CCNP ENARSI PART 6
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![]() CCNP ENARSI PART 6 Description: CCNP ENARSI |



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Refer to the exhibit. Clients on ALS2 receive IPv4 and IPv6 addresses, but clients on ALS1 receive only IPv4 addresses and not IPv6 addresses. Which action on DSW1 allows clients on ALS1 to receive IPv6 addresses?. A. Configure DSW1(dhcp-config)#default-router 2002:A04:A01::A04:A0. B. Configure DSW1(config-if)#ipv6 dhcp relay destination 2002:404:404::404:404 GigabitEthernet1/2. C. Configure DSW1(config)#ipv6 route 2002:404:404::404:404/128 FastEthernet1/0. D. Configure DSW1(config-if)#ipv6 helper address 2002:404:404::404:404. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured BGP and wants to select the path from 10.77.255.57 as the best path instead of current best path. Which action resolves the issue?. A. Configure higher MED to select as the best path. B. Configure AS_PATH prepend for the current best path. C. Configure AS_PATH prepend for the desired best path. D. Configure lower LOCAL_PREF to select as the best path. What is a function of IPv6 Source Guard?. A. It inspects ND and DHCP packets to build an address binding table. B. It works with address glean or ND to find existing addresses. C. It notifies the ND protocol to inform hosts if the traffic is denied by it. D. It denies traffic from known sources and allocated addresses. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must establish communication between three different customer sites with these requirements: * Site-A: must be restricted to access to any users at Site-B or Site-C. * Site-B and Site-C: must be able to communicate between sites and share routes using OSPF. PE interface configuration: interface FastEthernet0/0 ip vrf forwarding Site-A ! interface FastEthernet0/1 ip vrf forwarding SharedSites ! interface FastEthernet0/2 ip vrf forwarding SharedSites Which configuration meets the requirements?. A. PE(config)#router ospf 10 vrf Site-A PE(config-router)#network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0 PE(config)#router ospf 10 vrf SharedSites PE(config-router)#network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 1. B. PE(config)#router ospf 10 vrf Site-A PE(config-router)#network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0 PE(config)#router ospf 20 vrf SharedSites PE(config-router)#network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 1. C. PE(config)#router ospf 10 vrf Site-A PE(config-router)#network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0 PE(config)#router ospf 10 vrf SharedSites PE(config-router)#network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0. D. PE(config)#router ospf 10 vrf Site-A PE(config-router)#network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0 PE(config)#router ospf 20 vrf SharedSites PE(config-router)#network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0. What is LDP label binding?. A. destination prefix with label. B. two routers with label distribution session. C. source prefix with label. D. neighboring router with label. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures a router to stop using a particular default route if the DNS server 8.8.8.8 is not reachable through that route. However, this configuration did not work as desired and the default route still works even if the DNS server 8.8.8.8 is unreachable. Which two configuration changes resolve the issue? (Choose two.). A. Use a separate track object to reference the existing IP SLA 1 probe for every static route. B. Use a separate IP SLA probe and track object for every static route. C. Associate every IP SLA probe with the proper WAN address of the router. D. Reference the proper exit interfaces along with the next hops in both static default routes. E. Configure two static routes for the 8.8.8.8/32 destination to match the IP SLA probe for each ISP. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configured the Chicago router to mutually redistribute the LA and NewYork routes with OSPF routes to be summarized as a single route in EIGRP using the longest summary mask: router eigrp 100 redistribute ospf 1 metric 10 10 10 10 10 router ospf 1 redistribute eigrp 100 subnets ! interface E 0/0 ip summary-address eigrp 100 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 After the configuration, the New York router receives all the specific LA routes but the summary route. Which set of configurations resolves the issue on the Chicago router?. A. router eigrp 100 summary-address 172.16.8.0 255.255.252.0. B. interface E 0/1 ip summary-address eigrp 100 172.16.8.0 255.255.252.0. C. router eigrp 100 summary-address 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0. D. interface E 0/1 ip summary-address eigrp 100 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure PBR on R1 to reach to 10.2.2.0/24 via R3 AS64513 as the primary path and a backup route through default route