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Title of test: CCNA 200-301 Description: Prova CCNA Author: Adriano Veiga Other tests from this author Creation Date: 04/12/2024 Category: Computers Number of questions: 184

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Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks? Only traditional networks offer a centralized control plane Only traditional networks natively support centralized management Traditional and controller-based networks abstract policies from device configurations Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane. How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy? It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination in the IP routing table. It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links in the data path It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN . Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two) A. The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting Interface by 256. The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route. Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible? (Choose two) adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center modular design that is upgradable as needed. Refer to the exhibit. What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID? 10.10.1.10 10.10.10.20 172.16.15.10 192.168.0.1. Which 802.11 frame type is association response? management protected frame control action. Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices? overlay northbound underlay southbound. Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines? Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU. memory, and storage Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources. Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device? outside global outside local inside global inside local outside public inside public. Which option about JSON is true? uses predefined tags or angle brackets () to delimit markup text used to describe structured data that includes arrays used for storing information similar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML. Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols? dual algorithm metric administrative distance hop count. Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two) management interface settings QoS settings Ip address of one or more access points SSID Profile name . What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two) reduced operational costs reduced hardware footprint faster changes with more reliable results fewer network failures increased network security. Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plaintext on a router or switch? enable secret service password-encryption username Cisco password encrypt enable password. What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller? Central AP management requires more complex configurations Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method It supports autonomous and lightweight APs It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually. Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet? 1729.0.0/16 172.28.0.0/16 192.0.0.0/8 209.165.201.0/24. Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch? Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down After spanning tree converges PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs. When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two) ASCII base64 binary decimal hexadecimal. Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable What is the result of this configuration? The link is in a downstate. The link is in an error disables state The link is becomes an access port. The link becomes a trunkport. When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined?(Choose two) 2000::/3 2002::5 FC00::/7 FF02::1 FF02::2. Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address? 0000.5E00.010a 0005.3711.0975 0000.0C07.AC99 0007.C070/AB01. in Which way does a spine and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required? A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch . Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in pre-shared key mode? TKIP with RC4 RC4 AES-128 AES-256. What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks? It only supports auto-discovery of network elements in a green field deployment It modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode. Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two) It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up IT supports protocol discovery. A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB? CDP SNMP SMTP ARP. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1. The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path. What is the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25? Traffic to 10.10.13.0.25 is load balanced out of multiple interfaces Route 10.10.13.0/25 is updated in the routing table as being learned from interface Gi0/1. Traffic to 10.10.13.0/25 is a symmetrical Route 10.10.13.0/25 learned via the GiO/0 interface remains in the routing table . Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override? When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port a syslog message is generated As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power it assumes the device has failed and disconnects If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err- disabled. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32? floating static route host route default route network route . Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol? on auto active desirable. An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode? Exchange 2-way Full Init. Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router? Configure the version of SSH Configure VTY access. Create a user with a password. Assign a DNS domain name . An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine? platform-as-a-service software-as-a-service network-as-a-service infrastructure-as-a-service. Refer to Exhibit. Which action do the switches take on the trunk link? The trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link. The trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state. Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure? disabling TPC so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller allocating non overlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps. Refer to the exhibit. If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A? It sends packets out of interface Fa0/2 only It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1 only. It cannot send packets to 10.10.13.128/25 It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2. A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two) runts giants frame CRC input errors. Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two) The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image The Ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch IP routing must be enabled on the switch A console password must be configured on the switch Telnet must be disabled on the switch. Refer to the exhibit. If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command, how does the router respond? It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed It immediately replaces the existing OSPF route in the routing table with the newly configured static route It starts load-balancing traffic between the two default routes It starts sending traffic without a specific matching entry in the routing table to Gigabit EthernetO/1. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP. All other computers must be able to access the web server. Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task? awser. A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path? cost administrative distance metric as-path. Refer to the exhibit. An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2 The configuration farted to work as intended. Which two changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20.0/26 from the 10.0.10 0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose two) Add a "permit ip any any" statement to the beginning of ACL 101 for allowed traffic. Add a "permit ip any any" statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101 The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface in bound on R1 The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1interface outbound onR2. What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization? Authentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between the authentication agent and the user database. Authentication identifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the users password Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform. Authentication controls the system processes a user can access and authorization logs the activities the user initiates. When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails? The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup The administrative distance must be higher on the primary route so that the backup route becomes secondary. The floating static route must have a lower administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup The default-information originate command must be configured for the route to be installed into the routing table. Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two) The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router Each router has a different IP address both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load balanced between them. The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding The two routed share the same IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them. Refer to the exhibit. Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode? adminadmin123 default testing1234 cisco123. How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints? TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets. UDP uses SYN,SYN ACK and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN,SYN ACK and ACK bits UDP provides reliable message transfer and TCP is a connectionless protocol TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery. When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data? IKEv2 IKEv1 IPsec MD5. What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree port fast command? it enables BPDU messages It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded It immediately enables the port in the listening state. Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true? To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured The EtherChannel must be configured in "mode active" When enabled the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic. Refer to the exhibit. Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2? 192.168.16.0/21 192.168.16.0/24 192.168 26.0/26 192.168.16.0/27. Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two) Enable NTP authentication Verify the time zone. Disable NTP broadcasts Specify the IP address of the NTP server Set the NTP server private key. Refer to the exhibit. Which command provides this output? show ip route show ip interface show interface show cdp neighbor. Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multi-factor authentication? The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen The user enters a user name and password and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen. Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers? autonomous lightweight bridge mobility express. Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table? 20 90 110 115. Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration? The switch port interface trust state becomes untrusted The switch port remains administratively down until the interface is connected to another switch Dynamic ARP inspection is disabled because the ARP ACL is missing The switch port remains down until it is configured to trust or untrust incoming packets. Refer to the exhibit. Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A? 10.10.10.0/28 10.10.13.0/25 10.10.13.144/28 10.10.13.208/29. What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two) The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers It moves the control plane to a central point It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions It uses Telnet to report system issues. Refer to exhibit. Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received? It is a broadcast IP address The router does not support /28 mask It belongs to a private IP address range. IT is a network IP address. Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that is uses on the right. DHCP FTP SMTP SSH SNMP TFTP. Which command should you enter to verify the priority of a router in an HSRP group? show hsrp show sessions show interfaces show standby. Which command should you enter to configure a device as an NTP sever? ntp sever ntp peer ntp authenticate ntp master. Which two pieces of information can you determine from the output of the show ntp status command? (Choose two) whether the NTP peer is statically configured the IP address of the peer to which the clock is synchronized the configured NTP servers whether the clock is synchronized the NTP version number of the peer. Which effete does the aaa new-model configuration command have? It enables AAA services on the device It configures the device to connect to a RADIUS server for AAA It associates a RADIUS server to an group. It configures a local user on the device. Refer to the exhibit. Which command would you use to configure a static route on Router1 to network 192.168.202.0/24 with a nondefault administrative distance? router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 1 router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 5 router1(config)#ip route 1 192.168.201.1 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 router1(config)#ip route 5 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2. What is the destination MAC address of a broadcast frame? 