What is approximately the minimum pavement width for a 180 turn? 20 m. 24 m. 30 m. 33 m.
What is the maximum flight altitude? 35.000 ft. 37.000 ft. 41.000 ft. 44.000 ft. .
What is the location of the logo Iights? In the wing tips, just in front of the strobe lights. On the top of each horizontal stabilizer. In the inner flap track fairings. In the outer flap track fairings. .
What is approximately the wingspan of a Boeing 737-800 (with winglets)? 35,8 m. 28,9 m. 36,2 m. 29,8 m. .
What is the speed limit to extend the outboard landing lights? 320 kt/ M.82 280 kt/ M.70 270 kt/ M.70 No limitations. .
Select the correct statement regarding the taxi light. The light extinguishes automatically when the gear retracts
It is recommended not to use the light for takeoff and landing because it does not
extinguish automatically. The light shines forward in a fixed position. It consists of two lights, both mounted on the nose wheel strut. Both controlled by
one switch. .
What is the location of the runway turnoff lights? On the nose gear. In the lower airplane fuselage In the wing tips, just in front of the strobe lights. In the wing-root, adjacent to the fixed lights. .
With the FASTEN BELT switch in AUTO the FASTEN BELT signs will illuminate? When the landing gear lever is DOWN or TE FLAPS are NOT UP. Only when the landing gear lever is in the DOWN position. Only when the flaps are not in the UP position. Both the landing gear and the flaps must be extended. .
What determines the correct eye reference position? When looking over the glare shield a small amount of airplane nose structure must
be visible and your view of the instrument panel's A/P-A/T-FMC lights and EHSI must
be unobstructed. The retractable reference marker (as located in the cockpit ceiling) must point
between your eyebrows when it is deployed. Your eyes must be aligned with the eye reference marker-sticker between windows 2
and 3. The underside of the glare shield must be aligned with the topside of the Display
Select Panel.
Which statement concerning circuit breaker panels P6 and P18 is true? P6 is located behind the F/O's seat and P18 behind the Capt's seat. P6 is located behind the Capt's seat and P18 behind the F/O's seat. P6 and P18 are located on the aft overhead panel. Both circuit breaker panels are not located in the cockpit. .
When do the overwing emergency exits lock?
When three of the four Entry/Service doors are closed. Either engine is running The airplane air/ground logic indicates that the airplane is in the air or both thrust
levers are advanced. All above conditions must be met. .
The aircraft water system is supplied by: One main water tank with separate tanks for the toilets. A single water tank located behind the aft cargo compartment. Two water tanks located either side of the aft cargo compartment. One water tank in front of the forward cargo compartment for the forward galley and
toilet, one water tank behind the aft cargo compartment for the aft galley and toilets. .
The passenger oxygen system is activated automatically when the cabin reaches
an altitude of: 9,500 Feet. 10,000 Feet 12,000 Feet. 14,000 Feet. .
Each passenger oxygen generator when activated, will produce oxygen for
approximately: 7 minutes. 12 minutes. 17 minutes. 20 minutes. .
The system pressure of the flight crew oxygen system may be as high as: 1500 P.S.I. 1850 P.S.I. 2000 P.S.I. 2250 P.S.I. .
A fire axe is located in: The flight deck. The forward galley. The aft galley. Both A and C are correct.
With how many escape straps/ropes is the Boeing 737-800 equipped? 2, only in the cockpit. 4, two in the cockpit and two in the cabin 6, two in the cockpit and four in the cabin. 8, two in the cockpit and six in the cabin. .
Which statement is correct regarding EMERGENCY EXIT LIGHTS switch position? OFF position prevents emergency light system operation if the airplane electrical
power fails or is turned off. Armed position illuminates all emergency lights if AC bus 1 fails. ON position illuminates only emergency lights in cabin. ON position illuminates only flight deck emergency lights .
Where on the flight deck is the flight crew oxygen pressure displayed? At the oxygen cylinder At the flight crew oxygen shutoff valve. At the flight crew oxygen pressure indicator on the aft overhead panel Behind the Captains seat on the P18 panel.
The oxygen mask release levers when squeezed and pulled, Release the mask from their stowage boxes. Activate the oxygen and microphone when the stowage box door closes. Inflate the mask harness when the left lever is squeezed.
Activate oxygen flow momentarily to test the regulator. .
Interior emergency exit lights are located: On the lower inboard corner of the stowage bins. Over the entry/service and overwing emergency hatches. In the ceiling. All of the above. .
The EMERGENCY EXIT light switch in the ARMED position: Activates the emergency light system with APU generator power only. Illuminates all emergency lights all the time. Illuminates all interior and exterior emergency lights if there is a loss of electrical
power on DC bus 1, or if AC power has been turned off. Can be reset by switching from ON to ARMED. .
The flight crew oxygen mask EMERGENCY/TEST selector when rotated to the
EMERGENCY position: Supplies 100% oxygen under positive pressure at all cabin altitudes. Test positive pressure supply to the regulator. Provides a mixture of ambient air with oxygen on demand. Supplies 100% oxygen only at high altitudes. .
The cabin will be pressurized to approximately 0,1 psi on the ground
automatically when: Engine thrust is increased for takeoff. The FLT/GRD switch is placed to the FLT position. All doors are closed. The engine bleed switches are selected ON. .
Condition.- Aircraft at cruising altitude, pressurization working in the AUTO mode.
If the aircraft starts climbing and the FLT ALT is not reset, the differential pressure
may rise to a maximum of: 7.90 psi. 8.45 psi. 9.10 psi. 9.45 psi. .
AUTO mode active. The AUTO FAIL light illuminates when: The cabin attitude exceeds 15.800 ft. The rate of cabin pressure change exceeds 1000 sea level ft./min. The pressurization mode selector is moved to ALTN. The aircraft is descending before the selected altitude was reached. .
Condition: Both packs operating. Conditioned air from the left pack flows… Via the mix manifold to the cockpit and passenger cabin. To the cockpit via the mix manifold. Directly to the cabin and mix manifold. Directly to the cockpit and mix manifold. .
Condition: Both packs operating. Conditioned air from the right pack flows… Directly to the passenger cabin. Directly to the cockpit. To the passenger cabin via the mix manifold. To the cockpit via the mix manifold. .
Condition: Right pack operating only. From which source does the cockpit receive
conditioned air? The right air conditioning pack via the mix manifold. It does not receive conditioned air. From the recirculation fan only. Directly from the right air-conditioning pack. .
What fault condition(s) cannot be reset with the trip reset switch? Bleed trip off. Pack trip off. Wing body overheat. Pack trip off and Wing body overheat.
What is the purpose of the recirculation fans? They assist in pressurizing the aircraft. They reduce the temperature of the passenger cabin air. They assist in “fine-tuning” the temperature control of cockpit and cabin. They reduce the air conditioning pack load and the engine bleed air demand. .
Where is the recirculation fan air ducted to? The area around the aft cargo compartment. The galley areas. The mix manifold. The air-conditioning packs.
Condition: In Flight and Left Recirculation fan switch in AUTO. When is the left fan
not operating? When both packs are operating with either pack switch in HIGH. With one pack operating and the associated pack switch in HIGH. When both packs are operating with either pack switch in HIGH and flaps are not
extended. When both packs are operating with either pack switch in HIGH and the gear is not
extended. .
The RAM DOOR FULL OPEN lights: Are illuminated dim when the ram doors are in transit. Will only illuminate in flight with the ram doors full open. Indicate that the ram doors are full open during flight or on the ground. Will only illuminate when the aircraft is on ground. During flight indication is inhibited.
Which part of the system is overheated when the right ZONE TEMP light is
illuminated? The AFT CAB duct. The CONT CAB duct. The FWD CAB duct. The AFT CAB duct and/or cargo compartment. .
Under which condition(s) in flight is the Overboard Exhaust Valve driven open? If either PACK switch is in high, and the right recirculation fan is off. If either PACK switch is in high, and the left recirculation fan is off. When cabin differential pressure exceeds a certain preset value. In flight with flaps up. .
Which statement about the forward cargo compartments is true? The forward cargo compartment is not pressurized. The forward cargo compartment is pressurized but does not have fresh air
circulation. The forward cargo compartment is pressurized and has fresh air circulation, The forward cargo compartment is pressurized and an independent temperature
control zone. .
With the pressurization mode selector in the MAN position… The outflow valve is controlled by a separate DC motor with the same speed as in
AUTO mode. The outflow valve is controlled by a separate DC motor, slower than in AUTO mode. The outflow valve is controlled by a separate AC motor with the same speed as in
AUTO mode. The outflow valve is controlled by a separate AC motor, slower than in AUTO mode. .
Refer to the cabin/flight altitude placard. Cruising at FL 290, the cabin altitude in
manual mode should read: Approximately 8000 ft. Slightly less than FL 200. Approximately 6000 ft. Cannot be determined by this placard. .
The amber OFF SCHEDULED DESCENT light illuminates. What does this indicate? The pressure controller is unable to maintain pressurization. The airplane has descended before reaching the preset cruising altitude set in the
FLT ALT indicator The pressurization controller has failed and will automatically shift to ALT mode. All of the above. .
Following an un-pressurized take-off, when is the first engine Bleed switch
selected to ON? Before reaching to 400 ft AGL. After passing 2000 ft AGL. Between 400 ft and 2000 ft AGL. After the number 1 engine bleed switch has been switched to ON.
(PROCEDURES?) .
Which systems rely on pneumatics for operation? Air conditioning/pressurization, wing anti ice, fuel tanks. Wing anti ice, APU, engine starting. APU, engine starting, Air-conditioning/pressurization. Engine starting, Air-conditioning/pressurization, Wing and engine thermal anti ice,
hydraulic reservoirs and water tank pressurization. .
Which valve has automatically closed when the amber BLEED TRIP OFF light
illuminates? Modulating and shutoff valve. Related engine bleed air valve. Isolation valve All of the above. .
What happens to engine fan air that is used to cool engine bleed air? It is ducted to the pneumatic manifold. It is ducted into the crossbleed manifold. It is discharged overboard. It is ducted into the 5th stage compressor. .
When does the amber DUAL BLEED light illuminate? a) When the APU bleed valve is open and No1 engine bleed valve is closed. b) When the APU bleed valve is open and No1 engine bleed switch is ON. c) When the APU bleed valve is open and No2 engine bleed switch is ON and the
isolation valve is open. Both B and C are correct. .
What is de position of the isolation valve when the ISOLATION VALVE SWITCH is
in AUTO? The isolation valve is always open. The isolation valve is always closed. The isolation valve automatically modulates between open and closed, depending on
pneumatic load. Open when any engine bleed air switch or air conditioning pack switch is positioned
to OFF. .
What happens when the WING BODY OVHT TEST switch is pressed? The amber WING BODY OVHT lights illuminate. The amber PACK TRIP OFF lights illuminate. The amber BLEED TRIP OFF lights illuminate. All of the above. .
Engine bleed air valves are: AC activated and pneumatically operated. DC activated and pneumatically operated. AC operated and pressure activated. DC operated and pressure activated. .
TRIM AIR is added to air from the mix manifold to: Reduce pack demand. Help maintain a constant cabin pressure. Control zone temperature. Control pack temperature. .
The recirculation fans: Are driven by DC motors. Increase airflow at greater cabin differential pressures. Reduce air conditioning pack load. Provide overheat detection downstream of the packs. .
What causes an amber PACK light to illuminate? a) A pack trip off. b) Failure of both primary and standby pack control for the same pack Turning OFF an engine bleed switch. Both A and B are correct. .
Which statement about the wing anti-ice system is correct? The wing anti-ice system can be used to de-ice all leading edge devices. The wing anti-ice system can be used to de-ice the three inboard leading edge slats
only. The leading edge flaps and outboard leading edge slats cannot be de-iced. The wing anti-ice system can be used to de-ice all leading edge slats. The leading
edge flaps cannot be de-iced. No statement is correct .
When the WING ANT-ICE switch is selected to ON in flight: The stickshaker and minimum maneuver speed bars on the speedtape move
upward. Stickshaker logic remains set for icing conditions for the remainder of flight,
regardless of subsequent WING ANTI-ICE switch position. The stickshaker and minimum maneuver speed bars on the speedtape move
upward, as well as VREF. The speedbars and VREF will be adjusted downward
again when the WING ANTI-ICE switch is positioned to OFF The stickshaker and minimum maneuver speed bars on the speedtape move
upward, as well as VREF. Stickshaker logic remains set for icing conditions for the
remainder of flight, regardless of subsequent WING ANTI-ICE switch position. Nothing will change on the speed tape. .
Illumination of an amber COWL ANTI-ICE light indicates: An overpressure condition exists. An over temperature condition exists. The respective cowl anti-ice valve is in transit, or the cowl anti-ice valve position
disagrees with the respective ENGINE ANTI-ICE switch position. Both A and B are correct. .
