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ccna 2

ccna 2 - pick your brains

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Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to A. It selects the IS-IS route because it has the shortest prefix inclusive of the destination address. B. It selects the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance. C. It selects the OSPF route because it has the lowest cost. D. It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1. The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path. What is the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route A. Traffic to is load balanced out of multiple interfaces B. Route is updated in the routing table as being learned from interface Gi0/1. C. Traffic to is a symmetrical D. Route learned via the Gi0/0 interface remains in the routing table.
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design? This design will function as intended. Spanning-tree will need to be used. The router will not accept the addressing scheme. The connection between switches should be a trunk.
Refer to the exhibit. When running EIGRP, what is required for RouterA to exchange routing updates with RouterC? AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers Loopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected The no auto-summary command is needed on Router A and Router C Router B needs to have two network statements, one for each connected network.
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router?
Refer to the graphic. R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.) All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem? The OSPF area is not configured properly. The cost on R1 should be set higher. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
Refer to the exhibit. A network associate has configured OSPF with the command: City(config-router)# network area 0. After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.) FastEthernet0 /0 FastEthernet0 /1 Serial0/0 Serial0/1.102 Serial0/1.103 Serial0/1.104.
Refer to the exhibit. Which address and mask combination represents a summary of the routes learned by EIGRP?
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states? show ip ospf link-state show ip ospf lsa database show ip ospf neighbors show ip ospf database.
For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2 to allow communication with devices on a different network to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first to allow communication between different devices on the same network to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown.
Refer to the exhibit . Which Command do you enter so that R1 advertises the loopback0 interface to the BGP Peers? interface Loopback0 ip address router bgp 999 neighbor remote-as 65001 Network mask Network Network Network mask Network mask Network
When configuring an EtherChannel bundle, which mode enables LACP only if a LACP device is detected? Passive Desirable On Auto Active.
Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSRP default configuration? Router loopback address Router IP address Router priority Router tracking number.
In a CDP environment, what happens when the CDP interface on an adjacent device is configured without an IP address? A. CDP becomes inoperable on that neighbor B. CDP uses the IP address of another interface for that neighbor C. CDP operates normally, but it cannot provide IP address information for that neighbor D. CDP operates normally, but it cannot provide any information for that neighbor.
Refer to the exhibit. Which feature is enabled by this configuration? static NAT translation a DHCP pool a dynamic NAT address pool PAT.
Which feature or protocol determines whether the QOS on the network is sufficient to support IP services? A. LLDP B. CDP C. IP SLA D. EEM.
Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the given configurations to R1 and R2 you notice that OSPFv3 fails to start. A. The area numbers on R1 and R2 are mismatched B. The IPv6 network addresses on R1 and R2 are mismatched C. The autonomous system numbers on R1 and R2 are mismatched D. The router ids on R1 and R2 are mismatched.
Which command is used to enable LLDP globally on a Cisco IOS ISR? lldp run lldp enable lldp transmit cdp run cdp enable.
Which two pieces of information can you learn by viewing the routing table? (Choose two.) A. whether an ACL was applied inbound or outbound to an interface B. the EIGRP or BGP autonomous system C. whether the administrative distance was manually or dynamically configured D. which neighbor adjacencies are established E. the length of time that a route has been known.
Which two pieces of information can you determine from the output of the show ntp status command? (Choose two.) A. whether the NTP peer is statically configured B. the IP address of the peer to which the clock is synchronized C. the configured NTP servers D. whether the clock is synchronized E. the NTP version number of the peer.
Which two statements about eBGP neighbor relationships are true? (Choose two.) A. The two devices must reside in different autonomous systems B. Neighbors must be specifically declared in the configuration of each device C. They can be created dynamically after the network statement is configured D. The two devices must reside in the same autonomous system E. The two devices must have matching timer settings.
Which two circumstances can prevent two routers from establishing an OSPF neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.) A. mismatched autonomous system numbers B. an ACL blocking traffic from multicast address C. mismatched process IDs D. mismatched hello timers and dead timers E. use of the same router ID on both devices.
Refer to the exhibit. Which VLAN ID is associated with the default VLAN in the given environment? A. VLAN 1 B. VLAN 5 C. VLAN 10 D. VLAN 20.
Which two pieces of information about a Cisco device can Cisco Discovery Protocol communicate? (Choose two.) A. the native VLAN B. the trunking protocol C. the VTP domain D. the spanning-tree priority E. the spanning-tree protocol.
Which two statements about VTP are true? (Choose two.) A. All switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name B. All switches must be configured to perform trunk negotiation C. All switches must be configured with a unique VTP domain name D. The VTP server must have the highest revision number in the domain E. All switches must use the same VTP version.
You have configured a router with an OSPF router ID, but its IP address still reflects the physical interface.Which action can you take to correct the problem in the least disruptive way? A. Reload the OSPF process B. Specify a loopback address C. Reboot the router D. Save the router configuration.
Which two statements about exterior routing protocols are true? (Choose two.) A. They determine the optimal within an autonomous system. B. They determine the optimal path between autonomous systems. C. BGP is the current standard exterior routing protocol. D. Most modern networking supports both EGP and BGP for external routing. E. Most modern network routers support both EGP and EIGRP for external routing.
