CCNP ENARSI PART 11

Which IPv6 feature enables a device to reject traffic when it is originated from an address that is not stored in the device binding table?. A. IPv6 Source Guard. B. IPv6 DAD Proxy. C. IPv6 RA Guard. D. IPv6 Snooping.

Which two protocols are used by a P router to transfer VPN traffic between PE routers in an MPLS network? (Choose two.). A. LDP. B. RSVP. C. MP-BGP. D. BGP. E. OSPF.

Which feature is used by LDP in the forwarding path within the MPLS cloud?. A. TDP. B. TTL. C. LSP. D. IP forwarding.

Which two features are required for MPLS forwarding on which types of routers? (Choose two.). A. MPLS on PE and core routers. B. LDP on PE and core routers. C. MPLS on CE and core routers. D. LDP on PE and CE routers. E. CEF on PE and CE routers.

Refer to the exhibit. Which action restores OSPF adjacency between R1 and R2?. A. Change the IP MTU of R2 Fa0/0 to 1300. B. Change the IP MTU of R1 Fa1/0 to 1500. C. Change the IP MTU of R2 Fa0/0 to 1500. D. Change the IP MTU of R1 Fa1/0 to 1300.

Refer to the exhibit. Which action resolves the IP SLA for the UDP jitter problem between R4 and R3 Ethernet 0/1 IP addresses?. A. Delete and configure the ip sla 6500 command with R3 e0/1 IP address. B. Configure the ip sla 6500 command with R3 e0/1 IP address. C. Configure the ip sla responder command with R4 E0/1 IP address. D. Delete and configure the ip sla responder command with R4 E0/1 IP address.

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured user login based on authentication database on the router, but no one can log into the router. Which configuration resolves the issue?. A. aaa authentication login default local. B. aaa authorization network default local. C. aaa authentication login default enable. D. aaa authorization exec default local.

Refer to the exhibit. Which action allows the engineer to successfully copy running-config to the TFTP server?. A. Add a route in the switch to the TFTP server. B. Add the TFTP server configuration in the switch. C. Use TFTP server IP address 10.0.1.1. D. Use file name Switch-confg.txt.

Refer to the exhibit. UserPC receives the IP address but does not register to the call manager. Which command in ip dhcp pool VLAN200_USER_VOICE resolves the issue?. A. option 150 ip 10.221.10.10. B. option 15 ip 10.221.10.10. C. option 160 ip 10.221.10.10. D. option 117 ip 10.221.10.10.

Refer to the exhibit. The router is redistributing a prefix 172.16.10.0/24 that should have been filtered. Which action resolves the issue?. A. Add the route in access-list 10. B. Match the tag 666 for the route in the route map. C. Remove route-map sequence 20. D. Permit the route in route-map sequence 20.

Refer to the exhibit. SW101 could not transfer its startup configuration to a TFTP server. No ACL is configured on the switch, and it can successfully ping the host. Which action resolves the issue?. A. Open UDP port 69 on the TFTP server. B. Open UDP port 179 on the TFTP server. C. Configure a FW in the middle to allow bidirectional communication for TFTP. D. Start the TFTP server on the host.

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer configured routers R1 and R2 with MP-BGP. The engineer noticed that the routers cannot exchange any IPv6 routes; however, the IPv4 neighbor relationship is working fine. Which configuration must the engineer apply to router R2 to exchange IPv6 routes?. A. ipv6 unicast-routing ipv6 cef ! interface Loopback100 ipv6 address 2001:DB8:128::2/128 ! interface GigabitEthernet1/0 ipv6 address 2001:DB8:1::2/64 ! router bgp 65002 no bgp default ipv4-unicast neighbor 2001:DB8:1::1 remote-as 65001 ! address-family ipv6 network 2001:DB8:128::2/128. B. ipv6 unicast-routing ipv6 cef ! interface Loopback100 ipv6 address 2001:DB8:128::2/128 ! interface GigabitEthernet1/0 ipv6 address 2001:DB8:1::2/64 ! router bgp 65002 no bgp default ipv4-unicast neighbor 2001:DB8:1::1 remote-as 65001 ! address-family ipv6 network 2001:DB8:128::2/128 neighbor 2001:DB8:1::1 activate. C. ipv6 unicast-routing ipv6 cef ! interface Loopback100 ipv6 address 2001:DB8:128::2/128 ! interface GigabitEthernet1/0 ipv6 address 2001:DB8:1::2/64 description AS65001 ID B463:A68D:9D4::8 ! router bgp 65002 no bgp default ipv4-unicast neighbor 2001:DB8:1::1 remote-as 65001 ! address-family ipv4 neighbor 2001:DB8:1::1 activate. D. ipv6 cef ! interface Loopback100 ipv6 address 2001:DB8:128::2/128 ! interface GigabitEthernet1/0 ipv6 address 2001:DB8:1::2/64 ! router bgp 65002 no bgp default ipv4-unicast neighbor 2001:DB8:1::1 remote-as 65001 ! address-family ipv6 network 2001:DB8:128::2/128 neighbor 2001:DB8:1::1 activate.