Refer to the Thermal Anti-Ice (TAI) CDS indication. TAI shown at the top Left side
of each indicator indicates: If amber, an over temperature condition exists in the duct downstream of the engine
cowl anti-ice valve. If green; the cowl anti-ice valve is closed and the related engine anti-ice switch is
OFF If green, the cowl anti-ice valve is open and the related engine anti-ice switch is ON None of the above. .
Which window(s) are heated with the LEFT FWD WINDOW HEAT Switch ON? L2, L3, L4, L5 L1, L2, L3 L2, L4, L5 L1 only .
Statements:
1) Engine Thermal Anti-Icing (TAI) will only be switched on when actually in icing
conditions.
2) Engine TAI must be switched off during climb and cruise below - 55°C SAT. Only statement 1 is correct. Only statement 2 is correct. Both statements are correct. No statement is correct. .
When operating on standby power… Only the auxiliary pitot probe is heated. Only the captain pitot probe is heated. Only the first officer pitot probe is heated. All the above. .
When is wing anti-ice used? On the ground, when icing conditions exist or anticipated. As a de-icer or anti-icer in flight. In flight, prior to ice accumulation. All of the above are correct. .
The R ELEV PITOT light is illuminated. What does this indicate?
The right elevator pitot probe is blocked. Malfunction in the pitot probe system. The right elevator pitot probe is not heated. Both A and B are correct. .
The windshield wipers maintain a clear area on the flight deck forward windows.
Which of the following statements is correct? Each wiper is operated by a separate control. Windshield wipers are hydraulically operated and electrically controlled. Windshield wipers may be operated on a dry windshield. None of the above. .
How are the alpha vanes heated? By Actuating the LEFT or RIGHT FWD window heat switch. Whenever wing anti-ice is being used. Whenever the alternate static ports are heated. By actuating the A or B PROBE HEAT switches. .
Which pitot probe and sensors are not heated? Elevator pitot probes. Static ports. Captain’s pitot probe. First officer’s pitot probe. .
What is the maximum airspeed limit with a WINDOW OVERHEAT? 250 KIAS. 280 KIAS. 250 KIAS below 10 000 ft. 280 KIAS below 10 000 ft. .
The window heat PWR TEST: Must be tested before each flight. Tests the windows L1 and R1 only. Verifies operation of the window heat system. Can be used if all green window heat lights are ON. .
The autopilot can be engaged when the following criteria is/are met: No force is being applied to the control wheel. The STAB TRIM AUTOPILOT cut out switch is positioned to CUT OUT Above 800 feet RA. Both A & B are correct.
Statements:
1) Full automatic flare and touchdown capability is not available in single
A/P operation.
2) During all phases of flight; both A/P’s can be engaged. Only statement 1 is correct. Only statement 2 is correct. Both statements are correct. No statement is correct. .
VNAV is terminated by...
Selecting a holding G/S capture Extending flaps beyond 30 with APP mode engaged All of the above.
In LNAV the AFDS will intercept and track the active FMC route when… On any heading and within 5 NM of the active route segment. The aircraft is on an intercept course of 90° or less to intercept the route segment
before the active waypoint. The speed is so that the airplane is able to turn and make the interception without
“overshoot”. All of the above are correct. .
With CWS engaged, if aileron pressure is released with ___ or less bank, the A/P
will roll wings level and hold existing heading. 4° 6° 10° 12° .
What pitch mode is annunciated after takeoff when the autopilot is first engaged in
CMD? CWS P VNAV V/S MCP SPD .
If an engine failure occurs during take-off, the pitch command target speed is: V2, if the airspeed is below V2. Existing speed, if the airspeed is between V2 and V2 + 20 kts. V2 + 20 kts, if the airspeed is above V2 + 20 kts. All of the above. .
To make a dual A/P approach the second VHF NAV receiver must be tuned to the
ILS frequency and the corresponding A/P engaged in CMD prior to: 800 feet RA 1000 feet RA 1200 feet RA 1500 feet RA .
During a dual A/P approach if the second A/P is armed it will engage automatically
after: LOC and G/S capture and when descent below 800 feet RA occurs. LOC and G/S capture and when descent below 1000 feet RA occurs. LOC and G/S capture and when descent below 1200 feet RA occurs. LOC and G/S capture and when descent below 1500 feet RA occurs.
On the MCP, when a “8” character is flashing in the IAS/MACH display it means: That electrical power has just been applied. Autothrottle has disengaged. Commanded speed cannot be reached due to overspeed. Commanded speed cannot be reached due to underspeed. .
What will happen if LVL CHG is engaged but there is no active speed mode? Airplane will maintain an airspeed of 250 kts. The existing speed will become target speed. In this case it is not possible to engage LVL CHG. None of the above.
After lift off, the A/T remains in THR HLD until: 400 feet radio altitude. 800 feet radio altitude. 400 feet radio altitude and 18 seconds after lift off. 800 feet radio altitude and 18 seconds after lift off. .
Minimum speed reversion is not available when: a) The A/T is OFF and the AFDS is in ALT HLD. b) After G/S capture. AFDS is in V/S mode. Both A and B are correct. .
The Automatic Flight System (AFS) consists of: a) The autopilots and the flight director system. b) Control display unit (CDU). c) The auto throttle (A/T). d) Both A and C are correct. .
In normal operation, what provides the A/T system with N1 limit values? A/T computer. ADFS. FMC. ADIRU. .
Which mode must be armed before the second autopilot can be selected? VNAV. VOR/LOC. APP. LNAV.
Which of the following occurs when a TO/GA switch is pressed below 2000 feet
radio altitude from a single autopilot ILS approach. The autopilot disengages. The A/T/ (if armed) engages in GA mode. The A/T/ (if armed) advances thrust levers to reduced go-around N1. All of the above are correct. .
Level change climbs and descents while using the auto flight system are made
using the airspeed display on: The CDU. The MCP. The A/T/ computer. Both A and C are correct. .
With VNAV engaged, the AFDS pitch and A/T modes are commanded by the: MCP. FMC. FCC. GWPS. .
If the pilot overrides the control column with a manual pitch input, which of the
following occurs immediately? The autopilot engages in LNAV. LNAV disengages. The autopilot changes to CWS P. LEVEL CHANGE annunciates. .
Which A/T modes permit manual thrust changes without A/T interference? GA and ARM. N1 and ARM. THR HLD and ARM. Only THR HLD. .
During a dual autopilot ILS approach, at which radio altitude (RA) should the
FLARE mode engage? 300 feet. 200 feet. 150 feet. 50 feet. .
Which statement is true of the A/T? The auto throttle can move the thrust lever separately. The auto throttle can be manually overridden. The auto throttle will reduce thrust toward idle at 27 ft RA. All of the above are correct. .
LNAV automatically disconnects when: HDG SEL mode is engaged. Upon VOR or localizer capture. Reaching a route discontinuity. All of the above are correct. .
The Cockpit Voice Recorder: Only 1 channel records through the area microphone the flight deck conversations. Erases recordings older than 60 minutes. Uses 2 independent channels recording flight deck audio for 60 minutes. Uses other channels for ACP (headset) audio and transmissions for the observer
only. .
Altitude alert, ground proximity warning system (GWPS) and wind shear are: Integral components of the flight mode alerting system. Audible through the audio control panel in the degraded mode. Not heard on an audio system operating in the degraded mode. Both B and C are correct. .
The audio control panel push to talk switch: Has an I/C (intercom) position. This position keys the oxygen mask or boom
microphones for transmission via the transmitter selector. Has an R/T position. This position keys the oxygen mask or boom microphones for
transmission as selected by the transmitter selector. Has an I/C position. This position keys the oxygen mask or boom microphones for
direct transmission over the flight interphone utilizing the transmitter selector. Has 2 positions for intercom and radio telephone. .
In degraded mode audio system cannot access the passenger address system
through the audio control panel. What are combinations for transmission and
reception at the degraded station? Captain/VHF-1, F.O/VHF-2. Observer/VHF-2. Captain/VHF-2, F.O/VHF-1. Observer/VHF-1. Captain/VHF-1, F.O/VHF-1. Observer/VHF-1. Captain/VHF-1, F.O/VHF-2. Observer/VHF-1. .
The communication system includes: a) Cockpit voice recorder system. b) Interphone communication system. Audio control panels. Both A and B are correct. .
Which statement about illumination of the GRD POWER AVAILABLE light is
correct? Ground Power has been plugged in and automatically powers both ground services
busses. Ground Power has been plugged in and meets airplane power quality standards. Ground Power has been plugged in, however airplane power quality is not measured. None of the above. .
Illumination of the SOURCE OFF light indicates: The source manually selected to power the Transfer Bus has failed, and the
automatic bus transfer function has closed the BTB's to power the Transfer Bus from
another source. The source manually selected to power the Generator Bus has failed, and the
automatic bus transfer function has closed the BTB's to power the Generator Bus
from another source. The associated transfer bus is no longer powered. The associated generator bus is no longer powered. .
When during cruise, one engine driven generator fails: Only the associated GEN OFF BUS light and SOURCE OFF light illuminate. Only the associated GEN OFF BUS light, SOURCE OFF light and TRANSFER BUS
OFF light illuminate. The GEN OFF BUS light, SOURCE OFF light, and TRANSFER BUS OFF light
illuminate. Also various other lights associated with systems, which were powered by
the transfer bus illuminate. Due to redundancy, there will be no lights illuminating unless an annunciator panel is
pushed (recall). .
After the loss of all generators the fully charged main battery and auxiliary battery
(dual battery) provide standby power for a minimum of: 30 minutes. 60 minutes. 90 minutes. 120 minutes.
With the STANDBY POWER switch in the AUTO position, the loss of all engine or
APU electrical power results in automatic switching from the normal power source
to the alternate power source for standby power: In flight only. On the ground only. Both in flight and on the ground. On the ground only when the APU is running, in flight always. .
Illumination of the STANDBY PWR OFF light indicates:
The AC standby bus is unpowered. The DC standby bus is unpowered. The battery bus is unpowered. All of the above can be true. .
When the IDG experiences a high oil temperature: The IDG automatically disconnects and its DRIVE light illuminates.
The IDG will keep working, unless it is disconnected automatically due to low oil
pressure. The IDG automatically disconnects and the associated DRIVE light, SOURCE OFF
light and GEN OFF BUS light illuminate. The IDG HIGH OIL TEMPERATURE light illuminates. The IDG has to be
disconnected manually via Generator Drive Disconnect Switch.
Illumination of the BAT DISCHARGE light indicates: The battery charger is inoperative. Excessive battery discharge is detected with the battery switch in the ON position. The battery bus is not powered. For maintenance purposes only, to test the capacity of the battery. .
The TR UNIT light will illuminate in flight:
When TR-1 has failed. When TR-2 has failed. When TR-3 has failed When any TR has failed. .
Which statement about the ELEC light is correct? Illumination of the ELEC light indicates a fault exists in the AC power system. The ELEC light can illuminate both in flight and on the ground. The ELEC light can illuminate on the ground only. The ELEC light can illuminate in flight only. .
The cross bus tie relay automatically opens at glide slope capture to... Prevent a single bus failure from affecting both navigation receivers and Flight
Control Computers (FCC’s) Provide more power to the AC STANDBY Bus Ensure that the STANDBY DC is powered. Make sure that the captain’s side navigation receiver and FCC is the only one
connected to the battery. This to ensure guidance in case of a total generator failure. .
One basic principle of operation for the B737 electrical system is... All generator bus sources can be automatically connected by the Standby Power
System There is no paralleling of the AC power sources
There is no paralleling of any power source
An AC power source may be used in parallel with a DC power source. .
DC busses powered from the battery following a loss of both generators are : Battery bus, DC Standby bus, Hot battery bus DC standby Bus, Hot Battery Bus & Switched hot battery bus Battery bus, DC Standby bus, Hot battery bus & Switched hot battery bus (even
when the battery switch is OFF) Battery bus, DC Standby bus, Hot battery bus & Switched hot battery bus.
DC voltage and amperage may be read on the DC voltmeter and ammeter for the
battery and each of the 3 TR’s. The Standby power and Battery bus displays only
DC voltage. Normal indication is: ______ Volts
a) 24 ± 4 V
b) 26 ± 6 V
c) 24 ± 2 V
d) 26 ± 4 V .
The engine Integrated Drive Generators (IDG’s): Are three phase, 115 volt and 400-cycle direct current. Adjusts varying generator speeds throughout normal range of operation. Allow the generator to maintain a variable speed throughout the normal range of
operating range of the engine. Have an integral electro-mechanical disconnect device that does provide complete
mechanical isolation of the IDG.
AC transfer busses:
a) Supply power to the 115V AC busses.
b) Cannot be powered by both external power and APU at the same time.
c) Can be paralleling sources of power.
d) Both A and B are correct.
Illumination of the amber generator drive (DRIVE) light indicates low oil pressure
caused by which of the following? a) IDG failure. b) IDG disconnected through generator drive DISCONNECT switch. c) IDG automatic disconnect due to high oil pressure. d) Both A and B are correct. .
Illumination of the GEN OFF BUS light indicates: The related main bus is not powered. The related transfer bus is not powered. (answer also correct) The IDG is not supplying power to the related transfer bus. The APU is running and not powering a bus. .
