown in solid YELLOW on the terrain display on MFD. All answers are correct.

A Terrain Clearance Floor envelope is stored in the database for each runway for which terrain data exits. Which of the following statements is correct about the Terrain Clearance Floor (TCF) function?. If the aircraft descends below this floor, a "terrain terrain" aural warning sounds. It is contained in a circle within the 5.5 NM of the runway threshold. The function warns of a premature descent below this floor, depending of the aircraft's configuration. If the aircraft descends below this floor, the GPWS pushbutton light illuminates on the glareshield.

The GPS is a navigation system based on satellite transmission. What is the GPS connected with?. T2CAS, PFDS, MFDS, CLOCKS, EHSI, and FDAU. T2CAS, TRANSPONDERS, CLOCKS, FGS, and FDAU. T2CAS, transponders, PFDS, MFDS, CLOCKS, and FDAU. T2CAS, PFDS, MFDS, CLOCKS, EHSI, DADC, and FDAU.

When the radar target alert mode is activated, which angle will be monitors beyond the selected. 7.5° on each side of the heading. 15° on each side of the heading. 12° on each side of the heading. 9.5° on each side of the heading.

When will the message AP PITCH TRIM FAIL be displayed?. When the Automatic Trim system has failed. When the AFCS is not able to command the yaw trim with AP engaged. When pitch trim is activated with the AP engaged. When the AFCS is not able to command the pitch trim with AP engaged.

What functions does the Yaw Damper (YD) provide?. Yaw Damping, Wing Leveller, and Turn Coordination. Yaw Damping, Rudder Trim, Aileron Trim. Yaw Damping, Rudder Trim, and Dutch Roll. Yaw damping, Turn coordination, and Rudder Trim.

What modes will be shown on the FMA when the GA pb is depressed (GO-AROUND mode)?. ROLL HOLD and GA. HDG and GA. HDG HOLD and PITCH HOLD. HDG HOLD and GA.

For how long does the altitude alert sound last?. 5 seconds. 3 seconds. 1 second. 7 seconds.

Regarding engines, in case the NH drops below a value, exciters A+B are automatically activated. Under what condition / conditions is this action inhibited?. There is engine failure in case of ATPCS sequence. PEC is deselected. Oil quantity is lost. NH drops below 45%.

Regarding the "Hotel Mode", the system provides power to the aircraft. Which type of current does it supply?. ACW (AC wild). DC 28V and AC 115V. AC 115V. DC 28V.

Regarding the engine, what is the accessory gear boxes driven by?. The spool gas generators. The power turbine shaft. The HP spool. The low press compressor.

Which one of the following statements is correct if we select "OFF" position in the PROP BRK panel without "ready" light illuminated, when the propeller brake is engaged?. Propeller brake remains engaged. "Unlock" light illuminates RED during 15 seconds, and the propeller brake releases. "PROP BRK" CYAN label displayed on EWD flashes. Propeller brake releases immediately.

If boost function is installed, the increase of engine thermal rating up to 12,500 ft will be (PWR MGT on take- off): +4.5%. +10%. +2.5%. +8.5%.

Regarding ECC (Engine Electronic Control), the system controls the torque in accordance with outside conditions and positions of: PLA (power lever angle), PWR MGT selector, and blade angle governing. PLA (power lever angle), PWR MGT selector, and bleeds valves. CL (Condition Lever), blade angle governing, and bleeds valves. CL (Condition Lever), PWR MGT selector, and bleeds valves.

Under normal operation, when is the electrical fuel pump de-energized?. As soon as the engine feed jet pump outlet reaches 8.5 psi. 30 seconds after the engine feed jet pump outlet reaches 4 psi. 30 seconds after the engine feed jet pump outlet reaches 8.5 psi. Never, it is always energized and working.

Which of the following statements is true regarding display of the FEED advisory on the memo panel?. It will be flashing when a empty fuel tank is selected. An advisory message will be displayed in the memo panel with the fuel cross-feed selection ON. It will show FUEL XFEED. All answers are correct.

The refueling panel is energized by the GND HDLG BUS. Where is this supplied from?. HOT EMER BAT BUS. HOT EMER BAT BUS (if EXT PWR is not available). UTLY BUS 1. DC SVCE BUS (if EXT PWR is available).

Would it be possible to discharge a fire extinguisher bottle without pulling the ENG FIRE handle?. No. Yes, by pressing the DISCH pb twice. Yes, but only if the fire handle is illuminated. Yes.

Would it be possible to discharge the fire extinguisher bottles on ground with no engines running and no batteries?. Battery switch has to be ON. Yes. One running engine is required. No.

Which of the following statements about the DC GND SVCE BUS on the Cabin Attendant Panel is true?. Cabin PB controls only the galley electrical supply with priority over the cockpit DC SVCE / UTLY BUS pb. SHED will be illuminated in BLUE if an overload shedding occurs. DC SVCE BUS will be supplied if both cockpit and Cabin Attendant Panel DC SVCE BUS are selected. The cockpit DC SVCE/UTLY BUS pb has priority over the DC SVCE BUS Cabin Attendant pb.

What will happen when the OVRD UND / V push button is depressed (OVRD position)?. The OVRD UND / V is not a pb but a toggle switch. MAIN BAT will be charged by the EMER BAT. DC and AC STBY BUS is supplied by the HOT EMER BAT BUS. DC ESS BUS is supplied from the HOT MAIN BAT BUS.

During normal supply with two generators on line, what supplies the DC EMER BUS and DC STBY BUS?. HOT EMER BAT BUS. DC BUS 1. HOT MAIN BAT BUS. DC ESS BUS.

In starting mode, what is the DC starter / generator START contactor connected to?. The EXTERNAL POWER CONTACTOR, when the aircraft uses external power. The aircraft main battery and the other operating generator (on ground only), during cross start. The BATTERY START CONTACTOR, when the aircraft uses the main battery. All answers are correct.

Which of the following statements are true in case of INV FAULT?. Their respective AC BUS is lost. The AC BUS TIE relay (AC BTR) will automatically close if voltage is below 19V. TRU can be used to recover the INV. The AC BUS TIE relay (AC BTR) will automatically close after 10 seconds.

Where are tuned and standby VHF frequencies shown?. On the Communications MCDU page and VHF Radio Box. Only on the MCDU (FMS). On the PFD and VCP. On the VCP Com page and in the Communications MCDU page.

What does the MECH pb in the overhead panel do?. Connects the Intercom connection next to the External Power connection point. Connects the Intercom to the MECH outlets. Turns on the MECH light in the nose gear. Sounds a horn in the nose gear bay to get the attention of ground crew.

Where are TCAS Resolutions shown?. On the ADI on the PFD. On the VSI on the PFD. On the ASI tape on the PFD. On the ALT tape on the PFD.