DOMANDE A RISPOSTA MULTIPLA

What is the cause of Standing Water condition?. Is caused by heavy rainfall and/or insufficient runway drainage with a depth of more than 6.3 mm. Is caused by heavy rainfall and/or insufficient runway drainage with a depth of less than 3 mm. Is caused by heavy rainfall and/or insufficient runway drainage with a depth of more than 3 mm. Is caused by heavy rainfall and/or insufficient runway drainage with a depth of more than 12 mm.

Reaching cruise FL, to ensure FMS prediction, how different of wind and temperature from forecast should crew reentry in?. Wind: 30kts, temp: 5°C. Not required, FMS will auto update. Wind: 30° or 30kts, temp: 5°C. Wind: 20° or 20kts, temp: 5°C.

Decreasing take off flap from 15° to 0° will probably result in a _____ Vlof: Increased. Reduced. Unchanged. Greatly reduced.

What is best angle climb speed on A320/21?. Mach 0.76. Green dot. Approximately turbulence speed. 250kts.

The effect on a too late rotation will be an: Decrease the ground roll but increase the climb ability. Increase the ground roll and decrease the climb ability. Decrease both the ground roll and climb ability. Increase the ground roll but climb ability will be good.

After calculating the speed for take off, do we need to check against Minimum Speed?. Yes, anytime. No, if no speed correction. Yes, the speed is too low.

Other factors being equal, an increase in take off weight will: Increase lift off speed and decrease stalling speed. Increase lift off speed and stalling speed remains. Weight has no effect on take off speed or lift off speed. Increase lift off speed and stalling speed.

What is the maximum speed for the use of Windscreen Wipers?. 240 kts. Green Dot. 250 kts. 230 kts.

What will trigger a fire warning?. Fire detection by Loops A and B together (engine). Loops A and B failure within 7 seconds of each other (engine). Fire detection by Loops A or B (engine). Loops A and B failure within 7 seconds of each other (apu).

For CATIII operations with no DH what are the minimum visual references?. At least one centre line and one edge light each side should be visible. There is no requirement for visual contact with the runway. Two centre line lights (assuming 30m spacing). Either three centre line lights (assuming 15m spacing).

If the IAS is a "split" triangle, which of the following statements is correct?. It may be magenta or blue. It indicates a speed constraint. It will be magenta and signify a Managed Descent only. It will be magenta and signify a Managed Climb or Managed Descent.

What is the limiting speed for selecting the gear down?. 220 kt. 250 kt. Green dot. 260 kt.

When can the RAT be restored?. At any time. Below 140 kts. On the ground only. Below 100 kts.

The ECAM CTL PANEL "WHEEL" pushbutton switch has failed. What must you do to display the WHEEL page?. Use the STS button. Use the ALL button. Use the RECAL button. Transfer the SD to the F/O (or CAPT) using the SWTG PANEL.

Regarding Fadec, which of the following statements is true?. It can be energised on ground by putting Eng Mode Sel to start. Each Fadec has three channels. Fadec runs for 10 minutes after the aircraft is electrically powered-up. The Fadec is able to abort a Manual Start.

What are the restrictions on ATC reports to an aircraft on finals?. Inside the O.M - radio silence. Inside the O.M - RVR reports only. Less than 1nm to touchdown - radio silence. Less than 3nm to touchdown - ILS failures only.

Initial actions when airborne after a "Windshear" warning?. TOGA PWR, ignore FD - pitch to 17.5°. TOGA PWR, sidestick fully back, maintain gear/flap config. TOGA PWR, follow FD pitch demand, if need sidestick fully back. TOGA PWR, follow FD pitch demand, raise landing gear.

"The MAN V/S CTL switch is ... Operative in the manual pressurisation mode: hold up to open the outflow valve". Inoperative if the ditching switch is on”. Operative at all times, and it controls the outflow valve". Operative in the man pressurisation mode: hold up to open the safety valve".

What is the maximum runway slope?. +1% / -2%. +2% / -1%. +/-1%. +/-2%.

