Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured the New York router with static routes that point to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which command must be configured on the Atlanta and Washington routers so that both sites are able to reach the loopback2 interface on the New York router? A. ipv6 route::/0 Serial 0/0/0 B. ipv6 route::/0 Serial 0/0/1 C. ipv6 route:0/0 Serial 0/0/0 D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/0 E. ipv6 route::/0 2000::2.
What is a function of a remote access VPN? A. used cryptographic tunneling to protect the privacy of data for multiple users simultaneously B. used exclusively when a user is connected to a company’s internal network C. establishes a secure tunnel between two branch sites D. allows the users to access company internal network resources through a secure tunnel.
What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks? A. Enable dynamic ARP inspection B. Configure an ACL to prevent traffic from changing VLANs C. Change native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID D. Implement port security on internet-facing VLANs.
Refer to the exhibit. An access list is created to deny Telnet access from host PC-1 to RTR-1 and allow access from all other hosts A Telnet attempt from PC-2 gives this message:”% Connection refused by remote host” Without allowing Telnet access from PC-1, which action must be taken to permit the traffic? A. Add the access-list 10 permit any command to the configuration B. Remove the access-class 10 in command from line vty 0.4. C. Add the ip access-group 10 out command to interface g0/0. D. Remove the password command from line vty 0 4.
What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an organization? A. group access points together to increase throughput on a given channel B. configure the first three access points are configured to use Channels 1, 6, and 11 C. include a least two access points on nonoverlapping channels to support load balancing D. assign physically adjacent access points to the same Wi-Fi channel.
How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment? A. wireless to an access point that is physically connected to the network B. a cable connected to a physical switch on the network C. a virtual switch that links to an access point that is physically connected to the network D. a software switch on a hypervisor that is physically connected to the network.
Which device controls the forwarding of authentication requests for users when connecting to the network using a lightweight access point? A. TACACS server B. wireless access point C. RADIUS server D. wireless LAN controller.
Which network plane is centralized and manages routing decisions? A. policy plane B. management plane C. control plane D. data plane.
Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server? A. disk B. applications C. VM configuration file
D. operating system.
Refer to the exhibit. After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface's configuration? A. Use the Ixml library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface's configuration. B. Create an XML filter as a string and pass it to get_config() method as an argument. C. Create a JSON filter as a string and pass it to the get_config() method as an argument. D. Use the JSON library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface's configuration.
Refer to the exhibit. The ntp server 192.168.0.3 command has been configured on router 1 to make it an NTP client of router 2. Which command must be configured on router 2 so that it operates in server-only mode and relies only on its internal clock? A. Router2(config)#ntp server 172.17.0.1 B. Router2(config)#ntp server 192.168.0.2 C. Router2(config)#ntp passive D. Router2(config)#ntp master 4.
Which WAN topology provides a combination of simplicity quality, and availability? A. partial mesh B. full mesh C. point-to-point D. hub-and-spoke.
When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be entered so the default gateway is automatically distributed? A. default-router B. default-gateway C. ip helper-address D. dns-server.
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses? A. Router1(config)#access-list 99 permit 192.168.100.32 0.0.0.31 Router1(config)#ip nat inside source list 99 interface gi1/0/0 overload Router1(config)#interface gi2/0/1.200 Router1(config)#ip nat inside Router1(config)#interface gi1/0/0 Router1(config)#ip nat outside B. Router1(config)#access-list 99 permit 192.168.100.0 0.0.0.255 Router1(config)#ip nat inside source list 99 interface gi1/0/0 overload Router1(config)#interface gi2/0/1.200 Router1(config)#ip nat inside Router1(config)#interface gi1/0/0 Router1(config)#ip nat outside C. Router1(config)#access-list 99 permit 209.165.201.2 255.255.255.255 Router1(config)#ip nat inside source list 99 interface gi1/0/0 overload Router1(config)#interface gi2/0/1.200 Router1(config)#ip nat inside Router1(config)#interface gi1/0/0 Router1(config)#ip nat outside D. Router1(config)#access- list 99 permit 209.165.201.2 0.0.0.0 Router1(config)#ip nat inside source list 99 interface gi1/0/0 overload Router1(config)#interface gi2/0/1.200 Router1(config)#ip nat inside Router1(config)#interface gi1/0/0 Router1(config)#ip nat outside.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11. PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN, and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN. Which configuration meets these requirements?