via R2 AS64513. All BGP routes are in the routing table of R1, but a static default route overrides BGP routes. Which PBR configuration achieves the objective?. A. access-list 100 permit ip 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 10.2.2.0 0.0.0.255 ! route-map PBR permit 10 match ip address 100 set ip next-hop recursive 10.3.3.1. B. access-list 100 permit ip 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.2.2.0 255.255.255.0 ! route-map PBR permit 10 match ip address 100 set ip next-hop recursive 10.3.3.1. C. access-list 100 permit ip 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 10.2.2.0 0.0.0.255 ! route-map PBR permit 10 match ip address 100 set ip next-hop 10.3.3.1. D. access-list 100 permit ip 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.2.2.0 255.255.255.0 ! route-map PBR permit 10 match ip address 100 set ip next-hop 10.3.3.1. What is the function of BFD?. A. It creates high CPU utilization on hardware deployments. B. It provides uniform failure detection on the same media type. C. It provides uniform failure detection regardless of media type. D. It negotiates to the highest version if the neighbor version differs. Refer to the exhibit. When an FTP client attempts to use passive FTP to connect to the FTP server, the file transfers fail. Which action resolves the issue?. A. Modify traffic filter FTP-SERVER in to the outbound direction. B. Configure active FTP traffic. C. Configure to permit TCP ports higher than 1023. D. Modify FTP-SERVER access list to remove established at the end. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configured a Cisco router for TACACS authentication, but the router is using the local enable password instead. Which action resolves the issue?. A. Configure the aaa authentication login default group admin local if-authenticated command instead. B. Configure the aaa authentication login admin group tacacs+ local enable none command instead. C. Configure the aaa authentication login admin group tacacs+ local if-authenticated command instead. D. Configure the aaa authentication login admin group admin local enable command instead. An administrator attempts to download the .pack NBAR2 file using TFTP from the CPE router to another device over the Gi0/0 interface. The CPE is configured as below: hostname CPE ! ip access-list extended WAN <`¦> remark => All UDP rules below for WAN ID: S421T18E58F90 permit udp any eq domain any permit udp any any eq tftp deny udp any any ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 <`¦> ip access-group WAN in <`¦> ! tftp-server flash:pp-adv-csr1000v-1612.1a-37-53.0.0.pack The transfer fails. Which action resolves this issue?. A. Make the permit udp any eq tftp any entry the last entry in the WAN ACL. B. Shorten the file name to the 8+3 naming convention. C. Change the WAN ACL to permit the entire UDP destination port range. D. Change the WAN ACL to permit the UDP port 69 to allow TFTP. A network administrator must optimize the segment size of the TCP packet on the DMVPN IPsec protected tunnel interface, which carries application traffic from the head office to a designated branch. The TCP segment size must not overwhelm the MTU of the outbound link. Which configuration must be applied to the router to improve the application performance?. A. interface tunnel30 ip mtu 1400 ip tcp payload-size 1360 ! crypto ipsec fragmentation before-encryption. B. interface tunnel30 ip mtu 1400 ip tcp adjust-mss 1360 ! crypto ipsec fragmentation after-encryption. C. interface tunnel30 ip mtu 1400 ip tcp max-segment 1360 ! crypto ipsec fragmentation before-encryption. D. interface tunnel30 ip mtu 1400 ip tcp packet-size 1360 ! crypto ipsec fragmentation after-encryption. In a DMVPN network, the Spoke1 user observed that the voice traffic is coming to Spoke2 users via the hub router. Which command is required on both spoke routers to communicate directly to one another?. A. ip nhrp nhs multicast. B. ip nhrp shortcut. C. ip nhrp map dynamic. D. ip nhrp redirect. Refer to the exhibit. RR Configuration: router bgp 100 neighbor IBGP peer-group neighbor IBGP route-reflector-client neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 100 neighbor 10.1.2.2 remote-as 100 neighbor 10.1.3.3 remote-as 100 The network administrator configured the network to establish connectivity between all devices and notices that the ASBRs do not have routes for each other. Which set of configurations resolves this issue?. A. router bgp 100 neighbor IBGP update-source Loopback0. B. router bgp 100 neighbor IBGP next-hop-self. C. router bgp 100 neighbor 10.1.1.1 next-hop-self neighbor 10.1.2.2 next-hop-self neighbor 10.1.3.3 next-hop-self. D. router bgp 100 neighbor 10.1.1.1 peer-group IBGP neighbor 10.1.2.2 peer-group IBGP neighbor 10.1.3.3 peer-group IBGP. Refer to the exhibit. A prefix list is created to filter routes inbound to an EIGRP process except for network 10 prefixes. After the prefix list is applied, no network 10 prefixes are visible in the routing table from EIGRP. Which configuration resolves the issue?. A. ip prefix-list EIGRP seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 le 32. B. ip prefix-list EIGRP seq 20 permit 10.0.0.0/8 ge 9 ip prefix-list EIGRP seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 le 32. C. ip prefix-list EIGRP seq 20 permit 10.0.0.0/8 ge 9. D. ip prefix-list EIGRP seq 5 permit 10.0.0.0/8 ge 9 no ip prefix-list EIGRP seq 20 permit 10.0.0.0/8. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured SNMP traps to record spoofed packets drop of more than 48000 a minute on the ethernet0/0 interface. During an IP spoofing attack, the engineer noticed that no notifications have been received by the SNMP server. Which configuration resolves the issue on R1?. A. ip verify unicast notification threshold 800. B. ip verify unicast notification threshold 8000. C. ip verify unicast notification threshold 48000. D. ip verify unicast notification threshold 80. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer implemented an access list on R1 to allow anyone to Telnet except R2 Loopback0 to R1 Loopback4. How must sequence 20 be replaced on the R1 access list to resolve the issue?. A. sequence 20 permit tcp host 1001:ABC:2011:7::1 host 400A:0:400C::1 eq telnet. B. sequence 20 deny tcp host 400A:0:400C::1 host 1001:ABC:2011:7::1 eq telnet. C. sequence 20 permit tcp host 400A:0:400C::1 host 1001:ABC:2011:7::1 eq telnet. D. sequence 20 deny tcp host 1001:ABC:2011:7::1 host 400A:0:400C::1 eq telnet. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer implemented CoPP to limit Telnet traffic to protect the router CPU. It was noticed that the Telnet traffic did not pass through CoPP. Which configuration resolves the issue?. A. ip access-list extended TELNET permit tcp host 10.2.2.1 host 10.2.2.4 eq telnet permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 host 10.1.1.3 eq telnet. B. policy-map COPP class TELNET police 8000 conform-action transmit exceed-action transmit. C. ip access-list extended TELNET permit tcp host 10.2.2.4 host 10.2.2.1 eq telnet permit tcp host 10.1.1.3 host 10.1.1.1 eq telnet. D. policy-map COPP class TELNET police 8000 conform-action transmit exceed-action transmit violate-action drop. Refer to the exhibit. After configuring OSPF in R1, some external destinations in the network became unreachable. Which action resolves the issue?. A. Disconnect the router with the OSPF router ID 0.0.0 0 from the network. B. Increase the SPF delay interval on R1 to synchronize routes. C. Change the R1 router ID from 10.255.255.1 to a unique value and clear the process. D. Clear the OSPF process on R1 to flush stale LSAs sent by other routers. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer receives a report that Spoke 1 users can perform bank transactions with the server located at the Center site, but Spoke 2 users cannot. Which action resolves the issue?. A. Configure the Spoke 2 users IP on the router B OSPF domain. B. Configure IPv6 on the routers B and C interfaces. C. Configure OSPFv2 on the routers B and C interfaces. D. Configure encapsulation dot1q 78 on the router C interface. What is an MPLS LDP targeted session?. A. LDP session established by exchanging multicast hello packets. B. LDP session established between LSRs by exchanging TCP hello packets. C. session between neighbors that are connected no more than one hop away. D. label distribution session between non-directly connected neighbors. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures DMVPN and receives the hub location prefix of 10.1.1.0/24 on R2 and R3. The R3 prefix of 10.1.3.0/24 is not received on R2, and the R2 prefix 10.1.2.0/24 is not received on R3. Which action resolves the issue?. A. Split horizon prevents the routes from being advertised between spoke routers. It should be disabled with the no ip split-horizon eigrp 10 command on the Gi0/0 interface of R1. B. There is no spoke-to-spoke connection. DMVPN configuration should be modified with a manual neighbor relationship configured between R2 and R3 and confirmed by use of the show ip eigrp neighbor command. C. There is no spoke-to-spoke connection. DMVPN configuration should be modified to enable a tunnel connection between R2 and R3 and neighbor relationship confirmed by use of the show ip eigrp neighbor command. D. Split horizon prevents the routes from being advertised between spoke routers. It should be disabled with the command no ip split-horizon eigrp 10 on the tunnel interface of R1. Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations allow clients to get dynamic IP addresses assigned? (Choose two.). A. Configure access-list 100 permit udp any any eq 68 as the first line. B. Configure access-list 100 permit udp any any eq 69 as the first line. C. Configure access-list 100 permit udp any any eq 61 as the first line. D. Configure access-list 100 permit udp any any eq 66 as the first line. E. Configure access-list 100 permit udp any any eq 67 as the first line. Refer to the exhibit. The IT router has been configured with the Science VRF and the interfaces have been assigned to the VRF. Which set of configurations advertises Science-1 and Science-2 routes using EIGRP AS 111?. A. router eigrp 111 address-family ipv4 vrf Science autonomous-system 1 network 192.168.1.0 network 192.168.2.0. B. router eigrp 111 address-family ipv4 vrf Science network 192.168.1.0 network 192.168.2.0. C. router eigrp 111 network 192.168.1.0 network 192.168.2.0. D. router eigrp 1 address-family ipv4 vrf Science autonomous-system 111 network 192.168.1.0 network 192.168.2.0. An engineer must override the normal routing behavior of a router for Telnet traffic that is destined to 10.10.10.10 from 10.10.1.0/24 via a next hop of 10.4.4.4, which is directly connected to the router that is connected to the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet. Which configuration reroutes traffic according to this requirement?. A. access-list 100 deny tcp 10.10.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.10.10.10 eq 23 ! route-map POLICY permit 10 match ip address 100 set ip next-hop 10.4.4.4 route-map POLICY permit 20. B. access-list 100 permit tcp 10.10.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.10.10.10 eq 23 ! route-map POLICY permit 10 match ip address 100 set ip next-hop 10.4.4.4 route-map POLICY permit 20. C. access-list 100 permit tcp 10.10.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.10.10.10 eq 23 ! route-map POLICY permit 10 match ip address 100 set ip next-hop recursive 10.4.4.4 route-map POLICY permit 20. D. access-list 100 permit tcp 10.10.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.10.10.10 eq 23 ! route-map POLICY permit 10 match ip address 100 set ip next-hop recursive 10.4.4.4. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure DMVPN Phase 3 hub-and-spoke topology to enable a spoke-to-spoke tunnel. Which NHRP configuration meets the requirement on R6?. A. interface Tunnel1 ip nhrp authentication Cisco123 ip nhrp map multicast dynamic ip nhrp network-id 1 ip nhrp holdtime 300 ip nhrp redirect. B. interface Tunnel 1 ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 tunnel source e 0/1 tunnel mode gre multipoint ip nhrp network-id 1 ip nhrp map 192.168.1.2 192.1.20.2. C. interface Tunnel1 ip nhrp authentication Cisco123 ip nhrp map multicast dynamic ip nhrp network-id 1 ip nhrp holdtime 300 ip nhrp shortcut. D. Interface Tunnel 1 ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 tunnel source e 0/0 tunnel mode gre multipoint ip nhrp network-id 1. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer implemented CoPP but did not see OSPF traffic going through it. Which configuration resolves the issue?. A. control-plane service-policy input COPP. B. policy-map COPP class OSFP police 8000 conform-action transmit exceed-action transmit violate-action drop. C. ip access-list extended OSFP permit ospf any any. D. class-map match-all OSFP match access-group name OSFP. Refer to the exhibit. Site1 must perform unequal cost load balancing toward the segments behind Site2 and Site3. Some of the routes are getting load balanced but others are not. Which configuration allows Site1 to load balance toward all the LAN segments of the remote routers?. A. Site3 router eigrp 100 variance 2. B. Site2 router eigrp 100 variance 2. C. Site2 router eigrp 100 variance 3. D. Site1 router eigrp 100 variance 3. Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 use IGP protocol to route traffic between AS 100 and AS 200 despite being configured to use BGP. Which action resolves the issue and ensures the use of BGP?. A. Configure distance to 100 under the OSPF process of R1 and R2. B. Remove distance commands under BGP AS 100. C. Remove distance commands under BGP AS 100 and AS 200. D. Configure distance to 100 under the EIGRP process of R1 and R2. DRAG DROP - Drag and drop the MPLS concepts from the left onto the descriptions on the right. Select and Place: label edge router. label switch router. forwarding equivalence class. penultimate hop popping. Which table is used to map the packets in an MPLS LSP that exit from the same interface, via the same next hop, and have the same queuing policies?. A. LDP. B. FEC. C. CEF. D. RIB. You have configured router R1 with multiple VRF’s in order to support multiple customer VPN networks. If you wanted to see the best path for the 10.1.1.0.24 route in VRF Blue, what command would you use?. A. show ip route vrf Blue 10.1.1.0. B. show ip route 10.1.1.0 vrf Blue. C. show route all 10.1.1.0. D. show ip route all 10.1.1.0. Which of the following OSPF Link State Advertisements (LSA’s) were created for IPV6 and do not apply to IPv4 OSPF networks? (Choose two.). A. Link LSA (Type 8). B. Summary LSA (Type 3). C. Router LSA (Type 2). D. Intra-Area Prefix LSA (Type 9). E. Opaque LSA (Type 9). Router R1 has been configured with a default route like this: R1#(config) ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.2.3.1 