What is an advantage of MPLS Layer 3 VPN deployment?. A. Planning and modifications are required for the customer intranet before migrating to Layer 3 VPN. B. Scalable VPNs are created using connection-oriented, point-to-point, or multipoint overlay connections. C. QoS provides performance with policy and support for a best-effort service level in an MPLS VPN. D. Security is provided at the edge of the provider network through encryption.

Refer to the exhibit. Traffic from R3 to the central site does not use alternate paths when R3 cannot reach 10.10.10.2. Traffic on R3 destined to R4 takes an alternate route via 10.10.10.6 when 10.10.10.4 is not accessible from R3. Which configuration switches traffic destined to 10.10.10.2 from R3 on the alternate path?. A. R3(config)#ip route 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.2 track 20. B. R6(config)#ip route 10.10.10.3 255.255.255.255 10.0.0.30. C. R3(config)#track 20 ip sla 20 reachability. D. R2(config)#ip route 10.10.10.3 255.255.255.255 10.0.0.6.

A newly installed router starts establishing an LDP session from another MPLS router to which it is not directly connected. Which LDP message type responds by target router to the initiating router using UDP protocol?. A. notification message. B. session message. C. advertisement message. D. extended discovery message.

Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 VLAN 10 users cannot get dynamic IP addresses from R1. Which action resolves the issue?. A. Eliminate the port security feature on the ports of switch SW2. B. Identify the host with the duplicate IP address. C. Configure the IP helper feature on the Interface GigabitEthernet 0/2 of router R2. D. Expand the address scope of VLAN 10.

Refer to the exhibit. A PC is configured to obtain an IP address automatically, but it receives an IP address only from the 169.254.0.0 subnet. The DHCP server logs contained no DHCPDISCOVER message from the MAC address of the PC. Which action resolves the issue?. A. Configure a DHCP reservation on the server for the PC. B. Configure an ip helper-address on the router to forward DHCP messages to the server. C. Configure DHCP Snooping on the switch to forward DHCP messages to the server. D. Configure a static IP address on the PC and exclude it from the DHCP pool.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 lost its directly connected EIGRP peer 172.16.33.2 (SW1). Which configuration resolves the issue?. A. key chain EIGRP key 1 key-string Cisco ! interface GigabitEthernet 2.10 ip authentication mode eigrp 88 md5 ip authentication key-chain eigrp 88 EIGRP. B. key chain EIGRP key 1 key-string Cisco ! interface GigabitEthernet 2 ip authentication mode eigrp 88 md5 ip authentication key-chain eigrp 88 EIGRP. C. key chain EIGRP key 1 key-string Cisco ! interface GigabitEthernet 2.10 ip authentication mode eigrp 88 md5 ip authentication key-chain eigrp 88 Cisco. D. key chain EIGRP key 1 key-string Cisco ! interface GigabitEthernet 2 ip authentication mode eigrp 88 md5 ip authentication key-chain eigrp 88 Cisco.

How are CE advertised routes segmented from other CE routers on an MPLS PE router?. A. with a combination of VRF-Lite and MP-BGP. B. by pushing MPLS labels advertised by LDP on customer routes. C. by enabling multiple instances of BGP, one for each CE router. D. by assigning CE-facing interfaces to different VRFs.