A. interface gigabitethernet1/1 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 8 ! interface gigabitethernet1/3 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 8 switchport voice vlan 9 B. interface gigabitethernet1/1 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 8 ! interface gigabitethernet1/3 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk vlan 8 switchport voice vlan 9 C. interface gigabitethernet1/1 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 9 ! interface gigabitethernet1/3 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk vlan 8 switchport trunk vlan 9 D. interface gigabitethernet1/1 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 8 ! interface gigabitethernet1/3 switchport mode access switchport voice vlan 8 switchport access vlan 9.
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch becomes the root of the spanning tree for VLAN 110? A. Switch 1 B. Switch 2 C. Switch 3 D. Switch 4.
Refer to the exhibit. An access-list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface Gi0/0 and deny traffic from interface Gi0/1. Which access list must be applied? A. ip access-list standard 99 permit 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255 deny 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 B. ip access-list standard 99 permit 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255 deny 192.168.0.0 0.255.255.255 C. ip access-list standard 199 permit 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255 deny 192.168.0.0 0.255.255.255 D. ip access-list standard 199 permit 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255 deny 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255.
Which switch technology establishes a network connection immediately when it is plugged in? A. PortFast B. BPDU guard C. UplinkFast D. BackboneFast.
An engineer needs to add an old switch back into a network. To prevent the switch from corrupting the VLAN database which action must be taken? A. Add the switch in the VTP domain with a lower revision number B. Add the switch with DTP set to dynamic desirable C. Add the switch in the VTP domain with a higher revision number D. Add the switch with DTP set to desirable.
Which two QoS tools provide congestion management? (Choose two.) A. CBWFQ B. FRTS C. CAR D. PBR E. PQ.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must turn off the Cisco Discovery Protocol on the port configured with address last usable address in the 10.0.0.0/30 subnet. Which command set meets the requirement?
A. interface gi0/1
no cdp enable B. interface gi0/1
clear cdp table C. interface gi0/0
no cdp advertise-v2 D. interface gi0/0
no cdp run.
What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable? A. Both have a 50 micron core diameter B. Both have a 9 micron core diameter C. Both have a 62.5 micron core diameter D. Both have a 100 micron core diameter.
A network administrator must configure SSH for remote access to router R1. The requirement is to use a public and private key pair to encrypt management traffic to and from the connecting client. Which configuration, when applied, meets the requirements? A. R1#enable R1#configure terminal R1(config)#ip domain-name cisco.com R1(config)#crypto key generate ec keysize 1024 B. R1#enable R1#configure terminal R1(config)#ip domain-name cisco.com R1(config)#crypto key generate ec keysize 2048 C. R1#enable R1#configure terminal R1(config)#ip domain-name cisco.com R1(config)#crypto key encrypt rsa name myKey D. R1#enable R1#configure terminal R1(config)#ip domain-name cisco.com R1(config)#crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024.
Which protocol does an access point use to draw power from a connected switch? A. Internet Group Management Protocol B. Cisco Discovery Protocol C. Adaptive Wireless Path Protocol D. Neighbor Discovery Protocol.
What is the benefit of using FHRP? A. reduced management overhead on network routers B. balancing traffic across multiple gateways in proportion to their loads C. higher degree of availability D. reduced ARP traffic on the network.
An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request A. Enable MAC filtering and set the SA Query timeout to 10. B. Enable 802.1x Layer 2 security and set the Comeback timer to 10. C. Enable Security Association Teardown Protection and set the SA Query timeout to 10. D. Enable the Protected Management Frame service and set the Comeback timer to 10.
Which 802.11 management frame type is sent when a client roams between access points on the same SSID? A. Reassociation Request B. Probe Request C. Authentication Request D. Association Request.
