Cloud V4 - dea-2tt4 - 2

A customer has expressed an interest in using AI or ML to obtain improved data analytics from their PowerEdge servers and PowerMax storage. Which product can identify deviations and performance impacts?. CloudIQ. eLAB Navigator. SyncIQ. Storage Manager.

What is true about application virtualization?. Resolves application conflicts and compatibility issues. Allows for OS modifications on host machines. Prevents the use of conflicting applications on the same end-point device. Increases the complexity of application deployment.

An organization requires double the processing capacity for a specific duration to handle increased workload. For the remaining period, the organization might want to release the idle resources to save costs. The workload variations may be seasonal or transient. Which cloud characteristic enables the consumer to handle such variations in workloads and IT resource requirements?. Resource pooling. On-demand self-service. Rapid elasticity.

What is a benefit of data archiving?. Increases deduplication ratio and reduces storage costs. Avoids performing data backups frequently. Preserves data for future reference and adherence to regulatory compliance. Moves frequently accessed data to lower-cost archive storage.

Which data storage type uses a non-hierarchical address space to store data?. Block. Object. File.

What does a service attribute specify?. Relationships between services. Configurations of service components. Structure of a service.

What are the key functions of a control plane?. User and role access - Configuration baselines - Services execution. Configuration messaging - Statistics - Status. Asset discovery - Resource abstraction and pooling - Resource provisioning. Data processing - Asset discovery - Resource abstraction and pooling.

Which cloud security objective provides the required secrecy of information to ensure that only authorized users have access to data held within the cloud?. Integrity. Authorization. Authentication. Confidentiality.

An organization must deploy remote replication between two sites that are 1200 km (745 miles) apart, without impacting application response time. Which solution should be recommended?. Hypervisor-based synchronous replication. Synchronous replication. Asynchronous replication.

What is a responsibility of the Service Manager role?. Understanding consumers’ needs and industry trends to drive an effective product strategy. Coordinating with the architecture team to define technology road maps. Provide architectural oversight over individual domains. Designing, planning, managing, maintaining, and supporting the cloud infrastructure.

Which are core attributes to a modern infrastructure?. Adaptable, software-defined, and scale-out. Resilient, scale-out, and cloud-enabled. Flash, software-defined, and cloud-enabled. Consolidation, flash, and scale-out.

Which cloud security design principle prevents an individual from improper access or system misuse?. Least privilege. Data privacy and ownership. Separation of duties. Secure multitenancy.

What is a benefit of application virtualization?. Allows inclusion of standard applications into an end-point image. Eliminates the need for OS modifications. Enables online data migrations between storage systems.

What is true about the Infrastructure as a code function?. Develops and deploys applications using CI/CD tools. Develops and deploys applications using script files. Manually manages and provisions IT resources. Manages and provisions IT resources using script files.

What is a benefit of synchronous remote replication?. Saves network bandwidth by replicating only deduplicated data. Replicates data across any geographic location without impacting response time. Ensures that source and replica always have identical data. Supports repeated write I/O to the same location to improve replication performance.

Which platform provides a converged infrastructure solution?. VxRail. PowerStore. VxBlock. PowerFlex.

Which tool should be recommended to customers for Infrastructure automation?. GitHub. Docker. Chef. JARVIS.

Which cloud security control mechanism monitors activity using video surveillance cameras and detects unusual activities using sensors and alarms?. Administrative control. Technical control. Corrective control. Physical control.

Which cloud role has the responsibility to perform independent cloud service assessments?. Architect. Broker. Consumer. Auditor.

What is a benefit of secure multitenancy?. Reduces unauthorized access to resources. Blocks unauthorized access to resources. Eliminates data breach risks. Protects cloud infrastructure.

Which two are key requirements for fault tolerance?. Document SPOF and Fault Elimination. Fault Isolation and Eliminate SPOF. Network Isolation and Eliminate SPOF. RAID Storage and Fault Isolation.

A development group is using an iterative and incremental software development method. Which standard is being utilized?. Agile. ITIL. DevOps. Orchestration.

Which type of cloud tool controls resources such as compute, storage, and network?. Management and operation. Automation and orchestration. Collaboration and communication. Monitoring and alerting.

Which risk management step deploys various security mechanisms that minimize risks impacts?. Identification. Mitigation. Assessment. Monitoring.

What is a benefit of link aggregation?. Saves bandwidth by restricting traffic to a specific potentially congested ISL. Improves performance by combining two or more parallel ISLs into a single physical ISL. Optimizes fabric performance by distributing network traffic across ISL. Improves ISL utilization by increasing the network traffic on a specific ISL.