What happens if Emergency Cancel button on the ecam control panel is pressed?. EWD Amber Warnings are transferred to the STS S.D. If pressed for more than 3 seconds, cautions will be suppressed. EWD Red Warnings are transferred to the STS S.D. Aural Warnings are inhibited for the remainder of the flight.

"Below the passenger door window is a red Cabin Pressure light which …. Is illuminated whenever the cabin pressure is greater than 2.5 Mb". Cannot be seen from outside the aircraft". Flashes if there is residual cabin pressure". Flashes with residual pressure and slides armed".

Initial actions in event of a rejected take off at more than 72 kts?. Call "STOP", REVERSE THR MAX, Reverse Idle By 80 kts. Call "STOP", REVERSE THR MAX. Call "STOP", REVERSE THR MAX, Maximum Foot Brakes. Call "STOP", REVERSE THR MAX, Speed Brakes Full.

What is the maximum speed for flight with the cockpit side window open?. 230 kts. 195 kts. 200 kts. Green Dot.

"Pressing the ecam control panel RCL push button switch ... Displays the Status Page on the Lower Ecam". Continuously scrolls through all the System Displays". Displays the Landing Memo on the E.W.D". For more than 3 seconds, will recall any Cancelled Cautions".

EGPWS uses which BARO information?. Captain's. First Officer's. The pilot whose autopilot is engaged. The lower setting of the Captain's and First Officer's settings.

What is the duration of the passenger oxygen supply?. Between 15 and 20 minutes, depending on cabin altitude. 20 minutes. 15 minutes after oxygen compartment door activation. 15 minutes after the mask is pulled towards the passenger seat.

How is the optimum touchdown point marked on the runway?. Red barrettes. Large white painted rectangles on the runway surface. Green centreline lights. Yellow edge lights.

What is the minimum speed for use of full reverse thrust?. 50 kt. 60 kt. 75 kt. 70 kt.

What information is given by the speed trend arrow on the PFD?. The direction the speed should be adjusted to achieve the required speed. The speed attained in 10 seconds with constant acceleration. The economy speed range during descent. The speed attained in 5 seconds with constant acceleration.

What is the sequence of actions, on the FCU, in order to start an emergency descent (structural failure)?. Select lower ALT and PULL, HDG knob - turn left or right and PULL, SPEED knob, PULL, MACH/SPEED target adjust. PULL and select lower ALT, HDG knob - PULL and turn left or right, MACH/SPEED changeover button - PRESS. Select lower ALT and PUSH, HDG knob - PULL and turn left or right, SPEED knob, PULL, MACH/SPEED changeover button - PRESS. Select lower ALT and PULL, HDG knob - PULL and turn left or right, SPEED knob, PULL and descend at Mᴍᴏ/Vᴍᴏ minus 10 kts.

What happens when the APU MASTER switch is selected to on?. The APU Intake Flap opens and the starter motor engages when the flap is fully open. The APU Intake Flap opens. The APU Intake Flap opens and the starter motor engages immediately. The APU Fuel Pump will operate.

Which is true with regard to the PTU?. It is inhibited from electrical power-up until second engine start. It operates if the Green or Yellow system pressure falls below 2600 psi. It is inhibited between engine starts. It is used as a back-up following a leak in the Green or Yellow systems.

Which of the following is a correct starter limitation?. After 3 failed start attempts, allow one hour cooling. Maximum continuous cranking is 3 minutes. The max speed for starter engagement is 20% N2, (recommended 10%). After 4 failed start attempts, allow one hour cooling.

If the radar on the ND sweeps from the centre outwards, what does it mean?. Weather radar is being used to show EGPWS terrain. It is giving a test pattern. Weather radar picture is offset due to a fault. NAV database is being used to show EGPWS terrain.

Which lights go off when the gear is retracted?. Turn Off and Wing. Logo and Land. Nose and Turn Off. Nose and Land.

During taxi you observe flashing yellow lights each side of the taxiway: You must stop and ask ATC for instructions. You have reached the CAT III holding point. You are about to enter an active runway. You are approaching a taxiway intersection.