In flight, if the APU generator is supplying both AC transfer busses, positioning the
BUS TRANS switch to OFF will: Cause AC transfer bus 1 to lose power. Cause AC transfer bus 2to lose power. Cause both AC transfer busses to lose power. Not cause either AC transfer bus to lose power. .
Both AC transfer busses can be powered simultaneously by: a) A single IDG on the ground. b) The APU generator while on the ground or in flight. c) The APU and external power. d) Both A and B are correct. .
If a take-off is made with the APU powering both transfer busses. a) One transfer bus will disconnect automatically after lift off. b) If the APU is either shut down, or fails, the engine generators are automatically
connected to their related transfer busses. c) The generators will not automatically come on line if the APU is shut down or fails. d) Both transfer busses will automatically disconnect after lift off. .
On the ground, with the BATTERY switch OFF and the STANDBY POWER switch in
AUTO, the battery bus is: Not powered. Powered by TR#3. Powered by the hot battery bus. Powered by the battery. .
The ground power switch when momentarily moved to the ON position and ground
power is available: Removes previously connected power from DC transfer busses. Connects ground power to AC main busses if power quality is correct. Disconnects ground power from AC transfer busses. Connects ground power to AC transfer busses if power quality is correct. .
With the BUS TRANSFER switch in AUTO, the crosstie bus relay automatically
opens under which of the following conditions? At localizer capture At glide slope capture during a flight director or autopilot ILS approach. When TR1 and TR 2 fail. When AC volts meter reaches 26 volts (+/- 4 volts) .
When the STANDBY POWER switch is OFF: The STANDBY PWR OFF light will be illuminated. AC standby bus, static inverter and DC standby bus are powered. AC standby bus is powered by battery through static inverter. The static inverter provides 28-volt DC power to transfer bus 1. .
The 115 volt AC standby bus is powered by: a) The 115-volt AC transfer bus 1 under normal conditions. b) The battery bus through the static inverter under normal conditions. c) The battery through the static inverter when both engine driven generators and the
APU fail. d) Both A and C are correct. .
Engine starter cut-out speed is approximately: 46%N2. 46%N1. 56%N2. 56%N1. .
The EEC drives all engine indications except: Oil quantity and engine vibration. Oil temperature and engine vibration. Fuel flow and oil pressure. Fuel flow and engine vibration. .
The EEC monitors engine parameters to detect impending hot starts, engine stalls,
EGT start limit exceedances, and wet starts during: Ground starts only. lnflight starts only. Ground starts and inflight starts. Ground starts only when the APU is used as the bleed air source. .
The EEC automatically turns off the ignition and shuts off the fuel to the engine if: An impending hot start is detected during ground starts. The EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground starts. The EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground or inflight starts. The fuel flow exceeds the starting limit during ground starts. .
If a wet start is detected, the EEC will automatically turn off ignition and shut off
fuel to the engine: 10 seconds after the start lever is moved to idle during ground starts. 15 seconds after the start lever is moved to idle during ground starts. 15 seconds after the start switch is moved to GRD during ground starts. 30 seconds after the start switch is moved to GRD during ground starts. .
lf a crossbleed start is required during inflight starting, a "X-BLD" indication will be
displayed: On the ENG OUT page. Above the N1 dial on the CDS. Above the N2 dial on the CDS. On the "SYS" page of the CDS. .
Which statement about the EEC is true? The EEC provides redline exceedance protection for N1, N2 and EGT. The EEC provides flameout protection and redline exceedance protection for N1, N2
and EGT. The EEC provides flameout protection and redline protection for N1 and N2. The
EEC does not provide EGT redline exceedance protection, None of the above. .
The EEC provides redline exceedance protection for: N2 only, in both the normal and alternate mode. On ground only N2 in both normal and alternate mode, in flight N1 and N2 in both the
normal and alternate mode. N1 and N2, only in the normal mode. N1, N2 and EGT in both the normal and alternate mode. .
When are the secondary engine indication automatically displayed? In flight when an engine start lever is moved to CUTOFF. In flight when an engine N1 RPM is below idle. In flight when CONT is selected with the engine start switch. Both A and B are correct.
The thrust reverser can be deployed when either radio altimeter senses less than… 7 feet altitude. 10 feet altitude. 12 feet altitude. 18 feet altitude.
When is an auto-relight initiated? a) When an uncommanded rapid decrease in N1 occurs. b) When an uncommanded rapid decrease in N2 occurs. c) When N2 is below idle RPM. d) Both B & C are correct. .
Statements:
1) Starter Duty Cycle: Each start attempt has to be limited to a maximum of two
minutes.
2) Starter Duty cycle: A minimum of 1 minute is required between two start
attempts. a) Only statement 1 is correct. b) Only statement 2 is correct. c) Both statements are correct. d) No statement is correct. .
When during an aborted engine start the engine has to be motored but there was
already a starter cut-out, the following procedure has to be followed: (QRH) a) Re-engage engine start switch immediately. b) Re-engage engine start switch when N2 is below 56%. c) Re-engage engine start switch when N2 is below 20%. d) Re-engage engine start switch when N2 is indicating 0%. .
Engine oil pressure is in the amber band when take-off thrust is set. Which of the
following is true? a) Acceptable, no action required. b) Normal, but requires continuous monitoring of the oil temperature. c) Permitted only for completion of the flight, preferably at reduced thrust setting. d) DO NOT TAKE-OFF.
Reverse thrust can be selected with the forward thrust levers in: a) T/O position. b) Continuous thrust position. c) Idle thrust position. d) Any forward thrust position.
What indicates engine starter disconnect? a) The LOW OIL PRESSURE light extinguishes with N1 at 56% RPM. b) The ENGINE START switch returns to OFF at N2 56% RPM and the START VALVE
OPEN alert extinguishes. c) The ENGINE START switch returns to OFF at 36% d) The start switch rotates to FLT, N1 17-20% with N2 stabilized. .
Which hydraulic system normally operates the thrust reversers? a) System A. b) System B. c) System A for engine #1, System B for engine #2. d) Standby system.
Prior to normal engine start: a) Only oil quantity and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine start
switch to GND. b) Only N1, N2, oil quantity and engine vibration are available prior to placing the
engine start switch to GND. c) The EEC is not powered until the engine accelerates to a speed greater than 15%
N2. d) Only digital readouts are visible for engine indications. .
The EEC automatically selects approach idle in flight anytime: a) The airplane descents below 15.000 ft MSL. b) Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine start switches are in CONT or FLT. c) Flaps are in the landing configuration and thrust lever angle is above 34 degrees for
either engine. d) Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine. .
What is the electrical power source for the APU starter motor? a) Always the battery. b) The battery or AC power from transfer bus 1. c) Always AC power. d) None of the above. .
The APU can supply both transfer busses: On the ground or in flight. On the ground only. In flight only. Only on ground or in flight below 17.000 feet. .
Up to which altitude may the APU be operated? a) 10.000 ft. b) 17.000 ft c) 37.000 ft. d) 41.000 ft.
Condition: APU running.
When either the FAULT light, LOW OIL PRESSURE light or the OVERSPEED light
illuminates, the APU will automatically shutdown.
The FAULT light, LOW OIL PRESSURE light or OVERSPEED light will extinguish: a) When the APU switch is positioned to OFF. b) 5 minutes after the APU switch has been positioned to OFF. c) When the air inlet door has closed completely d) Immediately after the automatic shutdown.
When the APU switch is moved to the OFF position while the APU is supplying
bleed air, the APU will shutdown after: a) 30 seconds. b) 60 seconds. c) 90 seconds. d) 120 seconds. .
The APU may be used as an electrical and pneumatic source simultaneously up to: a) 10 000 feet
b) 17 000 feet
c) 25 000 feet
d) 30 000 feet .
The APU start cycle may take up to... a) 60 seconds
b) 120 seconds
c) 135 seconds
d) 3 minutes.
The APU GEN OFF BUS light will illuminate... a) When the APU is at operational speed and is not supplying an AC Transfer bus
b) Whenever the APU is supplying power to generator bus No.1
c) Whenever the APU is supplying power to generator bus No.2
d) Whenever the APU is supplying power to a Main bus but not the associated Transfer
bus.
The APU will shutdown on the ground if...
a) The battery switch is placed to OFF.
b) A low oil pressure has been detected.
c) An APU fire is detected.
d) All of the above are correct. .
Which of the 4 lights located on the APU control panel illuminating, will not cause
an automatic shutdown of the APU? a) LOW OIL PRESSURE.
b) MAINT.
c) FAULT.
d) OVERSPEED. .
The APU will shutdown in flight when: a) The battery switch is selected to OFF.
b) The MAINT light illuminates.
c) The fuel LOW PRESSURE lights in the right main tank illuminate.
d) Immediately after moving the APU switch to OFF. .
The APU can operate and supply electrical power up to:
a) 17.000 ft.
b) 35.000 ft.
c) 37.000 ft.
d) 41.000 ft. .
The APU supplies bleed air for both air conditioning packs:
a) On the ground only.
b) In the air only.
c) On the ground and in the air.
d) Never. .
APU cooling air:
a) Enters through the air inlet door.
b) Enters through the ram air system.
c) Enters through a cooling air inlet above the APU exhaust outlet.
d) Is supplied by the air conditioning packs. .
If the APU GEN OFF BUS light fails to illuminate by the end of the start cycle: a) The FAULT light illuminates.
b) The MAINT light illuminates.
c) The APU failed a self-test and the OVERSPEED light will illuminate.
d) There is no light associated with this malfunction.
The APU electronic unit (ECU) provides: a) Automatic shutdown protection for overspeed conditions, low oil pressure and high oil
temperature.
b) Automatic shutdown protection for APU fire, fuel control unit failure and EGT
exceedance.
c) Automatic control of APU speed through the electronic fuel unit.
d) All of the above are correct. .
If the APU is the only source of electrical power:
a) In flight, the galley busses are automatically shed.
b) In flight, the APU attempts to carry the full electrical load
c) In the ground, the galley busses are automatically shed
d) In the ground, the main busses are shed first if an overload condition is sensed. .
Fire detection is provided for:
a) Engines and APU only.
b) Engines, APU, wheel well, and the toilets.
c) Engines, APU, wheel well, electrical / avionic compartments, and toilets.
d) Engines, APU, wheel well, cargo compartments, and toilets. .
Which lights should illuminate during an OVHT/FIRE test?
a) Master FIRE WARN lights, MASTER CAUTION lights, OVHT/DET light, Fire Warning
Switches, engine overheat lights and Cargo Fire Warning lights.
b) Master FIRE WARN lights, the MASTER CAUTION lights, OVHT/DET light, Fire
Warning Switches, engine overheat lights and Cargo Fire Warning lights, Also the
APU Fire Warning light on the APU ground control panel in the LH wheel bay will
illuminate.
c) Master FIRE WARN lights, the MASTER CAUTION lights, OVHT/DET light, Fire
Warning Switches and engine overheat lights. Also the APU Fire Warning light on the
APU ground control panel in the RH wheel bay will illuminate.
d) Master FIRE WARN lights, the MASTER CAUTION lights, OVHT/DET light, Fire
Warning Switches and engine overheat lights. Also the APU Fire Warning light on the
APU ground control panel in the LH wheel bay will illuminate.
Pulling the engine Fire Warning Switch:
a) Closes the Spar Fuel Shutoff Valve. The Engine Fuel Shutoff Valve must be closed
using the Engine Start Lever. Also both squibs on each fire extinguisher are armed.
b) Closes the Engine Fuel Shutoff Valve. The Spar Fuel Shutoff Valve must be closed
using the Engine Start Lever. Also one squib on each fire extinguisher is armed.
c) Closes both the Spar Fuel Shutoff Valve and the Engine Fuel Shutoff Valve, also one
squib on each fire extinguisher is armed.
d) Closes both the Spar Fuel Shutoff Valve and the Engine Fuel Shutoff Valve, also
both squibs on each fire extinguisher are armed.
Placing the TEST switch in the FAULT / INOP position tests... a) The engine overheat detectors.
b) The fault detection circuits for both engines and the APU.
c) The APU DET INOP light, FAULT light and APU BOTTLE DISCHARGE.
d) The fault detection circuits and loop continuity for both engines and the APU. .
Pulling the APU fire warning switch up:
a) Discharges the APU fire extinguisher.
b) Trips the APU generator control relay and generator breaker, arms the associated
extinguisher and closes the APU bleed air valve.
c) Closes the fuel shutoff valve and the APU inlet door and allows APU fire warning
switch to be rotated for discharge..
d) Both B and C are correct. .
The power source for ENG, APU and Cargo fire extinguishing is: (not Wheel well)
a) Transfer bus 1.
b) The switched battery bus.
c) The hot battery bus.
d) None of the above.