What is a function of a cloud portal?. Updates IT resources database. Replicates container resources in a web portal. Interacts with the orchestration layer. Creates workflows for automated scheduling.

Which is a benefit of implementing target-based deduplication?. Offloads the backup client from the deduplication process. Reduces storage capacity and network bandwidth requirements. Backup client sends only new and unique segments across the network. Optimizes ROBO environments for centralized backup.

What is the primary goal of a business continuity solution?. Reduce the amount of investment in protecting an organization’s business-related data. Decreases likelihood of a disaster in a data protection environment to control the loss of data. Ensure data availability that is required to conduct vital business operations. Eliminate security threats in a data protection environment for continuous access to data.

What enables resource pooling and multi-tenancy in a cloud environment?. Rapid elasticity. On-demand provisioning. Scalability. Virtualization.

What refers to an agreement between provider and consumer that states the terms of service usage?. Service contract. Service template. Chargeback. Showback.

What helps to recover the cost of providing the service, ensuring profitability, and meeting the provider’s return on investment and reinvestment goals?. Service negotiation. Service level objective. Service valuation. Service level agreement. Supplier management.

What is the objective of Confidentiality in information security?. Prevents an unauthorized user from changing data. Non-repudiation and authenticity of information. Ensures that identify credentials are used to verify cloud assets. Restricts user access to data held within the cloud.

A consumer is interested in a service that provides multiple operating systems and programming frameworks for application development and deployment. Which cloud service model meets these requirements?. Storage as a Service. Platform as a Service. Software as a Service. Data as a Service.

Which storage data protection technique provides space-optimal data redundancy to prevent data loss against multiple disk drive failures?. Erasure coding. Cache protection. RAID. Dynamic disk sparing.

What activity is performed during the service creation phase of the cloud service lifecycle?. Defining Service Template. Developing Service Enablement Roadmap. Assessing Service Requirements. Establishing Billing Policy.

Which concept ensures accountability for security breaches or misuse of resources?. Compliance. Governance. Risk management.

Why do organizations take advantage of virtual infrastructure?. Require more data center space - Organizations have overutilized resources. Organizations have underutilized resources - Ability to overprovision resources - Require more data center space. Require no data center space - Organizations have underutilized resources - Ability to overprovision resources. Resource underprovisioning - Organizations have overutilized resources - Require no data center space.

What are the benefits of modern applications compared to traditional applications?. Designed to run independently and use a linear, continuous approach in development, build, test, and deploy. Distributed system architecture, designed to run independently, and use multiple programming languages. Single programming language and framework and scale by growing vertically. Monolithic, built with interdependent modules, and use distributed system architecture.

Which compute system component contains boot firmware?. Operating System. Hard Disk Drive. Read Only Memory. Random Access Memory.

An organization has deployed a cloud infrastructure. They frequently experience power outages that result in their service offerings being periodically unavailable. What type of unavailability are they experiencing?. Ephemeral. Permanent. Intermittent.

An organization wants to deliver applications quickly and effectively. They believe that it is the only way to stay competitive in this ever-changing digital world. The organization wants to adopt practices that promote collaboration across teams during various phases of the software development lifecycle. Which practice will meet the organization’s requirements?. Continuous Integration. Waterfall model. DevOps. Continuous Delivery.

What provides workflows for performing automated tasks to accomplish a desired outcome?. Cloud services. Orchestration. Software defined infrastructure. Virtual infrastructure.

Which is a characteristic of the chargeback model?. Financial systems require agent plug-in. Service costs reporting to the business. Customers are billed for services that are consumed.

Which product enables IT organizations to ensure optimum resource usage and configuration compliance in virtualized and cloud environments?. VMware vCenter Manager. VMware vRealize Operations Management Suite. VMware vRealize Automation Suite. VMware vSphere with Operations Management.

What is a benefit of cloud automation?. Reduced service provisioning time. Improved physical infrastructure deployment time. Decreased capital expense.

Which key service management function modifies and aligns services according to consumer needs in the cloud environment?. Define fulfillment process. Publish service. Define service request. Create service definition.

Which key service management function modifies and aligns services according to consumer needs in the cloud environment?. Service operation management. Service demand management. Service capacity management. Service portfolio management.

Which is true about a type 2 hypervisor?. Installed as an application on an operating system. Installed on bare-metal hardware. Hypervisor vendor must certify the hardware.