When and how is a rapid alignment carried out?. If residual groundspeed > 5 kts, by setting the Rotary Selectors OFF and to NAV within 5 seconds. On all transit stops, by recycling the NAV and ADR switches OFF/ON. On all transit stops, if the accuracy is LOW, by recycling IR selectors. If residual groundspeed < 5 kts, by setting the Rotary Selectors OFF and to NAV after more than 5 seconds.

What is the meaning of MSA?. Minimum sector altitude. Minimum safe altitude. Maximum air speed.

What is recommend takeoff procedure in case takeoff with dry or wet well paved runway?. Use the flap setting giving the highest flexible temperature, if the flex difference is low, use the highest flap setting. Use the flap setting giving the highest flexible temperature. Use the flap setting giving the highest flexible temperature, if the flex difference is low, use the highest flap setting. If weight is low should also consider flap 1 to save fuel.

In icing conditions, the pilot in command must: Ensure no ice more than 5mm in depth is on surfaces. Ensure holdover time has not exceeded the time since de-icing started. Ensure sufficient anti-ice is still present on surfaces. Ensure surfaces are free from build-up of ice within constraints allowed by the operations manual.

In case of a pilot incapacitation, the pilot in control should do to call cabin crew?. Press call FWD cabin station push button. PA: "Cockpit speaking, puser required in the cockpit". Press call ALL cabin station push button.

How many feet the aircraft can overshoot the target altitude during climb in RVSM?. 200ft. 100ft. 300ft. 150ft.

The ... is responsible for reporting all known or suspected defects in the aeroplane to the operator, at the termination of the flight: JAR 145 maintenance organisation. State of registration. Flight dispatcher. Pilot in command.

What is the maximum number of MEL items that can be carried?. 4 MELs. No litmit, it they are not affect the safety. 5 MELs. 3 MELs.

Convective activity over land in middle latitudes is greatest in: Summer during the night and early morning. Winter during the night and early morning. Summer in the afternoon. Winter in the afternoon.

FL 140, an OAT -12° C is measured. What will the temperature be at FL 110, if you consider the temperature gradient of the Standard Atmosphere?. +2°C. -2°C. -18°C. -6°C.

The temperature gradient in the international standard atmosphere (ISA) is: 0.65°C/100m. 0,5°C/100m. 1°C/100m.

The troposphere is deepest: The same all over the earth. Over the poles in summer. Near the poles. Near the equator.

As a parcel of air warms, its ability to hold water vapour: Decreases. Unable to say - it also depends on the pressure. Increases. Remains unaltered.

A body of air over the ocean is referred to as: Polar air. Maritime air. Moist air. Oceanic air.

Following an Engine Failure after liftoff what is maximum degree of bank should pilot keep and untill what altitude or speed?. When the specified procedure requires a turn, except if otherwise stated on the RTOW chart, the turn should be performed with a maximum bank of 15° until the aircraft reaches 1.500 ft or until green dot. 25 degrees. No limit if the V/S more than 1000ft/min.

The effect of increased weight on a glide descent in a normal atmosphere is: Forward speed increases, rate of descent increases. Forward speed increases, rate of descent decreases. Forward speed decreased, rate of descent decreases. Forward speed decreased, rate of descent increases.

The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on: The radius of the turn and the bank angle. The bank angle only. The radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane. The true airspeed and the bank angle.

Reduced take off thrust: Has the benefit of improving engine life. Can be used if the headwind component during take off is at least 10 kt. Is not recommended at very low temperatures (OAT). Can be used if the actual take off mass is higher than the performance limited take off mass.

Which is true if both booster pumps in the centre tank fail?. You must descend to 15000ft when gravity feeding becomes necessary. The SD shows amber XX replacing the CTR tank quantity indications. The FOB (EWD) will show a half box (amber). The SD shows amber = through the CTR tank quantity indications.

On the E.W.D, when does magenta LDG INHIBIT appear automatically?. Below 800 feet radio altitude. Below 2000 feet radio altitude. With selection of gear down. With selection of flap 2 on the approach.

Which of the following correctly completes this statement? "With the Yellow Electric Pump not switched on, it will operate automatically …. If the yellow engine driven pump fails". If the yellow system pressure falls below 2500 psi". When a cabin door is opened with the slide armed". When the cargo door is operated".