In case of Cargo Fire, the Cargo Fire (FWD / AFT) Warning Lights are illuminated
red when…
a) At least one detector in each loop detects smoke (with power failed in one loop, at
least one detector on the remaining loop detects smoke).
b) At least one detector in each loop detects smoke.
c) At least one detector in each loop detects smoke or fire condition.
d) None of the above. .
Main wheel well fire protection consists of fire detection powered by the....
a) Battery bus
b) No.2 AC Transfer bus
c) Switched hot battery bus.
d) DC bus 1. .
Engine fire protection consists of….
a) Engine overheat and fire detection powered by the battery bus, engine fire
extinguishing powered by the hot battery bus.
b) Engine overheat and fire detection powered by the battery bus, engine fire
extinguishing powered by the switched hot battery bus.
c) Engine overheat and fire detection powered by the hot battery bus, engine fire
extinguishing powered by the battery bus.
d) Engine overheat and fire detection powered by the switched hot battery bus, engine
fire extinguishing powered by the battery bus.
The function of the EXT TEST switch on the Overheat/Fire Protection Panel is… a) To test the capacity of each fire extinguisher bottle.
b) To test the detection circuits and capacity of each extinguisher bottle.
c) To test the discharge circuits and capacity of each extinguisher bottle.
d) To test the discharge circuits for each extinguisher bottle. .
The number of flight spoilers located on each wing is:
a) 2.
b) 3.
c) 4.
d) 6. .
The Flap/Slat Electronic Unit (FSEU) does not provide:
a) LE skew detection for slats 2 through 7, except during autoslat operation.
b) TE asymmetry protection by removing hydraulic pressure to the TE flaps if an
asymmetry is detected.
c) Overspeed protection for LE devices.
d) Protection from uncommanded motion by LE devices or TE flaps. .
The flap load relief system is operational at the:
a) Flaps 10, 15, 25, 30 and 40 positions.
b) Flaps 25, 30 and 40 positions.
c) Flaps 30 and 40 positions.
d) Flaps 40 position only. .
When the speedbrakes are deployed in flight, the SPEEDBRAKES EXTENDED
light:
a) Always illuminates.
b) Illuminates only when the speedbrakes are deployed uncommanded.
c) Illuminates only when the radio altitude is less than 800 feet.
d) Illuminates when the radio altitude is less than 800 feet, or the TE flaps are extended
beyond flaps 10. .
Hydraulic system B is lost. Which statement is correct:
a) The main yaw damper is inoperative. The YAW DAMPER light will illuminate when
the system Flight Control Switch is selected to STBY RUD. The Yaw Damper switch
cannot be reset.
b) The main yaw damper is inoperative. The standby yaw damper will start to operate
when the system B Flight Control Switch is selected to STBY RUD and the Yaw
Damper Switch is reset.
c) Operation of the main yaw damper is not affected by a loss of hydraulic system B.
d) None of the above. .
lf wheel spin-up is not detected on landing with the SPEED BRAKE lever in the
armed position, the flight spoilers will deploy automatically:
a) When any gear strut compresses.
b) Only when the right main landing gear strut compresses.
c) Only when the left main landing gear strut compresses.
d) When reverse thrust is selected. .
To operate the Feel system, the Elevator Feel Computer uses:
a) Either hydraulics system A or B pressure.
b) Either hydraulics system A or B pressure (whichever is higher).
c) Hydraulics system A.
d) Hydraulics system B. .
A Mach Trim system provides speed stability at the higher Mach numbers...Mach
trim is automatically accomplished above:
a) Mach 0.50.
b) Mach 0.615.
c) Mach 0.655.
d) Mach 0.70. .
The trailing edge flaps are at 15 units. The correct indication on the aft overhead
panel for the leading edge devices is:
a) All amber TRANSIT lights illuminated.
b) All LE devices EXT lights illuminated.
c) All LE devices FULL EXT lights illuminated.
d) LE slats EXT lights and LE flaps FULL EXT lights illuminated. .
The amber LE FLAPS TRANSIT light:
a) Indicates all LE Devices are fully extended.
b) Indicates LE Slats are fully extended.
c) Is inhibited during Autoslat operation inflight.
d) Provides TE Flaps asymmetry protection. .
What is the maximum flap extension altitude?
a) 10 000 feet.
b) 17 000 feet.
c) 20 000 feet.
d) 23 000 feet. .
The flight spoilers rise on the wing with up aileron and remain faired on the wing
with down aileron. When the control wheel is displaced more than approximately
____ degrees, spoiler deflection is initiated.
a) 6°.
b) 8°.
c) 10°.
d) 12°. .
The Speed Trim System (STS) operates most frequently during takeoff & goaround. Conditions for speed trim operation are...
a) Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.50, 10 seconds after takeoff, 5 seconds
following release of trim switches, N1 above 60%, autopilot not engaged, sensing of
trim requirement.
b) Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.50, 10 seconds after takeoff, 10 seconds
following release of trim switches, N1 above 40%, sensing of trim requirement.
c) Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.50, 15 seconds after takeoff, 10 seconds
following release of trim switches, N1 above 60%, sensing of trim requirement.
d) Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.50, 15 seconds after takeoff, 5 seconds
following release of trim switches, N1 above 40%, autopilot engaged, sensing of trim
requirement. .
The amber FEEL DIFF PRESS light illuminates when the:
a) Flaps are up and a pressure-imbalance between hydraulic systems A & B is detected
or if one of the elevator feel pitot systems fails.
b) Flaps are not up and a hydraulic pressure imbalance is detected or one of the
elevator feel pitot systems fails.
c) Flaps are up or down and a hydraulic pressure imbalance is detected or if one of the
elevator pitot systems fails.
d) No correct answer is provided. .
In the event of an elevator jam, transfer mechanisms allow:
a) For lighter than normal forces to be used on the control column for take-off and
landing.
b) The control columns to be physically separated.
c) Applying force against the jam will breakout only the Captain’s control column.
d) The elevator feel and centring unit to transfer proper aerodynamic forces to the
control columns. .
Main electric trim authority limit is:
a) Flaps retracted 3.95 to 14.5 units.
b) Flaps retracted 3.95 to 12.5 units.
c) Flaps retracted 0.20 to 16.9 units.
d) Flaps retracted 0.5 to 14.5 units. .
Conditions for speed trim operation include:
a) 5 seconds after take-off.
b) Ten seconds after release of trim switches.
c) 100 KIAS – M 0.50.
d) N1 above 50%.
When hydraulic system B is lost: (System A operating):
a) Main yaw damper functions are available as long as hydraulic system A is providing
normal pressure and the yaw damper switch is ON.
b) Standby yaw damper functions are available as long as hydraulic system A is
providing normal pressure and the yaw damper switch is ON.
c) Main and standby yaw damper functions are inoperative.
d) Standby yaw damper functions are available if the FLT CONTROL B switch is placed
to STBY RUD and the YAW DAMPER switch is reset to ON. .
Yaw damper inputs (main or standby) can be overridden:
a) Only when the yaw damper switch is OFF.
b) By trim inputs but not rudder pedal inputs.
c) By rudder pedal inputs but not trim inputs.
d) By either trim or rudder pedal inputs. .
The number of ground spoilers located on each wing is:
a) 2.
b) 3.
c) 4.
d) 6. .
The number of slats located on each wing is:
a) 2.
b) 3.
c) 4.
d) 6. .
Decreasing airspeed during descent from altitude by using speedbrakes. The
correct position of the SPEEDBRAKE LEVER is:
a) ARMED.
b) FLIGHT DETENT.
c) UP.
d) Any intermediate position.
The ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch:
a) Fully extends the LE devices using standby hydraulic pressure and electrically
extends the TE flaps.
b) Closes the flight spoiler shutoff valve.
c) Activates the standby hydraulic pump and pressurizes the standby rudder power
control unit.
d) Arms the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch, activates the standby hydraulic pump
and closes the trailing edge flaps bypass valve. .
The autoslat system:
a) Provides for slat deployment above Vmo/Mmo.
b) Drives the slats to the full-extended position when the TE flaps 1 through 5 are
selected and the airplane approaches a stall.
c) Is normally powered by hydraulic system A.
d) Is normally powered by the Power Transfer Unit (PTU). .
The Power Transfer Unit (PTU) provides an alternate source of power for the
autoslat system if:
a) A loss of hydraulic system A pressure is sensed.
b) The hydraulic system A engine driven pump is inoperative.
c) The alternate flaps position switch is momentarily held down.
d) Pressure from the Hydraulic system B engine driven pump drops below limits. .
In addition to hydraulic system A and B, the rudder can also be powered by the
standby hydraulic system through the:
a) System A standby rudder power control unit.
b) System B standby rudder power control unit.
c) Standby rudder power control unit
d) Main rudder power control unit .
The elevator feel computer provides elevator system feel. This computer receives
inputs from:
a) Altitude and elevator position.
b) Elevator balance tabs position.
c) Only system A hydraulic pressure.
d) Airspeed and stabilizer position. .
Select the correct statement:
a) The primary flight controls are powered by hydraulic system A and B, with backup
from the standby hydraulic system for the rudder and manual reversion for the aileron
and elevator.
b) Flight spoilers are used both for roll control, descent and deceleration.
c) The trailing edge flaps can be both extended and retracted using the alternate flap
drive system.
d) All statements are correct. .
DEU 1 fails. Which statement is correct?
a) The Captain's outboard DU, inboard DU and the upper DU blank. The displays will
present data again after the Displays Source Selector is positioned to ALL ON 2.
b) The Captain's outboard DU, inboard DU and the upper DU blank. The displays will
present data again after the Control Panel Switch is positioned to BOTH ON 2.
c) DEU 2 automatically supplies data to all six DU's. On both PFD's the message
DSPLY SOURCE is displayed.
d) DEU 2 automatically supplies data to all six DU’s, although this will be in a degraded
format. .
The Captain's outboard DU has failed. Which statement is correct?
a) The Captain's outboard DU blanks and the PFD automatically moves to the inboard
DU. The ND can be selected back on the inboard DU using the OUTBD/INBD
Control Panel Select Switch.
b) The Captain's outboard DU blanks. The PFD can be selected on the inboard DU
using the OUTBD/INBD Control Panel Select Switch. c) The Captain's outboard DU blanks and the PFD automatically moves to the inboard
DU. In turn the ND will automatically move to the lower DU.
d) The PFD automatically moves to the inboard DU. The ND can be selected on the
lower DU using the LOWER DU Control Panel Select Switch.
An amber NO VSPD Flag next to the speed tape on the PFD indicates:
a) V1 and VR have not been entered into the FMC.
b) V1, VR and V2 have not been entered into the FMC.
c) V2 has not been selected on the MCP.
d) The ZFW has not been entered into the FMC. .
Which statement about the UP bug is correct?
a) The UP bug is displayed only when flaps are up.
b) The UP bug is displayed independent of flap position up to approximately 20.000'.
c) The UP bug starts to flash at UP bug speed minus 20 kts.
d) The UP bug is removed after flap retraction.
When the aircraft crosses the transition altitude during climb and STD is not
selected:
a) The barometric setting display is boxed and turns amber.
b) The barometric setting display does not change.
c) The barometric setting display will flash and turn red.
d) The barometric setting display is boxed turns amber and starts to flash. .
In which of the following modes can GPWS terrain data be displayed?
a) MAP mode only.
b) MAP mode and VOR mode.
c) MAP mode, VOR mode and APP mode.
d) MAP mode, VOR mode, APP mode and PLAN mode. .
When the vertical speed mode is used, the vertical speed target is displayed:
a) In the vertical speed display on the MCP and on the PFD above the vertical speed
scale when climbing or below the vertical speed scale when descending.
b) In the vertical speed display on the MCP only.
c) In the vertical speed display on the MCP and by the Selected Vertical Speed Bug on
the vertical speed scale on the ND.
d) In the vertical speed display on the MCP and by the Selected Vertical Speed Bug on
the vertical speed scale on the PFD. .
The Minimums Reference Selector is placed in the RADIO position. When both DH
and DA have been selected:
a) Only the DH is displayed.
b) It is not possible to select a DH and DA at the same time.
c) The numeric values for both DH and DA are displayed on the PFD. Also the BARO
Minimums Pointer is displayed.
d) The numeric value for DH is displayed. The BARO Minimums Pointer indicates DA
only. .
The VREF + 20 bug is displayed after:
a) The flaps reach the flaps 15 position.
b) The flaps reach the flaps 15 position, with one engine not running.
c) VREF+ 15 is selected.
d) VREF is selected on the APPROACH REF page. .
The message EFIS MODE/NAV FREQ DISAGREE is displayed on the ND if:
a) The APP mode is selected on the ND with a VOR frequency tuned.
b) The APP mode is selected on the ND with an ILS frequency tuned.
c) The VOR mode is selected on the ND with a ILS frequency tuned.
d) Both A and C are correct. .
When an ILS/DME has been tuned and the DME is received:
a) The DME distance is displayed on the PFD and on the ND in the APP mode.
b) The DME distance is displayed on the PFD and on the ND in the APP mode only,
and on the standby Radio Magnetic Indicator.
c) The DME distance is displayed on the PFD and on the ND in the APP mode only,
and on the standby Radio Magnetic Indicator.
d) The DME distance is displayed on the standby Radio Magnetic Indicator. .