What is the correct order of the business continuity plan principles?. Analyze. Design. Identify. Measure. Execute.

A cloud service provider must improve the utilization of resources by sharing them with multiple customers. What mechanism should the cloud provider deploy to prevent one consumer from accessing the virtual machines of another consumer?. Distributed switching. Secure multitenancy. Pooling of resources. Raw disk mapping.

Which function collects information about competing service offerings?. Service performance management. Service portfolio management. Service operations management. Service demand management.

What type of cloud security control is log auditing?. Detective control. Corrective control. Preventive control. Technical control.

What term refers to the entry points from which an attack can be launched?. Attack surface. Attack factor. Attack vector.

What is a characteristic of a converged infrastructure?. Eliminates CAPEX. Eliminates OPEX. Does not require a separate storage array. Enables rapid scalability.

What is true about change management?. Defines SLA compliance. Triggers alerts. Monitors compliance.

What term refers to businesses that cautiously and gradually embrace digital transformation?. Digital Evaluators. Digital Laggards. Digital Leaders. Digital Adopters.

An administrator must design a fault-tolerant IT environment for applications. Which techniques meet this requirement?. Active/Passive for Compute - NIC Teaming for Network - Dual disks for storage. Active/Active for Compute - Link Aggregation for Network - Erasure Coding for storage. Active/Passive for Compute - Spanning for Network - Dynamic Disk Sparing for storage. Active/Standby for Compute - Multipathing for Network - RAID for storage.

Which condition triggers a warning level alert?. Service has failed. Service has been created. Service instance is ready to use. Service is approaching resource usage limit.

What is a key responsibility of a security governance board?. Defining the cloud service catalog. Assessing assets with realistic valuations. Assessing the cloud provider’s capability to provide logs. Defining access rights for users.

What is the primary driver of application transformation?. Drive adoption of a DevOps culture. Integrate legacy applications. Retire legacy applications. Develop innovative IT solutions.

What is an accurate statement about Governance?. Restrict access to certain users. Ensure removal of security risks. Authorize policy-making decisions. Demonstrate adherence to polices.

What accurately describes an iSCSI HBA?. Performs both iSCSI and TCP/IP processing. Requires CPU cycles for TCP/IP processing. Requires a software adapter with built-in functionality. Enables transmission of data through iSCSI tunneling.

When using the erasure coding technique in an object-based storage system, data is divided into 12 data segments and 4 coding segments. What is the maximum number of disk drive failures against which data is protected by the configuration?. 3. 4. 8. 12.

What is a key advantage of cloning a virtual machine (VM)?. Ability to run new VMs simultaneously with the same IP address. Reduces the time required to create multiple copies of a VM. Improves the performance of an existing VM and new VMs. Eliminates the need to create multiple snapshots for a VM.

Which IDPS technique uses a database that contains known attack patterns?. Role-based. Profile-based. Signature-based. Anomaly-based.

What is an advantage of adopting a microservices strategy in an application development environment?. All microservices of an application are always updated at the same time for maintaining consistency inthe application. Every microservice can be deployed, upgraded, scaled, and restarted independent of other services in the application. Microservices are tightly coupled so it is easy to scale all the services at once to meet business demands. Microservices provide the application platform to implement DevOps in the organization easily and at low cost.

Which role in service portfolio management determines and delivers the services that provide value and strategic advantage to the provider?. Cloud Service Account Manager. Cloud Automation Engineer. Cloud Administrator. Cloud Auditor.

Which management process ensures business continuity by eliminating single points of failure in a data center?. Availability management. Security management. Capacity management. Performance management.

Which Dell EMC product is used for a disk-based backup and recovery solution that provides inherent source-based data deduplication?. NetWorker. ProtectPoint. Data Domain. Avamar.

Which phase of the cloud service lifecycle involves making business use case decisions for the cloud service offering portfolio?. Service Termination. Service Planning. Service Creation. Service Operation.

The incident management team is unable to determine the root cause of an incident. To which team should the error-correction activity be transferred?. Performance Management. Change Management. Availability Management. Problem Management.

What capability is provided by the “Open and extensible” attribute of software-defined infrastructure (SDI)?. Uses APIs to integrate multivendor resources into the SDI environment. Optimizes resource usage and generates value reports about the SDI environment. Provides a control point for the entire SDI environment. Provides multitenancy that enables consumers to share resources in the SDI environment.

What mechanism does RSA SecurID use?. Single sign-on authentication. Policy-based authorization. Multi-factor authentication. Role-based authorization.