Which Layer 3 VPN attribute installs customer routes in the VRF?. A. RD. B. RT. C. extended-community. D. MPLS label.

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer notices that the configured track option is down. Which configuration resolves the issue?. A. ip sla schedule 10 start-time pending life forever. B. ip sla schedule 10 no timeout. C. ip sla schedule 10 start-time now. D. ip sla schedule 10 no threshold.

Which technique removes the outermost label of an MPLS-tagged packet before the packet is forwarded to an adjacent LER?. A. explicit-null. B. PHP. C. label swap. D. label imposition.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wanted to make R1 always elected as DR, R2 as BDR, and R3 as DROTHER but could not achieve the desired results. Which two configurations resolve the issue? (Choose two.). A. On the R3 F0/0 interface, configure OSPFpriority to 201. B. On the R1 F0/0 interface, configure OSPFpriority to 202. C. On the R2 F0/0 interface, configure OSPFpriority to 200. D. On the R1 F0/0 interface, configure OSPFpriority to 255. E. On the R2 F0/0 interface, configure OSPFpriority to 201.

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer lost remote access to the router due to a network problem. The engineer used the console to access the router and noticed continuous logs on the console terminal. Which configuration limits the number of log messages on the console to critical and higher severity level messages?. A. logging console 2. B. logging console 5. C. no logging console. D. term no monitor.

Refer to the exhibit. R3 is learning the 1.0.0.0/24 route through OSPF instead of EIGRP. Which action causes R3 to choose EIGRP to reach the 1.0.0.0/24 network?. A. Configure EIGRP administrative distance to 120. B. Configure EIGRP administrative distance to 110. C. Configure OSPF administrative distance to 120. D. Configure OSPF administrative distance to 200.

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer cannot remote access R3 using Telnet from switch S1. Which action resolves the issue?. A. Allow to use the ssh -| admin 10.0.0.1 command on the switch. B. Add the login admin command on the switch. C. Add the transport input telnet command on R3. D. Allow the inbound connection via the exec command on R3.

Refer to the exhibit. The client received the IPv6 address from the IPv6 DHCP server but the show command does not show the IPv6 DHCP bindings on the server. Which action resolves the issue?. A. Extend the DHCP lease time because R1 removed the IPv6 address earlier after the lease expired. B. Configure H1 as the DHCP client that manually assigns the IPv6 address on interface e0/0. C. Configure authorized DHCP servers to avoid IPv6 addresses from a rogue DHCP server. D. Use the 2001:DBB:BAD:CODE::/64 prefix for the DHCP pool on R1.

Refer to the exhibit. It was noticed that after NetFlow is configured in the router, the collector stopped receiving flow information. Which action resolves the issue?. A. Apply the ip flow egress command to the loopback2 interface. B. Modify the source through the ip flow-export source loopback1 command. C. Configure an IP address on the loopback2 interface to use as a source. D. Change the IP address of the loopback 2 interface to a public IP address.

What is LDP used for in an LSR?. A. to allow for a system-wide exchange of labels across MPLS network. B. to create a label across the PE routers for end-to-end path assignment. C. to communicate the routes known for a specific interface. D. to create a database of label bindings that allow for hop-by-hop forwarding.

What are the two goals of micro BFD sessions? (Choose two.). A. The high bandwidth member link of a link aggregation group must run BFD. B. Any member link on a link aggregation group must run BFD. C. Continuity for each member link of a link aggregation group must be verified. D. Run the BFD session with 3x3 ms hello timer. E. Each member link of a link aggregation group must run BFD.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 should receive 10.16.2.0/24 from R2. Which action resolves the issue?. A. Add prefix-list seq 1 on R1 to permit 10.16.0.0/22. B. Add prefix-list seq 1 on R1 to permit 10.16.2.0/24. C. Modify prefix-list seq 5 on R2 to permit 10.16.0.0/22. D. Modify prefix-list seq 5 on R2 to permit 10.16.0.0/23.