TCAS traffic symbols are displayed:
a) In MAP mode only.
b) In MAP and expanded VOR mode only.
c) In MAP, expanded VOR and expanded APP mode.
d) In MAP, expanded VOR, expanded APP mode and PLAN mode. .
On the ND the message TERR INHIBIT indicates:
a) That the look-ahead terrain alerting and display system has failed.
b) That the look-ahead terrain alerting and display is inhibited due to position
uncertainty.
c) The GPWS terrain inhibit switch is in TERR INHIBIT position.
d) Both B and C are correct. .
The flight recorder operates…
a) Inflight or on ground anytime electrical power is available.
b) Inflight when electrical power is available, on ground either engine must also be
operating.
c) Inflight when electrical power is available, on ground all doors must be closed and
either engine must be operating.
d) Inflight or on ground with thrust levers advanced for take-off, anytime electrical power
is available. On ground with thrust levers below 40% N1, either engine must be
running and all doors must be closed. .
Altering the barometric reference (QNH) when STD is displayed…
a) Select the new QNH using the Barometric Selector on the EFIS control panel. Below
the STD indication this new value is then displayed as a pre-selection. To activate
this new value press the inner knob of the Barometric Selector.
b) Press the inner knob of the Barometric Selector twice. The barometric reference will
than be boxed and you can alter the value as a pre-selection. To activate this new
value press the inner knob of the Barometric Selector again.
c) This is only possible above the transition level.
d) Both A and C are correct. .
The decision height or minimum altitude reference display on the CDS is set:
a) Automatically when the approach is selected
b) Independently by each pilot using his EFIS control panel.
c) By entering the desired DH on the FMC CDU APPROACH REFERENCE page.
d) By using the DH selector knob on the forward instrument panel. .
An amber DSPLAY SOURCE annunciator indicates:
a) The altimeter is receiving inputs from a source other than the ADIRU and should be
considered unreliable unless verified by another source.
b) A single DEU has been manually or automatically selected to drive all six display
units.
c) A non-dispatchable CDS fault has occurred.
d) A single EFIS control panel has been manually or automatically selected as the
source for all six display units. .
With the CONTROL PANEL select switch on the display source panel in the BOTH
ON 2 position:
a) Control of the Captains and First Officers display switches to a single EFIS control
panel.
b) Both pilot’s displays are using the No 2 symbol generator.
c) DEU 2 controls all six-display units.
d) ADIRU inputs for both the L and R ADIRU are being received from the First Officers
pitot probe.
What will occur if the airplane pitch attitude reaches the pitch limit indicator when
the flaps are not up?
a) The airplane stalls.
b) The airplane will experience initial stall buffet.
c) Stick shaker activation for existing flight conditions.
d) The stick nudge pushes the control column forward. .
The position trend vector segments extending from the airplane symbol on the
navigation display represents:
a) A prediction of the airplane’s position at the end of 30, 60 and 90 second intervals.
b) A presentation of the airplane’s pitch attitude.
c) An indication of the airplane’s true airspeed.
d) All of the above. .
The navigation display’s wind arrow with wind direction/speed is:
a) Displayed if wind magnitude is greater than 6 knots.
b) Blanked if wind speeds become less than 5 kts.
c) Displayed only in the AHSI MAP mode.
d) Displayed only when flying an ILS approach. .
ROLL displayed in amber in the lower portion of the attitude indicator means:
a) The airplane has exceeded 40 degrees of bank.
b) No F/D or autopilot roll mode has been engaged.
c) The Captain’s roll attitude is more than 3 degrees is error.
d) The Captain’s and First Officer’s roll angle display differ by more than 5 degrees. .
The First Officer observes the word PITCH displayed in amber in the lower portion
of the attitude indicator during an ILS approach. This means:
a) The autopilot has defaulted to CWS pitch.
b) Glide slope is not being tracked.
c) The Captain’s and First Officers pitch angle differ by more than 5 degrees.
d) The First Officer’s pitch display is more than 3 degrees in error. .
During an ILS approach the crew observes the “Radio” legend and read out
display turn amber and begins flashing for 3 seconds. (PFD/ND only) This means:
a) Radio altitude data is unreliable.
b) The airplane has descended below the selected minimum altitude.
c) A windshear has been encountered.
d) The airplane has descended below 1000 feet.
The Flight Management System consist of the following components:
a) Flight Management Computer System (FMCS), Autopilot/flight director
system(AFDS), Autothrottle(A/T), Traffic Alert &Collision Avoiding System (TCAS),
Global Positioning System (GPS).
b) Autopilot/flight director system (AFDS), Autothrottle (A/T), Inertial Reference System
(IRS), Traffic Alert &Collision Avoiding System (TCAS), Flight Management
Computer System (FMCS).
c) Inertial Reference System (IRS), Autopilot/flight director system (AFDS), Traffic Alert
&Collision Avoiding System (TCAS), Flight Management Computer System (FMCS),
Global Positioning System (GPS).
d) Autothrottle (A/T), Flight Management Computer System (FMCS), Global Positioning
System (GPS), Inertial Reference System (IRS), Autopilot/flight director system
(AFDS). .
Depending on aircraft latitude, IRS alignment time varies from:
a) 2 to 15 minutes.
b) 5 to 15 minutes.
c) 5 to 17 minutes.
d) 2 to 17 minutes. .
What does the CDU scratchpad message VERIFY POSITION mean?
a) The Lat/Lon position is not within 2 NM of the origin airport.
b) The Lat/Lon position is not within 4 NM of the origin airport.
c) The Lat/Lon position is not within 8 NM of the origin airport.
d) The entered Lat/Lon position does not pass the internal comparison tests. .
If you want to enter an Along-Track waypoint, and this waypoint is located 12 NM
before waypoint BLACK on the present route.
What is the correct format?
a) BLACK/12.
b) BLACK/-12.
c) 12/BLACK.
d) –12/BLACK. .
If electrical power to the FMC is interrupted for less than 10 seconds…
a) LNAV and VNAV disengage.
b) All entered data is retained by the FMC.
c) When power is restored, FMC resumes normal operation.
d) All of the above. .
What conditions must be met to engage LNAV on ground?
a) The departure runway must be selected.
b) The course to the first waypoint must be within 8° of runway heading.
c) First waypoint must be within 3NM of the runway.
d) Both A & B are correct. .
Where can you find information about the ETA for the next waypoint?
a) ROUTE page.
b) CRZ page.
c) PROGRESS page.
d) LEGS page. .
When on the LEGS page BYPASS is shown it means that…
a) It is not possible for the airplane to turn and capture a leg between two waypoints.
b) A waypoint has been manually removed between two waypoints.
c) The weather radar has picked up a storm-cell on route and the system advises to
change the route.
d) The FMC is not able to determine the route leg following a waypoint.
To climb to a selected flight level as quickly as possible, which FMC climb mode
should be used.
a) ECON.
b) MAX RATE.
c) MAX ANGLE.
d) None of the above. .
On the N1 LIMIT page, when CLB – 1 is selected, this reduces the climb limit by:
a) 8% N1.
b) 5% N1.
c) 3% N1.
d) 2% N1. .
Any reduced climb selection is automatically deleted above…
a) 8000 feet.
b) 10.000 feet.
c) 12.000 feet.
d) 15.000 feet. .
During cruise, which page is used to modify the route and manage route
restrictions?
a) ROUTE page.
b) CRZ page.
c) PROGRESS page.
d) LEGS page. .
What is a discontinuity?
. a) It is not possible for the airplane to turn and capture a leg between two waypoints.
b) The FMC is not able to determine the route leg following a waypoint.
c) The FMC is not receiving position updates, so 10 minutes before shutting down it will
indicate that it will discontinue operation.
d) Both A & B are correct.
If on the PATH DES page, before the TOD is reached, DES NOW is selected the
airplane will start descending…
a) With 1000 ft/min at ECON speed.
b) With 1200 ft/min at ECON speed.
c) With 1500 ft/min at ECON speed.
d) At VMO.
The APPROACH REF page displays…
a) Information concerning runway heading, elevation and length.
b) Approach planning information and approach reference speed selection.
c) ILS frequency and DA / DH.
d) Both A & B are correct.
On the RTE HOLD page HOLD AVAIL indicates:
a) The time remaining before the holding fix is passed.
b) The time remaining before the fuel is fully used up.
c) The time remaining if the destination is to be reached before the fuel is fully used up.
d) The time remaining if the destination is to be reached before the fuel reserve is used.
DRAG REQUIRED indicates:
a) That the airspeed is 10 kts or more above FMC target speed.
b) That the airspeed is 10 kts within VMO / VMMO.
c) That the airspeed is 5 kts or more above FMC target speed.
d) Both B & C are correct. .
Magnetic variation stored in each IRS memory is between:
a) 70 15’N to 70 15’S.
b) 73 N to 60 S.
c) 82 N to 82 S.
d) 78 25’N to 78 25’S. .
The airplane is not certified for operations:
a) Above 78 15’N or below 78 15’S.
. b) Above 73 N or below 60 S.
c) Above 82 N or below 82 S.
d) The airplane is certified for operations at all latitudes.
When the FMC is not receiving required fuel data:
a) VNAV disengages and VNAV operation is not possible.
b) The scratchpad message “USING RSV FUEL” may be displayed.
c) The pilot is responsible for periodic entry of fuel weight in order to keep gross value
current.
d) Both A and C are correct. .
With HDG SEL engaged, selecting LNAV will:
a) Engage if the airplane is within 3 nm of the LNAV course, regardless of heading.
b) Arm if the airplane is on an intercept heading of 90 or more regardless of the
distance from the LNAV course.
c) Engage if the airplane is on an intercept heading of 90 or less and the intercept will
occur before the active waypoint.
d) Both A and C are correct.
An acceptable required time of arrival entry found on ACT RTA PROGRESS page
2/3 is:
a) 10/30/45.
b) 10304.
c) 10/30.5
d) 103045B. .
If an engine fails in flight:
a) Execution of the ENGINE OUT page disengages VNAV and all subsequent
performance predictions are blanked.
b) Execution of the ENGINE OUT page disengages VNAV and all performance data
must be re-entered before VNAV can be re-engaged.
c) The MOD ENGINE OUT CRZ page gives information only. The execute light does
not illuminate.
d) VNAV immediately disengages and cannot be re-engaged.
.Which data is available by selecting the RTE DATA prompt on the ACT RTE LEGS
page:
a) FMC calculated speed and altitude data for each waypoint.
b) Manually entered speed and altitude restrictions for each waypoint.
c) ETA and forecast wind data for cruising points.
d) All of the above are correct. .
When aligning the IRS between 78 15’N or S latitude:
a) Rotate the MSU switch from OFF to ALIGN.
b) Alignment time will vary from 5 to 7 minutes depending on airplane latitude.
c) The alignment process begins when the ON DC light illuminates and the ALIGN light
extinguishes.
d) Airplane present position is not a required entry. .
The FMC supplies a default required navigation performance (RNP) value that:
a) Should not exceed actual navigation performance.
b) With RNP exceeded, the message FMC appears on the scratchpad.
c) Is shown on the POS SHIFT page 2/3 only.
d) Is used for take-off, en-route, oceanic, terminal and approach phases of flight. .
During an IRS alignment a flashing white ALIGN light indicates alignment cannot
be completed due to IRS detection of:
a) A significant difference between previous and entered position.
b) An unreasonable present position.
c) A related IRS operating in the ALIGN mode.
d) Both A and B are correct. .
The transition altitude of the FMC PERF INIT page:
a) Displays 10.000 feet of the FMC power up.
b) Changes after selecting a departure procedure with a different altitude.
c) Cannot be manually changed by the crew to a new altitude.
d) Is automatically entered when the TRIP/CRZ altitude is entered in the FMC. .
Fuel onboard is automatically displayed as received from the airplane summation
unit and:
a) A valid fuel entry is xxx.xx.
b) Airplane zero fuel weight is not a required entry.
c) When FMC is not receiving the required fuel data, displayed dashes and manual fuel
weight entry is not possible.
d) Normally the ZFW is entered from the airplane dispatch papers and the FMC
calculates the airplane gross weight. .
After completing the FMC CDU pre-flight actions, ON the “POS INIT” page the “SET
IRS POS” line is missing. What is required?
a) Nothing. This is a normal indication once both IRS’s have entered the NAV mode.
b) Re-enter PPOS LAT/LONG into the FMC.
c) The alignment was not performed. Cycle the IRS’s to OFF and start a new alignment,
then re-enter PPOS LAT/LONG.
d) Return to ALIGN, then NAV, and enter the PPOS LAT/LONG into the left or right IRS
unit. .
Which factor is not considered in the FMC TRIP/CRZ computation?
a) Gross weight.
b) Cost index.
c) Origin.
d) Reserves.
What does MOD on and FMC page title indicate?
a) The route is MODern and up-to date.
b) A modification is made to the active route or performance mode.
c) The destination is MODESTO IAP.
d) MOD is the name of the company route between BFI and MWH.
The fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS page 1 is:
a) Wing tank fuel only.
b) Center tank fuel, only.
c) Total fuel quantity remaining direct from the fuel summation unit.
d) Total used since engine start, based on fuel flow inputs to the FMC. .
Waypoints of the active RTE LEGS page can be entered and moved. This includes:
a) Adding new waypoints.
b) Removing existing waypoints
c) Re-sequencing existing waypoints.
d) All of the above are correct. .
35.The purpose of the FMC FIX INFO page is to:
a) Identify waypoint fixes for display on the navigation display.
b) Copy fix information into the route if desired.
c) Allow page access via the INFO key.
d) Both A and B are correct. .
To climb in the shortest horizontal distance, MAX ANGLE should be selected on
this FMC page:
a) CRZ.
b) PROG.
c) CLB.
d) PERF.
On the FMC CDU, how is the MOD CRZ CLB page automatically displayed?
a) Entering a higher CRZ ALT on line 1L of the CRZ page.
b) Pressing the CLB mode Key during cruise.
c) Entering a higher cruising altitude in the STEP TO line on the CRZ page.
d) All of the above is correct. .
On the cruise page, the Turbulence N1 (TURB N1):
a) Is line selected to the scratch pad on the cruise page and transferred to the N1 LIMIT
page for activation and execution.
b) Is executed on the Cruise page.
c) Displays proper N1 for turbulence penetration. Value is for reference only. It is not
commanded to the autothrottle.
d) Is the minimum speed commanded by the autothrottle during all flight conditions to
ensure safe penetration when it is encountered.
In the FMC a lateral offset may be specified up to 99.9 nm. Some legs are invalid
for offsets. One of these is:
a) Beginning of a flight plan waypoint.
b) Discontinuity.
c) PPOS holding pattern.
d) Course change greater than 90 . .
During cruise, the primary FMC pages are:
a) RTE LEGS, PROGRESS, CRZ AND INTC CRZ.
b) FMC NAV, PROGRESS AND CRZ.
c) RTE LEGS, PROGRESS AND CRZ.
d) NAV STATUS, PROGRESS AND RTE LEGS. .
The FMC advisory message BUFFET ALERT indicates:
a) Current conditions result in a maneuver margin less than specified.
b) Clear air turbulence has been detected in the immediate flight path.
c) The airplane is in a partial or full stall.
d) The crew’s dinner is ready to be served.
The FMC advisory alert SELECT MODE AFTER RTA means:
a) RTA mode has been discontinued due to sequencing of the RTA waypoint.
b) The RTA time does not fall within the earliest and latest take-off time.
c) RTA mode has been discontinued because the RTA waypoint has been removed
from the flight plan.
d) Both A and C are correct. .
After RTA waypoint entry, the displayed ETA is based on:
a) The active flight plan.
b) Performance parameters at the time of waypoint entry.
c) Desired RTA and may not be overwritten.
d) Both A and B are correct. .
Speed restriction (SPD REST) displays the most restrictive of the following
speeds:
a) Destination airport speed minus 5 kts.
b) Waypoint speed restriction of greater than 200 kts.
c) Minimum flaps up maneuvering speed.
d) Minimum flap restriction speed. .
Vertical path parameters (FPA, V/B, V/S) display, which of the following parameters
related to the present vertical path:
a) FPA actual flight path angle based on flight plan ground speed and vertical speed.
b) V/B vertical bearing direct from present position of the WPT/ALT line.
c) V/S the required vertical speed to fly the displayed FPA.
d) Blank, if there is no entry on the FPA/VS line. .
When airplane gross weight is not available from the FMC, the approach ref page
will be:
a) Flashing.
b) Blank.
c) Box prompts.
d) “INVALID”.
What information is available with the IRS mode selector in ATT?
a) Only attitude information.
b) Only heading information.
c) Only attitude and heading information.
d) Only altitude information. .
During the PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION, the IRS mode selectors are
positioned to:
a) ALIGN.
b) NAV.
c) ATT.
d) ON. .
When the IRS’s are operating in the normal navigation mode, they provide:
a) Attitude and true magnetic heading.
b) Acceleration, vertical speed and ground speed
c) Track, present position and wind data.
d) All of the above. .
A fast re-alignment should be complete in:
a) 30 seconds
b) 1 minute.
c) 5 minutes.
d) 10 minutes. .
When does an IRS automatically enter the navigation mode?
a) The mode selector is moved from OFF to ALIGN and 10 minutes have elapsed.
b) The mode selector is in NAV, present position entered and alignment is complete.
c) The mode selector is moved from ATT to NAV and alignment is complete.
d) When all of the information is available for normal operations in the ALIGN mode. .
Which of the following is not a major component of the inertial system?
a) Air data inertial reference units. (ADIRU)
b) Inertial system display unit. (ISDU)
c) Instrument display unit (IDU) transfer switch.
d) Mode select unit. (MSU) .
If the FAULT light on the IRS mode selector unit illuminates, it indicates:
a) The IRS is NOT in ALIGN mode.
b) An entry of an invalid present position.
c) A system fault affecting the related IRS ATT and/or NAV mode ahs been detected.
d) That DC power for the respective IRS is not normal. .
During the PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION, the pilot accidentally moves
the IRS mode selector switch from OFF to ATT instead of from OFF to NAV. How
can normal IRS operation be regained?
a) Switch to OFF, wait for ALIGN lights to extinguish, then perform full alignment
procedures.
b) Switch directly to NAV from the ATT position.
c) Switch to the ALIGN position then to NAV.
d) Switch to the OFF position for 1 minute and then to ATT. .
On which CDU page is the ground speed displayed?
a) PROGRESS PAGE 1.
b) CRUISE.
c) POS REF page 2/3.
d) POS INIT page1. .
An entry of .720 for descent into the TGT SPD line on the FMC ECON PATH DES
page will:
a) Change the descent mode to a M.720 SPD DES.
b) Change the page title to display M.720 SPD DES.
c) Result in VNAV disengagement.
d) Result in VNAV and LNAV disengagement. .
If there is fuel in the center tank, it is used before main tank fuel because:
a) The center tank check valves open at a lower differential pressure than the main tank
check valves.
b) The center tank boost pumps have a higher output pressure than the main tank
pumps.
c) The Fuel Control Computer (FCC) monitors quantity of each tank. When there is less
than 726 kgs of fuel in the center tank, the FCC will switch on the main tank boost
pumps.
d) The main tank pumps cannot produce pressure until the center tank LOW
PRESSURE lights illuminate and the center tank pumps are switched off.
The left forward fuel pump is running. The center tank scavenge jet pump operates
when:
a) Both centre Tank Fuel Pump Switches are turned off.
b) The No. 1 main fuel tank is about ½ full.
c) The centre tank is about ½ full.
d) The scavenge pump is always operating. .
During pre-flight the center tank pumps are off and there is 1000 kg of fuel in the
center tank. The CDS will display:
a) A "LOW PRESS" indication after engine start.
b) A "LOW PRESS" indication prior to engine start.
c) A "CONFIG" indication after engine start.
d) A "CONFIG" indication prior to engine start. .
The Fuel imbalance ("IMBAL") indication is displayed on the CDS:
a) When a main tank imbalance of more than 453 kg exists, provided the aircraft is in
flight.
b) When a main tank imbalance of more than 453 kg exists, both in flight and on the
ground.
c) When one center tank pump is inoperative and the crossfeed valve is closed.
d) Both B and C are correct. .
During flight both center tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE lights illuminate due to a
failure of both center tank pumps.
There is still 320 kg of fuel in the center tank. On the CDS:
a) A "LOW" indication is displayed.
b) A "CONFIG" indication is displayed.
c) Fuel quantity is replaced by dashes.
d) No fuel alert indication will be displayed. .
The accuracy of the fuel quantity indicators is:
a) ± 1.5 % of the full-scale reading.
b) ± 2.0 % of the full-scale reading.
c) ± 2.5 % of the full-scale reading.
d) ± 3.0 % of the full-scale reading. .
Fuel for the APU is …
a) Supplied from the left side of the fuel manifold, if the AC fuel pumps are operating.
b) Supplied from the right side of the fuel manifold, if the AC fuel pumps are operating.
c) Suction fed from both main fuel tanks.
d) Both A and C are correct.
What is the maximum fuel imbalance for taxi?
a) 426 kgs.
b) 453 kgs.
c) 478 kgs.
d) 496 kgs. .
Statements:
1) Regardless of fuel quantity in the center tank, the FUEL PUMP LOW PRESSURE
lights will not illuminate when a center tank fuel pump is switched to OFF.
2) In the main tank, failure of a fuel pump will illuminate the MASTER CAUTION and
FUEL system annunciator light.
a) Only statement 1 is correct.
b) Only statement 2 is correct.
c) Both statements are correct.
d) No statement is correct. .
The engine fuel shutoff valve:
a) Is controlled by both the engine fire warning switch and the engine start lever;
however, the spar fuel shutoff valve is controlled only by the engine start lever.
b) Is the only fuel shutoff with an associated blue light on the forward overhead fuel
panel.
c) And the spar fuel shutoff valve requires AC power to operate.
d) And the spar fuel shutoff valve closes whenever their respective engine fire warning
switch is pulled or engine start lever is placed to CUTOFF. .
There are CDS fuel alert indications for:
a) Fuel quantity low in the main tank, impending fuel filter bypass, excessive fuel
quantity difference between main tanks.
b) Fuel quantity low in any main tank, center tank fuel pumps off with more than 726 kg.
of fuel in the center tank, excessive fuel quantity difference between main tanks.
c) Fuel quantity low in the main tank, impending fuel filter bypass, excessive fuel flow
difference between engines.
d) Any fuel pump producing low or no pressure with the pump switched ON, impending
fuel filter bypass, excessive fuel quantity difference between main tanks. .
With 2500 kg in #1 main tank and 3060kg in main tank #2; indications are:
a) A LOW indication below main tank #1 accompanied by a Master Caution light and
system annunciation for fuel.
b) An IMBAL indication below main tank #1 accompanied by a Master Caution light and
system annunciation for fuel.
c) An IMBAL indication below main tank #1 with no Master Caution light and no system
annunciation for fuel.
d) The fuel quantity arc and digits an main tank #2 turn amber. .
In flight, two fuel pump LOW PRESSURE lights for the #1 tank illuminate. What
happens to the #1 engine?
a) It receives fuel from #2 tank automatically.
b) I will shut down to fuel starvation.
c) It receives fuel from the #1 tank through the fuel pump bypass valve.
d) It continues to operate using fuel through the center tank bypass valve. .
In which fuel tanks are bypass valves located?
a) Center tank.
b) Both main tanks
c) All tanks.
d) None. .
What is indicated by illumination of the LOW PRESSURE light?
a) Low fuel pressure in the affected tank.
b) Low pressure in the fuel manifold.
c) The fuel pump is switched OFF.
d) Both A and B are correct. .
When the crossfeed selector is set to OPEN and the valve is not open; the VALVE
OPEN light is:
a) Illuminated dim blue.
b) Illuminated bright blue.
c) Illuminated amber.
d) Extinguished. .
Which source powers the engine fuel shutoff valves?
a) The hot battery bus.
b) The battery bus.
c) The DC standby bus.
d) The AC standby bus.
Refer to the refill indication (RF) right of the hydraulic system quantity indication
displays:
a) Automatically when the hydraulic quantity is below 88% in either system A or B.
b) At all times.
c) When Hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A and/or B and the airplane is
on the ground with both engines shutdown, or after landing with flaps UP during taxiin.
d) Only during MASTER CAUTION SYSTEM recall. .
If a leak occurs in the standby system, system B fluid indication will decrease to
approximately:
a) 0.
b) 64%.
c) 72% full.
d) A leak in the standby system has no effect on the reservoir quantity for system B.
The Power Transfer Unit (PTU) provides a backup source of hydraulic pressure to
operate the:
a) Training edge flaps.
b) Landing gear.
c) Auto slats and leading edge flaps and slats.
d) Outboard spoilers. .
The auto slat system:
a) Is normally powered by hydraulic system B.
b) Uses hydraulic system A pressure.
c) Uses hydraulic system A fluid.
d) Uses standby hydraulic system fluid. .
Pulling the #2 engine fire warning switch, shuts off hydraulic fluid to the:
a) Electric pump in system B.
b) Engine driven pump in system B.
c) Electric pump in system A.
d) Engine driven pump in system A. .
The standby hydraulic system powers the:
a) Outboard spoilers, rudder and thrust reversers.
b) Leading edge devices, rudder, thrust reversers and standby yaw damper.
c) Inboard spoilers, rudder and thrust reversers.
d) Alternate brakes, rudder, thrust reversers and standby yaw damper. .
.What is an indication of a leak in the standby hydraulic system?
a) Decrease in system A quantity.
b) The LOW QUANTITY light illuminates.
c) Illumination of the system A LOW PRESSURE lights.
d) Illumination of the system B LOW PRESSURE lights.