Which can be tuned by RMP 1?. Associated radio aids and onside communication equipment. Any radio communication equipment only. Any radio communication equipment and outside radio aids. VHF 1 and HF 1 only.

What is the limiting speed for selecting the gear down?. 260 kt. 250 kt. 220 kt. Green Dot.

Pressing the DISC button on the Captain's steering hand wheels does what?. Disconnects all rudder pedal movement from the steering system. Disconnects the Captain's steering handwheels from the system. Disconnects the steering system completely. Disconnects the Captain's pedal movement from the steering system.

What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for take off?. 29 knots, gusting 33 knots. 33 knots, gusting 38 knots. 38 knots, gust included. 38 knots.

The Trim Air Valves: Mix fresh air from the packs with recirculated cabin air. Adjusts temperature by adding cold air. Are electrically controlled by the zone controller. Regulate pack flow depending on number of passengers.

What does the Captain's ND show when selected to Rose ILS?. ILS receiver No.1 signals only. ILS receiver No.1 or No.2 signals, as selected. ILS receiver No.2 signals and the map.

What will the FMA (lateral) immediately show in the event of a go around?. NAV (managed navigation for the go around). G/A TRK (the initial track of the go around procedure). G/A TRK (the actual track at the time of selecting TOGA power). RWY HDG (the runway heading).

How is NAV ACCURACY check carried out?. By comparing TO WPT information (top right of ND) against "BRG and DIST to". By comparing VOR bearing and DME distance against "BRG and DIST to" on MCDU PROG page. By checking that both MCDUs show HI accuracy. By checking NAV ACCURACY UPGRADE is displayed in the MCDU.

What happens when the first inner tank level reaches 750 kg?. Transfer valves on the associated wing will open. Nothing happens until both inner tanks reach 750 kg. One transfer valve in each wing will open. The centre tank pumps will stop.

The Avionics Vent System has two conditions - Ground and Flight. When does the transition from Ground to Flight occur?. At lift off. After second engine start. At 100 kts, on the take off roll. When the thrust is set for take off.

TDZ RVR non available, but crew assessment is. When is take off allowed?. Take off is allowed only if the Mid Point RVR is in limits. Take off is not allowed. Take off is allowed if the Mid Point RVR or Stop End RVR is in limits. When Mid Point and the Stop End RVR's are in limits.

Regarding landing gear gravity extension, which of the following is true?. Only the mainwheel doors remain open. Only the nosewheel doors remain open. Nosewheel steering is not available. Nosewheel steering is available if the green hydraulic system is operating.

What is the maximum cabin pressure differential?. Positive 8.6 psi, Negative 1.2 psi. Positive 8.4 psi, Negative 1.0 psi. Positive 8.5 psi, Negative 0.4 psi. Positive 8.6 psi, Negative 1.0 psi.

Immediate actions with speed indications unreliable above THR RED ALT?. Set CLB THR, above FL100, set pitch +5°, below FL100 set pitch +10°. AP off, F/D off, A/T off, flaps maintain config, speedbrakes retract. Maintain present pitch attitude and set CLB THR. Set TOGA THR, set pitch +5°.

With all tanks full and the mode selector in auto, which is correct?. The centre tank pumps will stop when the flaps are extended. The centre tank pumps will stop when the slats are extended. All pumps will run continuously. The wing pumps will stop when the slats are extended.

From where does engine 1 anti ice obtain its heat?. Directly from its own bleed or engine 2 bleed. Directly from its own bleed. Directly from its own fan air system. Directly from its own bleed or the main bleed system.

If both pilots push and hold the take-over pushbuttons on the sidesticks, which of the following statements is true?. Sidestick priority is locked out until the end of the flight. They cancel each other out, and the aircraft flies normally. The last pilot to press a button has priority. After 40 seconds, the first person to press a button loses use of sidestick.

What does the green arrow on the E.W.D at bottom centre signify?. There is more information. To access it, press the STS button. There is more information. To access it, press the CLR button. Refer to the S.D for more information. You should press the emergency cancel button.