00:00:0c:07:ac:01 ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff 43:2e:08:00:00:0c 00:00:0c:43:2e:08 00:00:0c:ff:ff:ff. Which command is used to enable LLDP globally on a Cisco IOS ISR? lldp run lldp enable lldp transmit cdp run cdp enable. Which of the following dynamic routing protocols are Distance Vector routing protocols? IS-IS EIGRP OSPF BGP RIP. You have configured a router with an OSPF router ID, but its IP address still reflects the physical interface. Which action can you take to correct the problem in the least disruptive way? Reload the OSPF process. Specify a loopback address Reboot the router Save the router configuration. Which command should you enter to configure an LLDP delay time of 5 seconds? lldp timer 5000 lldp holdtime 5 lldp reinit 5000 lldp reinit 5. Which keyword in a NAT configuration enables the use of one outside IP address for multiple inside hosts? source static pool overload. Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller? sniffer mesh flex connect local. Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment? Bronze Platinum Silver Gold. Refer to the exhibit. With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned? 0 110 38443 3184439. Refer to the Exhibit. After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B Based on the output for switch 1. Which error must be corrected? There is a native VLAN mismatch Access mode is configured on the switch ports. The PCs are m the incorrect VLAN All VLANs are not enabled on the trunk. Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client? ip address dhcp ip helper-address ip dhcp pool ip dhcp client. Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two) YAML JSON EBCDIC SGML XML. Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration? All ARP packets are dropped by the switch Egress traffic is passed only if the destination is a DHCP server. All ingress and egress traffic is dropped because the interface is untrusted The switch discard all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bindings. In a CDP environment, what happens when the CDP interface on an adjacent device is configured without an IP address? CDP becomes inoperable on that neighbor CDP uses the IP address of another interface for that neighbor CDP operates normally,but it cannot provide IP address information for that neighbor CDP operates normally,but it cannot provide any information for that neighbor. Refer to the exhibit. When PC 1 sends a packet to PC2,the packet has. Which source and destination IP address when it arrives at interface Gi0/0 on router R2? source 192.168.10.10 and destination 10.10.2.2 source 192.168.20.10 and destination 192.168.20.1 source 192.168.10.10 and destination 192.168.20.10 source 10.10.1.1 and destination 10.10.2.2. Which feature or protocol determines whether the QOS on the network is sufficient to support IP services? LLDP CDP IP SLA EEM. An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place? Physical access control Social engineering attack brute force attack user awareness . What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received? The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table . Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct. Which IP address is the source IP after the NAT has taken place? 10.4.4.4 10.4.4.5 172.23.103.10 172.23.104.4 . Refer to the exhibit. The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another? (Choose two.) Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router Configure the Ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router. A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF By default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to? point-to-multipoint point-to-point broadcast nonbroadcast. An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch. Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two) Configure the ports in an EtherChannel Administratively shut down the ports Configure the port type as access and place in VLAN 99 Configure the ports as trunk ports Enable the Cisco Discovery Protocol . Which output displays a JSON data representation? Answer D. An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2-PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement? WEP RC4 AES TKIP. When configuring an EtherChannel bundle, which mode enables LACP only if a LACP device is detected? Passive Desirable On Auto Active. Refer to the exhibit. Which VLAN ID is associated with the default VLAN in the given environment? VLAN 1 VLAN 5 VLAN 10 VLAN 20. Which two VLAN IDs indicate a default VLAN? (Choose two.) 0 1 1005 1006 4096. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the interface that generated the output is true? A syslog message is generated when a violation occurs One secure MAC address is manually configured on the interface One secure MAC address is dynamically learned on the interface. Five secure MAC addresses are dynamically learned on the interface. Which command should you enter to view the error log in an EIGRP for IPv6 environment? show ipv6 eigrp neighbors show ipv6 eigrp topology show ipv6 eigrp traffic show ipv6 eigrp events. If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred? A network device has restarted An ARP inspection has failed A routing instance has flapped A debug operation is running. What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two ) OpenFlow NETCONF Thrift CORBA DSC. Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks? CPU ACL TACACS Flex ACL RADIUS. Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface? ipv6 address dhcp ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64 ipv6 address autoconfig ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local. A network administrator enters the following command on a router: logging trap 3. What are three message types that will be sent to the Syslog server? (Choose three.) informational emergency warning critical debug error. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the network environment of router R1 must be true? (Choose two.) The EIGRP administrative distance was manually changed from 90 to 170. There are 20 different network masks within the 10.0.0.0/8 network. Ten routes are equally load-balanced between Te0/1/0.100 and Te0/2/0.100 The 10.0.0.0/8 network was learned via external EIGRP. A static default route to 10.85.33.14 was defined. Which two statements about exterior routing protocols are true? (Choose two.) They determine the optimal within an autonomous system. They determine the optimal path between autonomous systems. BGP is the current standard exterior routing protocol. Most modern networking supports both EGP and BGP for external routing. Most modern network routers support both EGP and EIGRP for external routing. Which two pieces of information about a Cisco device can Cisco Discovery Protocol communicate? (Choose two.) the native VLAN the trunking protocol the VTP domain the spanning-tree priority the spanning tree protocol. Which two statements about NTP operations are true? (Choose two.) NTP uses UDP over IP. Cisco routers can act as both NTP authoritative servers and NTP clients. Cisco routers can act only as NTP servers. Cisco routers can act only as NTP clients. NTP uses TCP over IP. Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface? lldp timer lldp holdtime lldp reinit lldp tlv-select. A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone? It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged It drops the traffic It tags the traffic with the default VLAN It tags the traffic with the native VLAN . Refer to the exhibit. Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured? passive mode on auto active. Refer to the exhibit. The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1 How is OSPF configured The interface is not participating in OSPF A point-to-point network type is configured The default Hello and Dead timers are in use There are six OSPF neighbors on this interface. R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS, OSPF, RIP and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table? IS-IS RIP Internal EIGRP OSPF. Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address? 2000::/3 FC00::/7 FE80::/10 FF00::/8. Which feature or protocol is required for an IP SLA to measure UDP jitter? LLDP EEM CDP NTP. Which two pieces of information can you learn by viewing the routing table? (Choose two) whether an ACL was applied inbound or outbound to an interface the EIGRP or BGP autonomous system whether the administrative distance was manually or dynamically configured Which neighbor adjacencies are established the length of time that a route has been known. Refer to the exhibit. Which two events occur on the interface,if packets from an unknown Source address arrive after the interface learns the maximum number of secure MAC address? (Choose two) The security violation counter dose not increment The port LED turns off The interface is error-disabled A syslog message is generated The interface drops traffic from unknown MAC address. Refer to the exhibit. Which feature is enabled by this configuration? static NAT translation a DHCP pool a dynamic NAT address pool PAT. For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2 to allow communication with devices on a different network to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first to allow communication between different devices on the same network to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown. Refer to Exhibit. An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two) ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1 ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1 5 ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::2 ipv6 router 2000::1/1282023::2 5 ipv6 router 2000::1/1282023::3 5. Refer to Exhibit. How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain? It processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its access ports It receives updates from all VTP servers and forwards all locally configured VLANs out all trunk ports It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports It transmits and processes VTP updates from any VTP Clients on the network on its trunk ports. Which NAT term is defined as a group of addresses available for NAT use? NAT pool dynamic NAT static NAT one-way NAT. After you deploy a new WLAN controller on your network, which two additional tasks should you consider? (Choose two) deploy load balancers configure additional vlans configure multiple VRRP groups deploy POE switches configure additional security policies. Which component of an Ethernet frame is used to notify a host that traffic is coming? start of frame delimiter Type field preamble Data field. Refer to the exhibit. How will switch SW2 handle traffic from VLAN 10 on SW1? It sends the traffic to VLAN 10 It sends the traffic to VLAN 100. It drops the traffic. It sends the traffic to VLAN 1. You are configuring your edge routers interface with a public IP address for Internet connectivity. The router needs to obtain the IP address from the service provider dynamically. Which command is needed on interface FastEthernet 0/0 to accomplish this? ip default-gateway ip route ip default-network ip address dhcp ip address dynamic. What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two) when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again when the cable length limits are exceeded when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex when Carner Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted. Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet? global unicast unique local link-local multicast. A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP. By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2? port-to-multipoint broadcast point-to-point non-broadcast. You have two paths for the 10.10.10.0 network - one that has a feasible distance of 3072 and the other of 6144. What do you need to do to load balance your EIGRP routes? Change the maximum paths to 2 Change the configuration so they both have the same feasible distance Change the variance for the path that has a feasible distance of 3072 to 2 Change the IP addresses so both paths have the same source IP address. Which two commands can you use to configure an actively negotiate EtherChannel? (Choose channel-group 10 mode on channel-group 10 mode auto channel-group 10 mode passive channel-group 10 mode desirable channel-group 10 mode active. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true? (Choose two) learned MAC addresses are deleted after five minutes of inactivity the interface is error-diabled if packets arrive from a new unknown source address it has dynamically learned two secure MAC addresses it has dynamically learned three secure MAC addresses the security violation counter increments if packets arrive from a new unknown source address. Which two circumstances can prevent two routers from establishing an OSPF neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.) mismatched autonomous system numbers an ACL blocking traffic from multicast address 224.0.0.10 mismatched process IDs mismatched hello timers and dead timers use of the same router ID on both devices. Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate? (Choose two) Defines the network functions that occur at each layer Facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network Changes in one layer do not impact other layer Ensures reliable data delivery through its layered approach. Which option best describes an API? a contract that describes how various components communicate and exchange data with each other an architectural style (versus a protocol) for designing applications a stateless client-server model request a certain type of data by specifying the URL path that models the data. Which of the following is the JSON encoding of a dictionary or hash? {"key": "value"} ["key", "value"] {"key", "value"} ("key": "value"). What will happen if you configure the logging trap debug command on a router? It causes the router to send messages with lower severity levels to the syslog server It causes the router to send all messages with the severity levels Warning, Error, Critical, and Emergency to the syslog server It causes the router to send all messages to the syslog server It causes the router to stop sending all messages to the syslog server. An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria? interface e0/0 description to HQ-A371:10975 ip address 172.16.1.4 255.255.255.248 interface e0/0 description to HQ-A371:10975 ip address 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252 interface e0/0 description to HQ-A371:10975 ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.248 interface e0/0 description to HQ-A371:10975 ip address 209.165.201.2 255.255.255.252. How does STP prevent forwarding loops at OSI Layer 2? TTL MAC address forwarding Collision avoidance Port