What are two improvements provided by automation for network management in an SDN environment? (Choose two) A. Data collection and analysis tools establish a baseline for the network B. Artificial intelligence identifies and prevents potential design failures. C. Machine learning minimizes the overall error rate when automating troubleshooting processes D. New devices are onboarded with minimal effort E. Proprietary Cisco APIs leverage multiple network management tools.
Which WLC port connects to a switch to pass normal access-point traffic? A. redundancy B. console C. distribution system D. service.
Refer to the exhibit. How must router A be configured so that it only sends Cisco Discovery Protocol Information to router C? A. Option A B. Option b C. Option C D. Option D.
Which two components are needed to create an Ansible script that configures a VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.) A. cookbook B. task C. playbook D. model E. recipe.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two prefixes are included in this routing table entry? (Choose two.) A. 192.168.1.17 B. 192.168.1.61 C. 192.168.1.64 D. 192.168.1.127 E. 192.168.1.254.
Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.) A. Eliminating training needs B. Increasing reliance on self-diagnostic and self-healing C. Policy-derived provisioning of resources D. Providing a ship entry point for resource provisioning E. Reducing hardware footprint.
why was the rfc 1918 address space defined? a. conserve public ipv4 addressing b. reduce instances of overlapping ip addressing.
Refer to the exhibit. R5 is the current DR on the network, and R4 is the BDR. Their interfaces are flapping, so a network engineer wants the OSPF network to elect a different DR and BDR. Which set of configurations must the engineer implement?
A. Option B. Option C. Option D. Option.
Which action does the router take as it forwards a packet through the network? A. The router replaces the source and desinaoon labels wth the sending router uterface label as a source and the next hop router label as a desbnabon B. The router encapsulates the source and destination IP addresses with the sending router P address as the source and the neighbor IP address as the destination C. The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination D. The router encapsulates the original packet and then includes a tag that identifies the source router MAC address and transmit transparently to the destination.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands, when configured on router R1, fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)
Packets towards the entire network 2001:db8:2::/64 must be forwarded through router R2.
Packets toward host 2001:db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3. A. Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/128 fd00:12::2 B. Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/128 fd00:13::3 C. Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2 D. Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/64 fd00:12::2 E. Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2 200.
How are VLAN hopping attacks mitigated? enable dynamic arp inspection manually implement trunk ports and disable dtp.
What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol on a specific subnet? A. forwards multicast hello messages between routers B. sends the default route to the hosts on a network Most Voted.
What must be considered when using 802.11a? A. It is compatible with 802 lib- and 802 11-compliant wireless devices B. It is used in place of 802 11b/g when many nonoverlapping channels are required C. It is susceptible to interference from 2 4 GHz devices such as microwave ovens. D. It is chosen over 802 11b/g when a lower-cost solution is necessary.
Which two events occur automatically when a device is added to Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two.) A. The device is placed into the Managed state. B. The device is placed into the Unmanaged state. C. The device is assigned to the Local site. D. The device is assigned to the Global site. E. The device is placed into the Provisioned state.
A network administrator is asked to configure VLANS 2, 3 and 4 for a new implementation. Some ports must be assigned to the new VLANS with unused remaining. Which action should be taken for the unused ports? A. configure port in the native VLAN B. configure ports in a black hole VLAN C. configure in a nondefault native VLAN D. configure ports as access ports.
Which access layer threat mitigation technique provides security by acting as a filter between trusted and untrusted traffic sources? DHCP snooping dynamic packet inspection a nondefault native VLAN 802.1X.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the metric of the route to the 192.168.10.33/28 subnet? A. 84 B. 110 C. 128 D. 192 E. 193.
what is a syslog facility A. Host that is configured for the system to send log messages B. password that authenticates a Network Management System to receive log messages C. group of log messages associated with the configured severity level D. set of values that represent the processes that can generate a log message.
n engineer is configuring data and voice services to pass through the same port. The designated switch interface fastethernet0/1 must transmit packets using the same priority for data when they are received from the access port of the IP phone. Which configuration must be used? A)
interface fastethernet0/1
switchport priority extend cos 7 B)
interface fastethernet0/1
switchport voice vlan untagged C)
interface fastethernet0/1
switchport voice vlan dot1p D)
interface fastethernet0/1
switchport priority extend trust.
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