What is the maximum wind speed for cabin and cargo doors operation?. 55 knots (gusting 60 knots). 65 knots. 70 knots. 52 knots.

At the start of the flight, what will be the condition of ATHR?. Armed on selection of TOGA or FLX power. Active on selection of TOGA or FLX power. Active at 1500 feet AAL. Armed at 80 kts.

What happens during pushback (including engine start) with the steering selector in the towing position?. A caution NW STEERING FAULT will appear on the EWD. STEERING is displayed (in amber) on the Wheels SD. Amber NW STEERING DISC if at least one engine is running. Green NW STEERING DISC until steering selector is normal.

How many sectors are there in a holding pattern?. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Under which conditions will ice form on the airframe?. Ambient air temperature below 0 degrees Celsius and airframe temperature below 0 degrees Celsius. Water in a liquid state, ambient air temperature below 0 degrees Celsius and airframe temperature below 0 degrees Celsius. Ambient air temperature below 0 degrees Celsius and airframe temperature below -10 degrees Celsius. Water in a liquid state.

Who checks, before flight, that the aircrafts weight is such that flight can be safely made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? (Annex 6, Part I). The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot. The captain. The operator. The companies cargo technicians.

Who is responsible for notifying the nearest appropriate authority by the quickest means possible of any accident involving an aeroplane resulting in serious injury or death of any person or substantial damage to the aeroplane or property?. The operator. A JAR-OPS i approved person or a federal police officer. The pilot in command. The state of registration.

The percent by volume of the gases to be found in the atmosphere is distributed according to size as follows: Less oxygen than carbon dioxide. Less nitrogen than water vapour. More nitrogen than oxygen. More oxygen than nitrogen.

The majority of troposphere heating is the result of: Re-radiation from the clouds. Re-radiation of the sun's rays from the surface of the earth. Radiation of the sun. Heating from the ground below.

The time of maximum temperature is: Early evening. Late morning. Local noon. Approximately 2 hours after local noon.

A temperature increase with altitude through a layer is called: An extension. An inversion. Heating aloft. Unstable air.

The unit of pressure most commonly used in meteorology is: Kg/cm2. Tons/m2. Hpa. Lbs/inch2.

At the moment of lift off: Lift and drag are equal to zero. Lift is greater than mass. Lift is equal to weight. Rolling resistance is a maximum.

The take off distance required increases: Due to slush on the runway. Due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack. Due to head wind because of the drag augmentation. Due to lower gross mass at take off.

What are the standard temperature and pressure values at sea level?. 59 degrees Celsius and 1013.2 millibars. 0 degrees Celsius and 1013 hPa. 59 degrees Fahrenheit and 29.92 millibars. 15 degrees Celsius and 1013.25 hPa.

The climb gradient is defined as the ratio of: The increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a percentage. The increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage. Rate of climb to true airspeed. True airspeed to rate of climb.

Which of the following combinations will most likely cause the greatest increase in the take off distance? 1. Tailwind 2. Headwind 3. Upslope 4. Downslope 5. High temperature 6. Low Temperature. 2, 4, 5. 1, 4, 5. 1, 3, 5. 2, 4, 6.

How many feet of obstacle clearance does the acceleration height (or altitude) ensure when accelerating in level flight to greendot after an engine failure?. 15ft. 100ft. 50ft. 35ft.

In case of One Engine Inoperative, what are the speeds for Standard & Obstacle Stategy?. M.78/300kts and Greendot. M.76/280kts and Greendot. Greendot.

On the FLT CTL SD the ailerons have two neutral indications. Why is this?. To show the tolerances when LAF is operating. One for clean, one for flaps extended (aileron droop). One for clean, one for slats extended (aileron droop). To show the tolerances when only one Aileron Jack is operative.

When will Mechanical Back Up occur?. Loss of all FCCs and aircraft control with stab & rudder. Loss of all hydraulics. Loss of G and Y hydraulics, aircraft control with stab and rudder. Loss of all FCCs and aircraft control with elevator & rudder.

What is the limiting groundspeed for the tires?. 185 kts. 198 kts. 195 kts. 190 kts.