Which characteristic is representative of a hub-and-spoke topology between PE routers in a Layer 3 MPLS VPN network?. A. The PE routers use different RDs for each VRF to import and export M-BGP prefixes. B. Each PE router uses a different RD to identify all branches. C. The PE routers use different RTs to import and export M-BGP prefixes. D. The PE routers are configured with multiple VRFs for all branches.

Refer to the exhibit. The primary link between R1 and R2 went down, but R3 is still advertising the 192.168.200.0/24 network to R1 and the 192.168.100.0/24 network to R2, which creates a loop. Which action resolves the issue?. A. Configure the eigrp stub command under the EIGRP process on R2. B. Configure the summary-address 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0 100 command on R3. C. Configure the eigrp stub command under the EIGRP process on R3. D. Configure the eigrp stub leak-map command under the EIGRP process on R1.

How does MPLS Layer 3 VPN function?. A. When an EIGRP internal route is redistributed into BGP by one PE and then back into EIGRP by another PE, the originating router ID for the route is changed to the router ID of the first PE. B. When a destination PE device receives a labeled packet, it pops the label and uses it to forward the packet to the correct CE device. C. When a PE device forwards a packet received from a CE device across the provider network, it labels the packet with the label learned from the source PE device. D. When a VPN route is learned from a CE device and injected into IGP, a VPN route distinguisher attribute is associated with it.

What action is performed for untagged outgoing labels in an MPLS router?. A. Convert the incoming MPLS packet to an untagged packet and then do a RIB lookup. B. Convert the incoming MPLS packet to an untagged packet and then do a FIB lookup. C. Convert the incoming MPLS packet to an IP packet and forward it to the next router. D. Convert the untagged packet to a labeled packet and forward it to the next router.

An engineer configured a router with this configuration: ip access-list DENY_TELNET 10 deny tcp any any eq 23 log-input The router console starts receiving log message “%SEC-6-IPACCESSLOGP: list DENY_TELNET denied tcp192.168.1.10(10222) (FastEthernet1/0 D508.89gb.003f) ->192.168.2.20(23), 1 packet”. Which action stops messages on the console while still denying Telnet?. A. Remove log-input keyword from the access list. B. Configure a 20 permit ip any any log-input command. C. Configure a 20 permit ip any any command. D. Replace log-input keyword with the log keyword in the access list.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is not forming adjacency on a point-to-point interface. Which action resolves the issue?. A. The area numbers must be configured the same on each router. B. The area types must be configured the same on each router. C. The no-summary command must be included in the area configuration on R2. D. The no-summary command must be included in the area configuration on R1.

Refer to the exhibit. The 130.130.130.0/24 route shows in the R2 routing table but is getting filtering toward R3. Which action resolves the issue?. A. Automatic route summarization must be enabled on R2. B. The outgoing filter list for all interfaces must be set on R2. C. The incoming filter list for all interfaces must be set on R2. D. IGP synchronization must be disabled on R2.

How are LDP neighbors discovered?. A. Broadcasts hellos are sent to the 255.255.255.255 broadcast address. B. Multicast hellos are sent to the 224.0.0.2 group address. C. Unicast hellos are sent to directly connected neighbors IP addresses. D. Multicast hellos are sent to the 224.0.0.5 group address.

Refer to the exhibit. Router R4 is configured correctly with default OSPF values. A network engineer configured R7 for OSPF. R7 must not be elected as a DR for the segment between R4-R7. The adjacency between R4 and R7 failed to form. Which configuration resolves the issue?. A. R7(config)# interface fa0/0 R7(config-if)#ip ospf priority 255 R7(config-if)#ip ospf hello-interval 10 R7(config-if)#ip ospf dead-interval 30 R7(config-if)#ip ospf network broadcast. B. R7(config)# interface fa0/0 R7(config-if)#ip ospf priority 255 R7(config-if)#ip ospf hello-interval 10 R7(config-if)#ip ospf dead-interval 40 R7(config-if)#ip ospf network non-broadcast. C. R7(config)# interface fa0/0 R7(config-if)#ip ospf priority 255 R7(config-if)#ip ospf hello-interval 10 R7(config-if)#ip ospf dead-interval 40 R7(config-if)#ip ospf network broadcast. D. R7(config)# interface fa0/0 R7(config-if)#ip ospf priority 255 R7(config-if)#ip ospf hello-interval 10 R7(config-if)#ip ospf dead-interval 30 R7(config-if)#ip ospf network non-broadcast.

Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting an issue on the network, an engineer notices that a TCP Connect operation failed on port 3000 between R101 and R201. Which command must be configured on R201 to respond to the R101 IP SLA configurations with a control connection on UDP port 1967?. A. ip sla responder tcp-connect ipaddress 2.2.2.2 port 3001. B. ip sla responder. C. ip sla responder tcp-connect ipaddress 1.1.1.1 port 3000. D. ip sla responder udp-echo ipaddress 1.1.1.1 port 1967.

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration is required for R2 to get the IP address from the DHCP server. A. ip access-list extended R2WAN permit tcp any any eq 68. B. ip access-list extended R2WAN permit udp any any eq 67. C. interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip access-group R2WAN out. D. ip access-list extended R2WAN permit udp any any eq 68.

What are the two major components of an MPLS-based VPN? (Choose two.). A. VPN route distinguisher. B. MP-BGP peering of VPN community CE devices. C. MP-BGP peering of VPN community P devices. D. MP-BGP peering of VPN community PE devices. E. VPN route target communities. F. VPN route reflectors.

Refer to the exhibit. The authentication is not working as desired and the user drops into user-exec mode. Which configuration resolves the issue?. A. aaa new-model aaa authentication common-id default local aaa authorization exec default local ! line vty 0 4 login authentication default authorization exec default. B. aaa new-model aaa authentication login default local aaa authorization priv default 15 ! line vty 0 4 login authentication default authorization exec priv15. C. aaa new-model aaa authentication login local aaa authorization exec local ! line vty 0 4 login authentication local authorization exec default. D. aaa new-model aaa authentication login default local aaa authorization exec default local ! line vty 0 4 login authentication default authorization exec default.

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is investigating an OSPF issue reported by the Cisco DNA Assurance Center. Which action resolves the issue?. A. One of the interfaces is using the wrong MTU. Match interface MTU on both links. B. One of the interfaces is using the wrong authentication. Match interface authentication on both links. C. One of the neighbor links is down. Bring the interface up by running shut and no shut. D. An ACL entry blocking multicast on the interfaces. Allow multicast through the interface ACL.

Which router translates the customer routing information into VPNv4 routes to exchange VPNv4 routes with other devices through MP-BGP?. A. VPNv4 RR. B. P. C. CE. D. PE.

An engineer received a ticket about a router that has reloaded. The monitoring system graphs show different traffic patterns between logical and physical interfaces when the router is rebooted. Which action resolves the issue?. A. Configure the snmp ifindex persist command on the physical interfaces. B. Clear the logical interfaces with snmp ifindex clear command. C. Trigger a new snmpwalk from the monitoring system to synchronize interface OIDs. D. Configure the snmp ifindex persist command globally.

Refer to the exhibit. After the network administrator rebuilds the IPv6 DHCP server, clients are not getting the IPv6 address lease. Which action resolves the issue?. A. Add ipv6 dhcp server MY_POOL under the interface ethernet 0/0 on H1. B. Remove FE80::A8BB:CCFF:FE00:5000 assigned by the IPv6 DHCP server. C. Configure FF02::1:2 to discover all IPv6 DHCP clients. D. Add ipv6 dhcp server MY_POOL under the interface ethernet 0/0 on R1.

Refer to the exhibit. The SNMP server with IP address 172.16.4.4 cannot access host router A. Which configuration command on router A resolves the issue?. A. access-list 4 permit 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.3. B. access-list 4 permit host 172.16.4.4. C. snmp-server host 172.16.4.4 ccnp. D. snmp-server community ccnp.

What must a network architect consider for RTs when planning for a single customer full-mesh VPN in an MPLS Layer 3 network?. A. Each RT value must be identical to an RD value within the same VPN. B. RT must be globally identical within the same VPN. C. RT values must be different from the RD values in the same VPN. D. RT must be globally unique within the same VPN.