What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local address? A. 00000000 B. 11111100 C. 11111111 D. 11111101.
Which effete does the aaa new-model configuration command have? It enables AAA services on the device It configures the device to connect to a RADIUS server for AAA It associates a RADIUS server to an group. It configures a local user on the device.
Which feature or protocol is required for an IP SLA to measure UDP jitter? A. LLDP B. EEM C. CDP D. NTP.
Refer to the exhibit. How will the router handle a packet destined for A. The router will forward the packet via either Serial0 or Serial1. B. The router will return the packet to its source. C. The router will forward the packet via Serial2. D. The router will drop the packet.
Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the given configuration to a router, the DHCP clients behind the device cannot communicate with hosts outside of their subnet.which action is most likely to correct the problem? A. Configure the dns server on the same subnet as the clients B. Activate the dhcp pool C. Correct the subnet mask D. Configure the default gateway.
Which statement about VLAN configuration is true? A. The switch must be in VTP server or transparent mode before you can configure a VLAN B. The switch must be in config-vlan mode before you configure an extended VLAN C. Dynamic inter-VLAN routing is supported on VLAN2 through VLAN 4064 D. A switch in VTP transparent mode save the VLAN databases to the running configuration only.
Which two command sequences must be configured on a switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two.) A. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode auto B. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode on C. interface port-channel 10 no switchport ip address D. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode active E. interface port-channel 10 switchport switchport mode trunk.
Which configuration command can u apply to a HSRP router so that its local interface becomes active if all other routers in the group fail? no additional config is required standby 1 track ethernet standby 1 preempt standby 1 priority 250 .
Which command should you enter to view the error log in an EIGRP for IPv6 environment? show ipv6 eigrp neighbors show ipv6 eigrp topology show ipv6 eigrp traffic show ipv6 eigrp events.
Which three describe the reasons large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three.) A. to speed up convergence B. to reduce routing overhead C. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches D. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth E. to confine network instability to single areas of the network F. to reduce the complexity of router configuration.
Refer to the exhibit. If RTR01 is configured as shown, which three addresses will be received by other routers that are running EIGRP on the network? (Choose three.) A. B. C. D. E. F.
Which two VLAN IDs indicate a default VLAN? (Choose two.) A. 0 B. 1 C. 1005 D. 1006 E. 4096.
You have two paths for the network - one that has a feasible distance of 3072 and the other of 6144. What do you need to do to load balance your EIGRP routes? A. Change the maximum paths to 2 B. Change the configuration so they both have the same feasible distance C. Change the variance for the path that has a feasible distance of 3072 to 2 D. Change the IP addresses so both paths have the same source IP address.
Which three statements about network characteristics are true? (Choose three.) A. Speed is a measure of the data rate in bits per second of a given link in the network. B. Scalability indicates how many nodes are currently on the network. C. The logical topology is the arrangement of cables, network devices, and end systems. D. Availability is a measure of the probability that the network will be available for use when it is required. E. Reliability indicates the dependability of the components that make up the network. .
Which two statements about EtherChannel technology are true? (Choose two.) A. EtherChannel provides increased bandwidth by bundling existing FastEthernet or Gigabit Ethernet interfaces into a single EtherChannel. B. STP does not block EtherChannel links. C. You can configure multiple EtherChannel links between two switches, using up to a limit of sixteen physical ports. D. EtherChannel does not allow load sharing of traffic among the physical links within the EtherChannel. E. EtherChannel allows redundancy in case one or more links in the EtherChannel fail. .
Which command is used to configure an IPv6 static default route? A. ipv6 route ::/0 interface next-hop5 B. ipv6 route default interface next-hop C. ipv6 route interface next-hop D. ip route interface next-hop.
What will happen if you configure the logging trap debug command on a router? A. It causes the router to send messages with lower severity levels to the syslog server. B. It causes the router to send all messages with the severity levels Warning, Error, Critical, and Emergency to the syslog server C. It causes the router to send all messages to the syslog server D. It causes the router to stop sending all messages to the syslog server.
Which of the following is the JSON encoding of a dictionary or hash? A. {“key”:”value”} B. [“key”,”value”] C. {“key”,”value”} D. (“key”:”value”).
Refer to the exhibit. The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration. After testing, workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet. Which action corrects the configuration issue? QUESTION 110 PICTURE GOES HERE A. Add the default-information originate command on R2. B. Add the always keyword to the default-information originate command on R1. C. Configure the ip route command on R1. D. Configure the ip route command on R2.
After you deploy a new WLAN controller on your network, which two additional tasks should you consider? (Choose two.) A. deploy load balancers B. configure additional vlans C. configure multiple VRRP groups D. deploy POE switches E. configure additional security policies.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the network environment of router R1 must be true? (Choose two.) A. The EIGRP administrative distance was manually changed from 90 to 170. B. There are 20 different network masks within the network. C. Ten routes are equally load-balanced between Te0/1/0.100 and Te0/2/0.100. D. The network was learned via external EIGRP. E. A static default route to was defined.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true? (Choose two.) A. Two secure MAC address are manually configured on the interface. B. A syslog message is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is on the interface. C. The interface is error -disabled. D. The interface dynamic ally learned two secure MAC addresses. E. An SNMP trap is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is reached on the interface. .
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.) A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB. B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB. C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB. E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
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