blocking. Which three statements about MAC addresses are correct? (Choose three) To communicate with other devices on a network, a network device must have a unique MAC address The MAC address is also referred to as the IP address The MAC address of a device must be configured in the Cisco IOS CLI by a user with administrative privileges A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the manufacturer of the hardware and the second of which uniquely identifies the hardware An example of a MAC address is 0A:26:B8:D6:65:90 A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the network on which the host resides and the second of which uniquely identifies the host on the network. Which Cisco IOS command will indicate that interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 is configured via DHCP? show ip interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 dhcp show interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 show ip interface dhcp show ip interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 show ip interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 brief. Which command can you enter to allow Telnet to be supported in addition to SSH? transport input telnet ssh transport input telnet no transport input telnet privilege level 15 . Refer to the exhibit. The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration. After testing, workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet. Which action corrects the configuration issue? Add the default-information originate command on R2. Add the always keyword to the default-information originate command on R1. Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.18 command on R1. Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.2 command on R2. Which three describe the reasons large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose Three) to speed up convergence to reduce routing overhead to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth. to confine network instability to single areas of the network. to reduce the complexity of router configuration. What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local address? 00000000 11111100 11111111 11111101. Refer to the exhibit. If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.16.1.1, to which IP address does it send the packet? 192.168.14.4 192.168.12.2 192.168.13.3 192.168.15.5. Which two statements about VTP are true? (Choose two.) All switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name All switches must be configured to perform trunk negotiation. All switches must be configured with a unique VTP domain name The VTP server must have the highest revision number in the domain All switches must use the same VTP version. Refer to the exhibit. On R1 which routing protocol is in use on the route to 192.168.10.1? RIP OSPF IGRP EIGRP. Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space?(choose two) to enable intra-enterprise communication to implement NAT to connect applications to conserve global address space to manage routing overhead. Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge? The designated port The backup port The alternate port The root port. Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred forwarding interface? The interface number The port priority The VLAN priority The hello time. Which statement about VLAN configuration is true? The switch must be in VTP server or transparent mode before you can configure a VLAN The switch must be in config-vlan mode before you configure an extended VLAN Dynamic inter-VLAN routing is supported on VLAN2 through VLAN 4064 A switch in VTP transparent mode save the VLAN databases to the running configuration only. Refer to the exhibit. Which Command do you enter so that R1 advertises the loopback0 interface to the BGP Peers? Network 172.16.1.32 mask 255.255.255.224 Network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 Network 172.16.1.32 255.255.255.224 Network 172.16.1.33 mask 255.255.255.224 Network 172.16.1.32 mask 0.0.0.31 Network 172.16.1.32 0.0.0.31. Refer to exhibit. What Administrative distance has route to 192.168.10.1 ? 1 90 110 120. Refer to the exhibit. If RTR01 is configured as shown, which three addresses will be received by other routers that are running EIGRP on the network? (Choose three) 192.168.2.0 10.4.3.0 10.0.0.0 172.16.0.0 172.16.4.0 172.16.4.0. Which configuration command can u apply to a HSRP router so that its local interface becomes active if all other routers in the group fail? no additional config is required standby 1 track ethernet standby 1 preempt standby 1 priority 250. Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the given configuration to arouter, the DHCP clients behind the device connot communicate with hosts outside of their subnet. Which action is most likely to correct the problem? Configure the dns server on the same subnet as the clients Activate the dhcp pool Correct the subnet mask configure the default gateway. Which two statements about eBGP neighbor relationships are true? (Choose two) The two devices must reside in different autonomous systems Neighbors must be specifically declared in the configuration of each device They can be created dynamically after the network statement is configured. The two devices must reside in the same autonomous system The two devices must have matching timer settings. Which statement about Cisco Discovery Protocol is true? It is a Cisco-proprietary protocol It runs on the network layer. It can discover information from routers, firewalls, and switches. It runs on the physical layer and the data link layer. Refer to the exhibit. How will the router handle a packet destined for 192.0.2.156? The router will forward the packet via either Serial0 or Serial1. The router will return the packet to its source. The router will forward the packet via Serial2. The router will drop the packet. Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure? NAT 6to4 tunneling L2TPv3 dual-stack. Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three.) It supports VLSM. It is used to route between autonomous systems. It confines network instability to one area of the network. It increases routing overhead on the network. It allows extensive control of routing updates. It is simpler to configure than RIP v2. Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the give configurations to R1 and R2 you notice that OSPFv3 fails to start. Which reason for the problem is most likely true ? The area numbers on R1 and R2 are mismatched The IPv6 network addresses on R1 and R2 are mismatched The autonomous system numbers on R1 and R2 are mismatched The router ids on R1 and R2 are mismatched. Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states? show ip ospf link-state show ip ospf lsa database show ip ospf neighbors show ip ospf database. Refer to the exhibit. A network associate has configured OSPF with the command: City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0 After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.) FastEthernet0 /0 FastEthernet0 /1 Serial0/0 Serial0/1.102 Serial0/1.103 Serial0/1.104. Refer to the exhibit. C-router is to be used as a "router-on-a-stick" to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What is true about this configuration? These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router eigrp 123 C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router ospf 1 C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0 These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router rip C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 No further routing configuration is required. Refer to the exhibit. Which address and mask combination represents a summary of the routes learned by EIGRP? 