What is the function of a monitoring and alerting tool?. Focus on examining the usage of resources by customers and service providers and provide notification to optimize and manage workloads. Control charges for cloud usage by optimizing cloud resource utilization. Automate tasks and IT processes and manage the IT environment. Enable people to work closely together on a common project, in real time, by making communication among them easier.

What capability does an orchestration workflow provide?. Helps administer the cloud infrastructure, such as adding resources to a resource pool, billing, and reporting. Helps to consolidate all the IT resources in the cloud environment. Enables the administrator to control the underlying physical infrastructure using a single unified management console. Creates an automated set of tasks to update the service catalog by cloud consumers without requiring manual intervention.

What can an IT department do to better meet IT challenges and support digital businesses?. Become more technology centric. Focus on delivery and management of digital assets. Become more service centric within cost constraints. Focus on providing services without being distracted by costs.

What is a characteristic of thin LUNs?. When a thin LUN is destroyed, its allocated capacity is automatically reclaimed to the pool. When a thin LUN is created, physical storage is fully allocated for it. Once a thin LUN is created it cannot be destroyed until all data is deleted from it. When a thin LUN is destroyed, its allocated capacity is reserved until an administrator reclaims it.

Which product provides key management and a data-at-rest encryption mechanism for private, public, and hybrid clouds?. RSA SecurID. Dell EMC CloudArray. RSA Archer eGRC. Dell EMC CloudLink.

What is a key benefit of using containers?. Eliminates any long-term commitments to a technology stack. Helps speed up software release cycles and improve software quality. Enables services to be delivered in hour or days, not weeks. Provides better probability without requiring code changes.

What is the purpose of a bitmap in snapshot creation?. Keeps track of blocks that have changed in the filesystem. Indicates the exact address from which data has to be read. Indicates the exact address to where data has to be written. Keeps track of the number of blocks that are highly utilized.

An organization needs to deploy remote replication between two sites that are 100 km (62 miles) apart. The organization requires a near zero recovery point objective. Which solution would you recommend?. Hypervisor-based asynchronous replication. Synchronous replication. Snapshot replication. Asynchronous replication.

Which method optimizes network performance by distributing network traffic across the shared bandwidth of all the ISLs?. Link aggregation. Network zoning. Network segmentation. Link failover.

Which product is a single-instance, multitenant integration platform as a service that provides a unified online development and management environment?. MyService 360. ViPR SRM. Data Protection Advisor. Dell Boomi.

What is an organizational benefit of adopting modern applications?. Enhances competitiveness. Removes dependency on IT completely. Eliminates CAPEX. Removes dependency on service provider.

Which process involves determining the optimal resources required to meet seasonal spikes in resource demand?. Configuration management. Change management. Capacity management. Incident management.

Which task describes adherence to compliance?. Ensure security policies are being enforced. Define access rights to users. Assess the cloud provider’s capability to provide logs. Assess assets with realistic valuations.

Which activity is conducted during the service termination phase of the cloud service lifecycle?. De-provisioning the service instance. Asking for the service contract. Establishing the billing policy. Providing the final service assessment report.

What is a function of service portfolio management?. Ensure compliance to industry standards. Enable capacity and availability management. Perform market research and collect information about competitors. Collect information about cloud services and their constituent elements.

A compute system is configured to access files from a network-attached storage system. What is a characteristic of the file system?. Managed by the object-based storage device node. Managed by the compute system. Managed by the storage system. Part of the storage area network.

What refers to the logging of all transactions when assessing the effectiveness of security controls in a cloud computing environment?. Accounting. Monitoring. Auditing. Metering.

What is a benefit of the active-active cluster implementation?. Enhances performance and availability of a service. Lower total cost of ownership for providing services. Improves security of application running on the cluster. Ability to run multiple services on one physical compute system.

An organization has deployed a cloud infrastructure. They frequently experience power outages that result in their service offerings being unavailable from time to time. What term refers to this condition?. Transient unavailability. In-transient unavailability. Permanent unavailability. Intermittent unavailability.

A new service has been created and the service instance is ready to use. What type of an alert is generated to notify the user about this event?. Instructional. Informational. Warning. Caution.

What ensures that the cloud services and service creation processes adhere to relevant policies and legal requirements?. Problem management. Risk management. Audit management. Compliance management.

What term refers to businesses that cautiously and gradually embrace digital transformation?. Digital Laggards. Digital Evaluators. Digital Leaders. Digital Adopters.