The amber standby hydraulic system LOW PRESSURE light is armed:
a) At all times.
b) Only when the FLT CONTROL switch is moved to STBY RUD.
c) Only when the ALTERNATE FLAPS switch is moved to ARM.
d) Only when the standby pump operation has been selected or automatic standby
function is activated. .
Which of the following actions will affect hydraulic quantity indications?
a) Flaps are extended from 15 to 30.
b) Landing gear is extended.
c) Leading edge devices are extended.
d) Both B and C are correct. .
The amber LOW PRESSURE light for the #1 engine driven hydraulic pump
illuminates. Which actions should be carried out? (QRH?)
a) Position the hydraulic pump switch to OFF.
b) Pull the #1 engine fire-warning switch.
c) Disconnect the #1 CSD.
d) Monitor system A and B pressure.
What is the minimum limiting amount of fuel in the main tanks for ground use of
the hydraulic pumps?
a) 453 kg in the related main tank.
b) 762 kg in both main tanks.
c) 760 kg in the related main tank.
d) 760 kg in the center tank. .
The system B engine driven pump supplies the volume of hydraulic fluid needed to
operate the landing gear transfer unit when which of the following conditions
exist?
a) Airborne and either main landing gear is not up and locked.
b) #1 engine drops below a limit value.
c) Landing gear lever positioned UP.
d) All of the above. .
The air/ground system receives air/ground logic signals from:
a) Radio altimeter 1.
b) The cabin pressure controller.
c) ADIRU 1, ADIRU 2 serves as a back up.
d) Six sensors, two on each landing gear. .
When during takeoff with RTO selected, the forward thrust levers are moved to idle
before a wheelspeed of 90 kts is reached:
a) The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light doesn’t illuminate and no automatic braking is
applied; the autobrake system remains armed.
b) The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates and no automatic braking is applied.
c) The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates and maximum automatic braking is
applied.
d) The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light doesn’t illuminate and maximum automatic braking
is applied. .
Impact fittings located in the opening of each main gear wheel well:
a) Provide automatic braking to the main gear wheels during retraction.
b) Prevent a gear with a spinning damaged tire and loose tread from entering the wheel
well.
c) Allow the landing gear transfer unit to use hydraulic system B pressure to retract the
gear if system A fails.
d) Prevents damage to the wheel well during gear retraction in case the gear strut did
not extend completely after take-off. .
When the manual landing gear extension access door is open:
a) Manual landing gear extension is possible with the landing gear lever in any position.
b) Normal landing gear extension is always possible.
c) Landing gear retraction is possible if hydraulic system A pressure is available.
d) The landing gear lever has to be in the down position for the gear to be extended
manually. .
When a landing is made with RTO selected:
a) Automatic braking occurs at the RTO level.
b) The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates one to two seconds after touchdown.
c) The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates two minutes after touchdown.
d) Automatic braking occurs automatically at auto brake 3 level, one to two seconds
after touchdown. .
After braking has started, which of the following pilot actions will disarm the
system immediately and illuminate the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light:
a) Moving the SPEED BRAKE lever to the flight detent position.
b) Advancing the forward thrust lever(s), except during the first 3 seconds after
touchdown for landing.
c) Applying manual brakes.
d) Both b and c are correct. .
Which system normally provides hydraulic pressure for Nose Wheel Steering?
a) System A.
b) System B.
c) Standby system.
d) Nose wheel steering accumulator. .
The lockout pin is installed in the steering depressurisation valve. What does this
do?
a) Bypasses system B pressure.
b) Depressurizes both system A & B pressure.
c) Allows airplane pushback or towing without depressurizing the hydraulic systems.
d) Both a and c are correct. .
The Landing Gear Transfer Unit is used to raise the landing gear at the normal rate
when all of the following conditions exist:
a) Airborne, landing gear lever is positioned to OFF, No.2 engine drops below a limit
value & either main landing gear is not up and locked.
b) Airborne, landing gear lever is positioned UP, either engine drops below a limit value
& either main landing gear is not up and locked.
c) Airborne, landing gear lever is positioned UP, No.1 engine drops below a limit value
& either main landing gear is not up and locked.
d) Airborne, landing gear lever positioned to OFF, No.1 engine drops below a limit value
& either main landing gear is not up and locked. .
Statements:
1) The alternate brake system anti-skid protection is applied to main wheel pairs, in
stead of individual wheels.
2) Both normal and alternate brake systems provide skid, locked wheel,
touchdown and hydroplane protection.
a) Only statement 1 is correct.
b) Only statement 2 is correct.
c) Both statements are correct.
d) No statement is correct. .
Which pressure does the Hydraulic Brake Pressure indicator indicate?
a) Normal pressure of 3500 psi.
b) Maximum pressure of 3500 psi.
c) Normal pre-charge of 2800 psi.
d) Normal pre-charge in the brake accumulator of 1200 psi.
During alternate brake system operation, the following protection is provided:
a) Skid, locked wheel, touchdown and hydroplane.
b) Skid and hydroplane only.
c) Skid, locked wheel, and hydroplane only.
d) None of the above .
Landing autobrake settings may be selected after touchdown:
a) However, the AUTOBRAKE DISARM light will illuminate and auto brake application
will not occur.
b) However, auto brake action will occur only when both thrust levers are retarded to
reverse thrust range.
c) Prior to deceleration through 30 kts groundspeed.
d) After deceleration through 30 kts groundspeed. .
The air/ground system receives air/ground logic signals from:
a) The altimeter.
b) The cabin pressure controller.
c) Six sensors, two on each landing gear.
d) The FMC position updating from the GPS. .
Which of the following is not part of the braking system?
a) Antiskid protection.
b) Parking brake.
c) Brake accumulator.
d) Nose wheel brakes .
Which of the following conditions must exist to arm the RTO mode prior to takeoff?
a) AUTO BRAKE select switch positioned to ON.
b) Wheel speed greater than 60 kts.
c) Forward thrust lever positioned to IDLE.
d) Position ANTISKID switch to RTO. .
What could cause the amber ANTISKID INOP light to illuminate?
a) AUTO BRAKE select switch positioned to OFF.
b) The antiskid monitoring system has detected a system fault.
c) Brake accumulator pressure in the red band.
d) System B pressure is low. .
Which airspeed value must be considered in a wheel well fire situation?
a) Observe extend limit speed (280K/.72M)
b) Retract landing gear speed of 245 kts maximum.
c) Maintain 235 kts maximum for 20 minutes.
d) Observe extend limit speed (270K/.82M) .
Rejecting a takeoff with RTO selected, after a wheel speed of 90 kts is reached:
a) Maximum braking is applied when thrust levers are retarded to IDLE.
b) Automatic braking is applied when reverse thrust is selected.
c) Automatic speed brake deployment when thrust levers are retarded to idle.
d) The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate. .
Hydraulic pressure from system B will be used to raise the landing gear:
a) When system A pressure is low and the landing gear lever is positioned UP.
b) When the ALTERNATE NOSE WHEEL switch is positioned ON.
c) When the #1 engine RPM drops below a limit value (i.e. engine #1 fails), with either
main landing gear not up and locked and the landing gear lever is positioned UP.
d) After a failure of the #1 engine hydraulic pump with the landing gear still down and
the landing gear lever is positioned up. .
Takeoff thrust is set. Which condition will trigger the takeoff warning?
a) Rudder trim more than one unit in either direction.
b) Flap 1 is set instead of flaps 5.
c) Spoilers not down with the speedbrake lever in the DOWN position.
d) RTO not selected with the Auto brake system. .
Aircraft parked at the gate. When the Proximity Switch Electronic Unit senses a
simple fault in the air/ground sensing system:
a) The PSEU light automatically illuminates.
b) The PSEU light illuminates only upon recall.
c) The AIR/GROUND light illuminates.
d) No light will illuminate, maintenance will find the fault when performing a BITE check.
A single GPS receiver failure has occurred. Which statement is correct?
a) The GPS light automatically illuminates.
b) The GPS light will only illuminate while the annunciator panel is pressed. When the
panel is released the GPS light extinguishes.
c) The GPS light illuminates when the annunciator panel is pressed. When the panel is
released the GPS light remains illuminated.
d) Only when a dual GPS receiver failure occurs, the GPS light will illuminate. .
The Landing Gear Configuration Warning….
a) Can always be silenced with the warning HORN CUTOUT switch.
b) Can only be silenced with the warning HORN CUTOUT switch, above 200 feet, when
the flaps are UP through 10.
c) Can only be silenced with the warning HORN CUTOUT switch, above 200 feet, when
the flaps are UP through 15.
d) Can only be silenced with the warning HORN CUTOUT switch, above 400 feet, when
the flaps are UP through 15. .
Statements:
1) Altitude alerting is inhibited when the trailing edge flaps are extended to 25 or
greater.
2) At 200 feet from the selected altitude, the ALT ALERT annunciation does not
longer show.
a) Only statement 1 is correct.
b) Only statement 2 is correct.
c) Both statements are correct.
d) No statement is correct. .
Which statement about the Proximity Switch Electronic Unit light on the aft
overhead panel is not correct?
a) It is illuminated on the ground when a fault is detected in the PSEU.
b) It is illuminated on the ground when an overwing exit flight lock fails to disengage
when commanded.
c) On ground the light is illuminated when a ‘simple’ fault occurs.
d) In flight the light is inhibited for 30 seconds after landing. .
Statements:
1) The Mach/airspeed warning systems can only be tested on the ground.
2) On the PFD amber bands indicate the minimum and maximum manoeuvring
speed.
a) Only statement 1 is correct.
b) Only statement 2 is correct.
c) Both statements are correct.
d) No statement is correct. .
The GPWS provides alerts based on…
a) Radio altitude and combinations of barometric altitude, AOA, airspeed & glideslope
deviation.
b) Radio altitude and combinations of airspeed, AOA, airplane configuration &
barometric altitude.
c) Radio altitude and combinations of airplane configuration, AOA, glideslope deviation
& airspeed.
d) Radio altitude and combinations of glideslope deviation, airplane configuration,
barometric altitude & airspeed. .
The Look-Ahead Terrain Alerting GPWS…
a) Database only contains terrain data near major airports.
b) Terrain data can be used as an independent database.
c) Will show terrain within 2000 feet of the airplane barometric altitude.
d) Will automatically be switched on when the airplane passes through the transition
level. .
The red landing gear indication lights are illuminated under the following
conditions:
a) Landing gear is in disagreement with LANDING GEAR LEVER position.
b) Landing gear is not down and locked (with either or both forward thrust levers
retarded to IDLE, and below 800 ft AGL).
c) Landing gear is UP and locked, with the LANDING GEAR LEVER UP or OFF.
d) Both A and B are correct. .
While performing the LANDING checklist, the PSEU light illuminates on RECALL.
This indicates:
a) A normal condition.
b) A fault is detected in the landing gear locking system or the air/ground sensing
system.
c) The landing gear configuration warning horn will sound upon landing.
d) A problem exists in the PSEU light, because this light should be inhibited in flight. .
The stall management yaw damper (SMYD) computers determine when the stall
warning is required based on which of the following?
a) Anti-ice controls.
b) ADIRU outputs.
c) FMC outputs.
d) All of the above. .
How can an Airspeed/Mach warning be silenced in flight?
a) Reduce the airplane speed to below Vmo/Mmo.
b) Press the Airspeed/Mach warning test switch.
c) Reduce the airplane speed to minimum manoeuvring speed.
d) Press the Airspeed/Mach override switch. .
When flying an ILS approach, to inhibit a BELOW G/S alert:
a) The BELOW G/S alert cannot be inhibited
b) Move the BELOW G/S switch to the Alert Inhibit position.
c) Push the BELOW G/S light (so that the alert will be inhibited below 1000 ft RA)
d) All of the above. .
GPWS test can be performed:
a) Only on the ground.
b) From lift-off to 1000 ft RA.
c) Momentarily on the ground, or above 1000 ft RA in flight.
d) Anytime. .
An intermittent take-off configuration warning horn sounds if:
a) Stabilizer trim is not set in the take-off range.
b) Leading edge flaps and training edge flaps are not configured for take-off.
c) SPEED BRAKE lever is not in the DOWN position.
d) All of the above is correct. .
Which of the following statement is FALSE concerning the MANUAL mode of operation
of the cabin pressurization system? a. green MANUAL light illuminates when the mode selector is placed in the MAN
position
b. The manual system uses the same DC motor as the primary system
c. The manual DC motor is powered by the DC standby bus
d. The manual system is slower than primary or alternate system and full range motion takes
up to 20 seconds .
When will the cabin pressurization system operate in cruise mode?
a. When the aircraft climbs to within 0.25 PSI of the selected FLT ALT
b. When the aircraft levels off at the altitude dialed in the FLT ALT window
c. When the thrust levers are set at cruise thrust
d. When reaching FMC Cruise altitude .