192.168.25.0 255.255.255.240 192.168.25.0 255.255.255.252 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.240 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.252 192.168.25.28 255.255.255.240 192.168.25.28 255.255.255.252. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router? 10.1.1.2 10.154.154.1 172.16.5.1 192.168.5.3. Refer to the exhibit. Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict? The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved The address remains in the pool until the conflict is resolved. Only the IP detected by Gratuitous ARP is removed from the pool. Only the IP detected by Ping is removed from the pool. The IP will be shown, even after the conflict is resolved. Refer to the exhibit. When running EIGRP, what is required for RouterA to exchange routing updates with RouterC? AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers Loopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected The no auto-summary command is needed on Router A and Router C Router B needs to have two network statements, one for each connected network. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design? This design will function as intended Spanning-tree will need to be used. The router will not accept the addressing scheme The connection between switches should be a trunk. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol. A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem? The OSPF area is not configured properly. The priority on R1 should be set higher. The cost on R1 should be set higher The hello and dead timers are not configured properly. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network. The OSPF process ID numbers must match. . Refer to the graphic. R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.) All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3 EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas. . Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.) It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN. What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two.) to verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices to determine the status of network services on a remote device to obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches to verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails to obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device to determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers . What are two benefits of using VTP in a switching environment? (Choose two.) It allows switches to read frame tags It allows ports to be assigned to VLANs automatically It maintains VLAN consistency across a switched network. It allows frames from multiple VLANs to use a single interface It allows VLAN information to be automatically propagated throughout the switching environment. Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.) It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network. It establishes a static route to the 192.168.2.0 network. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination to the 172.16.3.0 network. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination out the interface with the address 192.168.2.4. It uses the default administrative distance. It is a route that would be used last if other routes to the same destination exist. Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.) A new switch has no VLANs configured. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains. Each VLAN uses a separate address space. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN. VLANs cannot span multiple switches. If all OSPF routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value, what value does a router use for the OSPF router ID in the absence of a loopback interface? the IP address of the first Fast Ethernet interface the IP address of the console management interface the highest IP address among its active interfaces the lowest IP address among its active interfaces the priority value until a loopback interface is configured. The OSPF Hello protocol performs which of the following tasks? (Choose two.) It provides dynamic neighbor discovery It detects unreachable neighbors in 90 second intervals It maintains neighbor relationships. It negotiates correctness parameters between neighboring interfaces. It uses timers to elect the router with the fastest links as the designated router. It broadcasts hello packets throughout the internetwork to discover all routers that are running OSPF. What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.) exactly one active router one or more standby routers one or more backup virtual routers exactly one standby active router exactly one backup virtual router. Which command can you enter to determine the addresses that have been assigned on a DHCP Server? Show ip DHCP database. Show ip DHCP pool. Show ip DHCP binding Show ip DHCP server statistic. On a corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they are unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication between the VLANs? a router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch a router with an IP address on the physical interface connected to the switch a switch with an access link that is configured between the switches a switch with a trunk link that is configured between the switches. Which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address? 2000::/3 FC00::/7 FE80::/10 FF00::/12. What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated? The seventh bit of original MAC address of the interface is inverted The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification. What is the difference regrading reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP? TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol. TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol. TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol. Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which configuration accomplishes this task? R1# config t R1(config)# ip routing R1(config)# ip route default-route 192.168.1.1 R1# config t R1(config)# ip routing R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1 R1# config t R1(config)# ip routing R1(config)# ip route 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 R1# config t R1(config)# ip routing R1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1. Which function dose the range of private IPv4 addresses perform? allow multiple companies to each use the same address without conflicts provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network ensues that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing enable secure communications to the internet for all external hosts.

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