What is the failsafe situation if Wing and Engine anti-ice are lost?. Wing anti-ice Off, Engine anti-ice On. Both Off. Both On. Wing anti-ice On, Engine anti-ice Off.

On the ECAM E.W.D, when does the TO INHIBIT memo disappear automatically after take off?. 800ft. 1500ft or 2 minutes after lift off. On flap retraction. 2000ft Radio Altitude.

What is the maximum altitude for APU start on batteries only?. 15,000 feet. 39,000 feet. 25,000 feet. 20,000 feet.

When does a Decel light illuminate?. With autobrake in use and green hydraulic pressure satisfactory. To show that the anti skid is serviceable. With at least 80% of selected deceleration rate. With Low autobrake selected, two seconds after touchdown.

With the Pack Flow selector to Norm, what will the actual flow be?. Always Norm. Norm or Low. Low or Norm or High. Norm or High.

"Set on Low, the actual pack flow may be ... Norm due to APU bleed supplying". Norm or High due to single pack operation". High due to APU bleed supplying". High due to air conditioning temperature demands".

During acceleration on initial climb out, in config 1+F, with no movement of the flap handle, what will happen?. The slats will auto retract at 210 kts. An overspeed warning will be activated at 220 kts. The flaps will auto retract at 210 kts. The flaps and slats will auto retract at 210 kts.

What is the minimum fuel for take off?. 1800 kg. 1500 kg and WG TANK LO LVL not displayed. 2000 kg. 1500 kg.

When can both autopilots be engaged at the same time?. After apprs is armed on the FCU. After G/S capture. After the approach phase is activated on the MCDU. After LOC capture.

What does the sidestick control between neutral and full aft position in Alpha Protection?. Altitude. G Load. Alpha. Airspeed.

"The APU may be started ... At or below 25,000 feet only". At or below 35,000 feet only". At or below 300 knots only". Throughout the normal flight envelope".

You commence an approach with RVR above minima and inside the FAF/OM & ATC report an RVR below minima. What is the correct action?. Continue to descend to Alert Height. Make an immediate go around. Continue to CAT I DH and then decide whether to go around. Continue to DH and go around if visual reference is not established.

What does the AVAIL light on the APU START switch indicate?. APU electrical power can be used. APU starter disengagement. N speed greater than 75%. ECB power up check is satisfactory.

On the ACP, what does an amber light on a Transmission Key indicate?. Failure of the associated transmitter and receiver. Failure of the associated transmitter. Selcal operation only. Selcal operation or a call from maintenance or the cabin.

After calling STOP, what are the next actions in event of an RTO?. REV MAX, foot braking max, pedal deflection. THR IDLE, SELECT GD, SPOILERS FULL, REV MAX. REVERSE MAX, if all DECEL lights not illuminated, foot braking max. REVERSE THR MAX, if brake response not appropriate for runway conditions, FULL MAN braking applied and maintained.

On the approach, what automatically activates the igniters?. Selecting gear down. Selecting config 1. Passing 2500' RA. Selecting config 2 from config 1.

Where can you see metric altitude?. PFD. SD. EWD. ND.

What happens when the gear is selected down on the approach?. The STS page appears on the lower ecam display if there is a malfunction showing on the STS page. The STS page appears on the lower ecam display. The wheel S.D appears on the lower ecam display. The wheel button on the ecam control panel illuminates.

What does F speed represent at take off on the IAS strip?. Minimum speed for present flap setting. Minimum speed to retract flaps from flap full to flap 3. Minimum speed to retract flaps from flap 3 to flap 1. Minimum speed for selecting one more stage of flaps.

Immediate actions with unreliable IAS on take off before flap retraction are: FD OFF, FLAPS - retract on schedule. AP/FD keep ON, FLAPS - do not move. AP/FD OFF, FLAPS - do not move. AP OFF, FLAPS - retract on schedule.

Due to sterile cockpit, when is interphone contact (from the cabin) with the flight deck prohibited?. After PA "Cabin crew, seated for takeoff" until Seat Belt - Off and after passing 10000ft during descend to landing. After PA "Cabin crew, seated for takeoff" until passing 10000ft in climb. After PA "Cabin crew, seated for takeoff" until Seat Belt - Off and from 5 minutes after PA "Cabin crew, prepare for landing" until after landing.