You want to redistribute this route into OSPF but when you configure the redistribute static command under the OSPF process the default route is not present. What will create a default route in the OSPF routing process?. A. Use the redistribute static subnets command. B. Create a default metric for the static default route. C. Use the default-information originate command under the OSPF process. D. Change the static default route to use an Administrative Distance (AD) greater than 110. Which one of the following statements regarding Bidirectional Forwarding Detection (BFD) is correct?. A. BFD echo mode is the default mode of operation. B. BFD is not supported for HSRP. C. CEF must be disabled for BFD to work. D. BFD is not supported when using static routes. Which of the following OSPF neighbor adjacency states is applicable only to manually configured OSPF neighbors in a Non Broadcast Multi-Access network?. A. Attempt. B. Init. C. 2-Way. D. Exstart. E. Exchange. With Internal BGP, there is a requirement for all peers to be logically fully meshed, where all IBGP routers must peer with all other IBGP routers. For scaling purposes, there are two mechanisms that were developed to bypass this requirement. What are they? (Choose two.). A. Confederations. B. IBGP to EBGP route redistribution. C. BGP peer filtering. D. Route reflectors. You have configured policy-based routing on router R1 to force some traffic to go over an alternate link. In order to verify the configuration, which debug command should be used to verify that the specific traffic is taking the intended path?. A. Debug policy routing. B. Debug ip routing. C. Debug ip policy. D. Debug policy map. Which BGP attribute can be used to influence the path that incoming traffic takes into your AS from other Autonomous Systems?. A. Metric manipulation. B. AS_Path. C. Weight. D. Local Preference. Routers R1 and R2 have been configured to use Bidirectional Forwarding Detection? What is the advantage of doing this?. A. It is able to discover local link failures at layer 1 and provide automatic re-routing. B. It is able to discover local link failures at layer 1 and provide automatic re-routing. C. It is able to discover local link failures at layer 1 only and provides detection for this in less than one second. D. It is able to discover local link failures at layers 1 and 2 and provides detection for this in less than one second. Which BGP attribute can be used to influence the path that outgoing traffic takes from your AS to other Autonomous Systems? (Choose two.). A. MED. B. AS_Path. C. Weight. D. Local Preference. In order to connect between disparate OSPF and EIGRP portions of a network, mutual route redistribution has been configured. What are two disadvantages of doing this? (Choose two.). A. Prone to routing loops if not done correctly. B. Differing metrics between the routing protocols could result in sub-optimal routing. C. Route redistribution is not supported on most Cisco router platforms. D. Increased convergence times. Which of the following statements are true regarding two EIGRP routers to become neighbors?. A. Must have identical hello and dead timers. B. Must utilize unique router ID’s. C. Must have matching MTU’s on the physical network links that connect the routers. D. Must use the same ASN. Which of the following statements are true regarding two OSPF routers to become neighbors? (Choose two.). A. Must use the same ASN. B. Must have identical hello and dead timers. C. Must have matching MTU’s on the physical network links that connect the routers. D. Need not be on the same subnet. A new site has been added to an OPSF network using area 2. Area 2 is connected only to area 1 of this OSPF network. Area 1 is used to connect area 1 to the backbone area 0. Should you expect full connectivity to the networks located in area 2 from area 0 in this scenario?. A. Yes, by default there will be full connectivity. B. No, you will need to redistribute the area 2 routes into area 0. C. No, a virtual link is needed to logically connect area 2 info area 0. D. Yes, but area 2 will need to be configured as a stub area. Router R1 is configured using VRF’s to support customer VPN’s. Some customers are using the same private IP address space. Which of the following is used to ensure that these routes are unique when advertised throughout the VPN?. A. Route Distinguisher. B. Route Targets. C. MP-BGP. D. LDP. Two MPLS routers, R1 and R2, are not directly connected and have an established LDP session running between them. What type of LDP session is this?. A. Remote LDP session. B. Direct LDP session. C. Tunneled LDP session. D. Targeted LDP session. What is the total length of an MPLS header?. A. 16 bits. B. 20 bits. C. 28 bits. D. 32 bits. Which of the following are valid fields in an MPLS header? (Choose four.). A. Label. B. Sequence Number. C. Experimental (Exp). D. Bottom of Stack (BoS). E. Time to Live (TTL). F. Checksum. |