The isolation Valve Switch is in the AUTO position. Which of the following switch
selection will NOT open the isolation valve? a. Either Bleed Air Switch OFF
b. Either Air Conditioning pack Switch OFF
c. The position of the APU bleed air switch
d. One pack switch and one bleed switch (same side) are off.
The air-conditioning pack switch is selected to ‘AUTO’. Which of these statements is
correct regarding air-flow regulation by the pack?
a. Regulates to low flow with one pack
operating
b. Regulates to high flow with one pack operating on ground
c. Regulates to high flow with one pack operating in flight with flaps down
d. Regulates to high flow with one pack operating in flight with flaps up.
What can cause a window heat ON light to be extinguished?
a. The window heat switch is ON
b. An overheat has occurred and Electrical power to the respective window is
interrupted.
c. Electrical system transfer to opposite generator
d. Aircraft touches down (landing) .
The aircraft is on the ground with the WING ANTI-ICE switch ON. Which conditions
will allow the wing anti-ice valve to open?
a. Thrust on both engines is above the setting for takeoff thrust or the temperature inside both
wing distribution ducts is above the thermal switch activation temperature
b. Thrust on both engines is above the setting for takeoff thrust and the temperature inside
both wing distribution ducts is below the thermal switch activation temperature c. Thrust on both engines is below the setting for takeoff thrust and the temperature
inside both wing distribution ducts is below the thermal switch activation
temperature
d. Thrust on both engines is below the setting for takeoff thrust or the temperature inside both
wing distribution ducts is above the thermal switch activation temperature .
Is it possible to turn-off the FD Take-off mode, when A/C is below 400 feet RA? a. Not possible.
b. Possible by turning off either Flight Director switches on MCP.
c. Possible by turning off both Flight Directors switches on MCP.
d. Possible by pulling affected flight control computer circuit braker. .
When only A/P ‘A’ command switch is engage on MCP at 1000 ft AGL, which pitch
mode will take control of the aircraft?
a. CWS pitch.
b. MCP SPD.
c. VNAV.
d. V/S a. CWS pitch.
b. MCP SPD.
c. VNAV.
d. V/S .
When will the Cockpit Voice Recorder automatically operate?
a. Anytime the battery switch is ON
b. Anytime DC power is available
c. In flight only
d. Anytime 115 VAC is applied to the aircraft .
Which communications radio system can be operated from standby electrical power? a. VHF - 1.
b. VHF - 2.
c. Both VHF-1 and VHF-2
d. VHF1 and HF1.
Which of the statement is correct about the switch selection on ASP (Audio Selector
Panel)?
a. VHF - 1 is received only when the VHF - 1 receiver switch is selected (pressed down).
b. The VHF - 2 and Cabin/Service interphone receiver switches may be selected at the
same time.
c. VHF – 2 is received only when the VHF – 2 transmitter switch is selected.
d. Only one receiver switch can be selected at a time. .
What is the significance of an illuminated TR UNIT light while in flight? a. Any one TRU has failed
b. Only TR1 has failed
c. Only TR3 has failed
d. TR1 or TR2 and TR3 has failed .
What is the purpose of the DC Cross bus tie relay?
a. Isolate transfer bus 1 and 2
b. Isolate DC bus 1 from DC bus 2
c. Disconnect TR1 and TR3
d. Isolate DC bus 1 from standby DC bus.
The standby power switch in the AUTO position. When will the automatic transfer of
standby power to alternate source occur?
a. AC transfer bus 2 or DC bus 1 loses power
b. AC transfer bus 1 or DC bus 2 loses power
c. AC transfer bus 2 or DC bus 2 loses power
d. AC transfer bus 1 or DC bus 1 loses power .
What will cause the DRIVE light for the respective IDG to illuminate?
a. Low oil pressure in the IDG
b. Low Generator frequency
c. Low Generator voltage
d. High Generator voltage .
Which engine parameter does the EEC use to control thrust in normal mode?
a. N1
b. N2
c. EGT
d. Fuel Flow .
What is the recommend “no load” cooling down period befor shutting down the APU? a.15 seconds.
b. 30 seconds.
c. 45 seconds.
d. 60 seconds. .
How does the APU get its fuel when all AC pumps are not operating?
a. The APU cannot be run.
b. By a DC driven pump.
c. By the APU fuel pump.
d. It suction feeds. .
At what Flap settings is the auto slat system operative?
a. 1,2,5.
b. Below flaps 15.
c. Below flaps 25.
d. All flap settings. .
What happens when a trailing edge flap asymmetry or skew condition has been
detected?
a. The Trailing Edge flap bypass valve opens.
b. A needle split is displayed on the flap position indicator.
c. LE Devices will suffer same asymmetry. d. Use TE Flaps Alternate Sys. (elect) for extension / retraction. .
. When does the stabilizer trim operate at high speed?
a. With gear down.
b. Below 1,500 feet RA.
c. Flaps extended.
d. Slats extended. .
When the speed brakes are deployed in-flight, the SPEEDBRAKES EXTENDED
light:
a. Always illuminates.
b. Illuminates only when the radio altitude is less than 800 feet.
c. Illuminates when the radio altitude is less than 800 feet, or the TE flaps are extended
beyond flaps 10.
d. Illuminates only when the TE flaps are extended beyond flaps 10. .
Which flight controls can be manually operated without Hydraulics power available?
a. The rudder and ailerons.
b. The ailerons and elevators.
c. The ailerons, elevators and rudder.
d. There are no provisions for manual reversion of the flight controls.
What happens when Manual Extension Access Door is left open?
a. Manual landing gear extension is not possible with landing gear lever in up position
b. Normal landing gear retraction is still possible if hydraulic system pressure is available
c. Landing gear retraction is disabled
d. Landing gear green light will not illuminate.
53. What is the maximum travel for the nose wheel steering tiller?
a. 78o
b. 87o
c. 90o
d. 39o.
When are the GPWS wind-shear warnings available?
a. Below 1,500 feet AGL b. Below 2,500 feet AGL
c. Below 3,500 feet AGL
d. Below 4,500 feet AGL.
TCAS equipped aircraft can generate a traffic advisory when:
a. Other aircraft are approximately 40 seconds from closest point of approach
b. Other aircraft are approximately 25 seconds from closest point of approach
c. Other aircraft are approximately 15 seconds from closest point of approach
d. Other aircraft are approximately 60 seconds from closest point of approach.
With the landing gear retracted and radio altitude below 800 ft, a landing gear
configuration horn will sound:
a. When flaps 1 are selected and thrust levers are above 30 degrees.
b. When flaps 1 are selected irrespective of thrust levers position
c. When flaps 1 are selected and either thrust lever is retarded to idle.
d. When thrust lever is retarded to idle. .
What is the maximum allowable Takeoff and Landing altitude?
a. 8,600 ft.
b. 8,400 ft.
c. 14,000 ft.
d. 10,000 ft.
What is the maximum allowable Takeoff and Landing Tailwind component? a. 10 knots.
b. 20 knots.
c. 15 knots.
d. 25 knots. .
What is the maximum allowable in-flight difference between Captain and First Officer altitude
displays for RVSM operations?
a. 100 ft.
b. 150 ft.
c. 200 ft. d. 300 ft.
What is the maximum allowable on the ground difference between Captain or First Officer altitude
display and Field Elevation.
a. 75 ft.
b. 100 ft.
c. 50 ft.
d. 200 ft. .
The autopilot should be disconnected during single channel operations during approach when the
A/C altitude is below?
a. 50 feet AGL.
b. 100 feet AGL.
c. 200 feet AGL.
d. 400 feet AGL. .
What is the maximum allowable Head wind when landing weather minima are predicated on autoland operations?
a. 10 Knots
b. 20 Knots
c. 15 Knots
d. 25 Knots.
7. What is the maximum allowable Tailwind when landing weather minima are predicated on autoland operations?
a. 10 Knots
b. 20 Knots
c. 15 Knots
d. 25 Knots.
What is the maximum allowable in-flight altitude to operate the APU for Bleed air and Electrical?
a. 10,000 ft.
b. 17,000 ft.
c. 20,000 ft.
d. 41,000 ft. .
What is the maximum allowable altitude for flap extensions?
a. 10,000 feet.
b. 20,000 feet.
c. 30,000 feet.
d. Maximum aircraft ceiling. .
Which Baro settings is not allowed to be used when A/P is engaged in LNAV and VNAV mode?
a. QNH
b. QNE
c. QNR
d. QFE a. QNH
b. QNE
c. QNR
d. QFE.
What is the maximum allowable tank fuel temperature?
a. 40o C
b. 45o C
c. 49o C
d. 52o C .
Actual zero fuel weight (ZFW) must never exceed:
a) Maximum landing weight plus unusable fuel in tanks.
b) Maximum design zero fuel weight.
c) Operational take off weight.
d) Maximum Take off weight minus Fuel tanks capacity.
Aircraft Center of Gravity (CG) is defined as
a) A rotating point at the datum line while aircraft take off and landing.
b) Point in an aircraft around which all weights are balanced or evenly distributed.
c) Point in an aircraft around which all weight is not balanced.
d) Aircraft center of gravity when empty. .
Dry operating index (DOI) is defined as the index figure which
a) Corresponds to the center of gravity of dry operating weight.
b) Equals the fuel weight index correction, plus load index.
c) Is unique figure for each aircrafts type.
d) Is based on aircraft engine type. .
When aircraft CG is near its AFT limit:
a) Better Take-off performance is resulted i.e. higher RTOW and less Trip fuel is required.
b) Worse Take-off performance i.e.lower RTOW and more Trip fuel is required.
c) No effect on RTOW or Trip fuel.
d) Datum line will move to its AFT limit.
Which statement is false:
Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC) is:
a) Is the chord of a section of an imaginary aerofoil on the wing which would have force vectors
throughout the flight range identical to these of the actual wing.
b) It is used as a reference for locating the relative positions of the wings centre of lift and the
aeroplane centre of gravity (CG).
c) It is used to determine the aircraft envelope, through which the CG limit of the loading of each
flight must be outside this envelope.
d) The CG position, its forward and AFT limits are determined as a percentage of the MAC.
Load Index Take off Weight (LITOW) is:
a) Basic Weight Index + Fuel Index correction.
b) Load Index Zero Fuel Weight (LIZFW) plus Fuel Index correction.
c) Dry Operating Index (DOI) + Fuel Index Correction. Dry Operating Index (DOI) + Load Index. .
Datum line is defined as an imaginary reference line
a) At or forward of the aircraft nose.
b) On the leading edge.
c) On the trailing edge.
d) Which passes through the aircraft centre of Gravity (CG). .
Aircraft Center of Gravity (CG) must fall
a) On a point along the length of the MAC.
b) On a point along the length of the wing span.
c) On a point in an aircraft around which all weight is not balanced.
d) On a point along the length of the Longitudinal axis of the aircraft. .
What is the TCAS symbol for a resolution advisory?
a) A cyan diamond (filled)
b) An amber circle (filled)
c) A red square (filled)
d) A red circle (filled) .
Flying at FL350. What is indicated by the bottom of the yellow bar extending
from the barber pole on the upper side of the speed tape?
a) High speed buffet
speed
b) A speed that gives a 1.3G margin to high speed buffet
c) The placard speed for flaps 1
d) The placard speed for gear extension .
Flaps 5 set. A yellow bar extends downward from the red and black bar at the
upper side of the speed tape. What is indicated by the bottom of this yellow bar? a) The placard speed for flaps 5
b) The maximum speed with gear extended
c) The placard speed for flaps 15
d) The placard speed for flaps 1 .
How does the FMC determine position when position updating is not available?
a. It can’t so it displays a “CHECK PRESENT POSITION” in the CDU scratchpad b. It defaults to dead reckoning
c. It can’t so it blanks after 15 minutes.
d. It uses the IRS position as reference.
Entry of a desired airspeed for descent into TGT SPD line on the FMC ECON PATH
DES page will:
a. Change the descent mode to a manual SPD DES.
b. Change the mode to a selected speed PATH DES.
c. Can’t enter a new speed on an active descent page.
d. Change the mode to MAN DES .
The IRS is operating in the NAV mode and calculates present position. What else
happens ?
a. The IRS applies local variation to produce magnetic headings.
b. True heading is displayed on the HSI.
c. Local variation is displayed.
d. The IRS applies deviation to produce compass headings. .
Which of the following description is an example of a conditional way point? a. D170L
b. BSN 240/ FL110
c. DUB 240/35
d. (1500) .
Aircraft at cruising altitude, VNAV engaged. When the aircraft overflies the FMS
calculated T/D and the MCP ALT is not lowered, what will be indicated on the FMA?
a. FMC SPD / LNAV / VNAV PTH
b. RETARD / LNAV / VNAV PTH
c. FMC SPD / LNAV / ALT HOLD
d. FMC SPD / LNAV / VNAV SPD.
A/P and A/T engaged. What are the requirements for an automatic start of descent at
T/D?
a. Lower altitude on MCP and on CRZ page selected.
b. VNAV engaged, lower altitude selected in the CRZ page.
c. VNAV engaged, DES page selected
d. VNAV engaged, lower altitude in MCP window.
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