Below what RVR shall visual approaches not be used?. 800m. 1000m. 2000m. 500m.

When refuelling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is necessary that: (Annex 6, Part I). The aircrafts stairs be completely extended. Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel on board. All the flight crew be on board. Refuelling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking.

The troposphere is deepest: Near the poles. Over the poles in summer. Near the equator. The same all over the earth.

Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 per cent of all water vapour?. Lonosphere. Lower stratosphere. Troposphere. Upper stratosphere.

Which of the following statements is true: The dew point of a sample of air varies with the temperature of the sample. Air cooled without vapour being added or subtracted will never reach its dew point. The dew point can only be higher than, or equal to the air temperature. The dew point remains constant if no water vapour is added or subtracted.

The landing distance required will be increased as a result of all of the following: Increased temperature, increased pressure altitude, uphill runway slope. Increased temperature, decreased pressure altitude, downhill runway slope. Decreased temperature, decreased pressure altitude, uphill runway slope. Increased temperature, increased pressure altitude, downhill runway slope.

How much is the safety margin Airbus recommends when calculating in flight landing distance?. 10%. 5%. 15%. 20%.

On the S.D what signifies an inaccurate quantity indication?. An amber line through last two digits of a fuel figure. An amber half box round a fuel figure. An amber box round a fuel figure. Double crosses in place of a fuel figure.

"VFE NEXT is ... The minimum speed for the present configuration". The maximum speed for the present configuration". The limiting speed for going from config 1 to config 2 in flight". The minimum flap/slat retraction speed".

Which of the following defines icing conditions?. In flight: TAT 10℃ down to SAT minus 30℃. Before T/O: OAT 10℃ or below, visible moisture, visibility < 1nm. Before T/O: OAT 8℃ or below, contaminated runway. In flight: SAT 10℃ or below.

Which of the following indications may be ignored?. Red EGT during take off. Amber N2 during take off. Amber EGT during take off. Amber N1 during take off.

What are the maximum acceleration (G) limits?. Slats and flaps extended: 0g to 2.5g. In clean config and slats extended: -1g to +2.5g. Slats extended and flaps retracted: 0g to +2g. In clean config: -1g to +2.5g and flaps extended: -1g to +2g.

If the Ecam Upper DU fails, how can an SD/STATUS page be displayed?. On the lower ECAM DU by a momentary press on the associated Ecam Control Panel push button switch. By use of the RECALL push button switch on the Ecam Control Panel. On the Captain's left EFIS using the EIS DMC SWITCHING panel an the Ecam Control Panel. On the lower ECAM DU by pressing and holding down the associated Ecam Control Panel push button switch.

What does Fadec do if there is no ignition during an automatic start cycle?. Abort the start, then attempt another start using the other igniter. Show an Ecam message, the crew must perform a dry crank. Abort the start and perform a dry crank. If no EGT after 30 seconds, it will activate the other igniter.

Following an engine fire, when will agent pushbutton lights illuminate?. Squib as soon as the fire is detected. Squib when fire switch is pushed; disch when squib has fired. Squib when fire switch is pushed; disch when extinguisher bottle is depressurised. Squib when squib has failed; disch when squib has fired.

Which is true regarding AC ESS BUS in the event of an AC BUS 1 FAULT?. It will be powered automatically from AC BUS 2. It cannot be powered. It will be powered by the emergency generator. It can be powered from AC BUS 2, if so selected.

On the system display, what has occurred if the electrics page appears automatically with no other caution or warning indications?. An advisory has occurred, the drifting parameter will be pulsing. A primary failure has occurred. An independent failure has occurred. An advisory has occurred, the drifting parameter will be amber.

Where can you see metric altitude?. EWD. ND. PFD. SD.

"In order to leave the cockpit in an emergency, you should ... Force the cockpit door open by pulling it". Leave via a sliding window using either escape rope". Leave via a sliding window using associated escape rope only". Lock the sliding window fully open using the locking pin".

A-LOCK (alpha lock) appears below the slat/flap indicator on the E.W.D. What causes this and how do you recover?. Flaps are locked in config 1; reduce angle of attack to retract the flaps. Slats are locked in config 1 due to high angle of attack; reduce the angle of attack to retract the slats. Slats are locked in config 1 due to high angle of attack; recycle the flap lever to retract the slats. Slats and flaps are locked in config 1; recycle the flap lever to retract slats and flaps.

What does a SPEED BRK memo indicate on the E.W.D?. In green - normal operation. In amber, speedbrake auto retraction. Extension of speedbrakes when in excess of Vᴍᴏ/Mᴍᴏ. In amber - partial or total speedbrake failure. In amber - speedbrakes extended with more than 50% N1.

Regarding the A/THR indications on the FMA, which is true?. ATHR in blue - [active (actual thrust is limited by TLA)]. ATHR in white - [armed (actual thrust = TLA)]. ATHR in blue - [armed (actual thrust = TLA)]. ATHR in white - [active (actual thrust is always less than TLA)].

In flight, how is the crew advised that the engines are spooled down?. Master caution and single chime. Aural alert " SPEED, SPEED, SPEED". "ADVISORY" displayed on the ENG SD. "IDLE" displayed between the EPR gauges.

FDRs must keep data and parameters for at least the last: 48 hours of operation. 30 hours of operation. The whole flight. 25 hours of operation.

Who shall provide the flight operations personal with a operations manual and also issue the amendments to keep it up to date?. ATS authority of the state of registry. Owner of the aircraft. Aircraft operator. Aircraft producer.

What is the last minute change weight limit for the A321?. 1500kgs. 1000kgs. 500kgs. No limitation if the change lower than allowable payload.

Which statement is true?. Air density generally decreases as altitude increases. Air density generally stays the same as altitude increases. Air density generally increases as altitude increases. None of the above.

The amount of water vapour which air can hold largely depends on: Relative humidity. Dew point. Air temperature. Stability of air.

What is the effect of an increased flap setting on VDmin (minimum drag speed)?. VDmin decreases first, but increases at the higher flap settings. None. VDmin decreases. VDmin increases.

VLO is defined as: Minimum possible speed that the aircraft could lift off the ground. Actual speed that the aircraft lifts off the ground. The long range cruise speed. The maximum speed for landing gear operation.

How is the maximum permissible takeoff weight if OAT increases?. No change. Decrease. Increase.

When landing a serviceable aircraft with flaps 3, what is the correct action on the GPWS panel?. Switch on the G/S mode switch. Switch on the FLAP mode switch. Switch off the SYS switch. Switch on the LDG FLAP 3 switch.

What happens when the gear is selected down on the approach?. The STS page appears on the Lower Ecam display. The WHEEL button on the Ecam control panel illuminates. The WHEEL S.D appears on the Lower Ecam display. The STS page appears on the Lower Ecam display if there is a malfunction showing on the STS page.

When may the memo "N.W.STRG DISC" appear on the EWD?. In green (only) during a pushback which includes engine start. In amber, during a pushback with an engine running. When the Captain and/or First Officer are depressing their DISC buttons on the steering handle. When the ANTISKID and NWS switch B placed to off.

If AP and A/THR are off and bank angle exceeds 45°, what happens?. The FMA lateral and vertical modes (only) are no longer displayed. The aircraft goes into Alternate Law. The flight director (only) is no longer displayed. The flight director and its associated FMAs are no longer displayed.

Which hydraulic system have fluid shutoff valves and why?. All systems, to isolate the systems in event of fluid loss. G and Y (operated by switches on the OHP) in case of PTU failures. G and Y (operated by the engine fire switches) to isolate fluid from fire. All systems, for use by maintenance.

After take off, when does the ATHR become active?. Thrust Reduction Altitude. 1500 feet RA. 1500 feet above airfield elevation. Acceleration Altitude.

What is the maximum EPR with the park brake on?. 1.18. 1.15. 1.05. 1.25.

What happens if, in flight, with the hydraulic Blue system inoperative (fluid loss), the Man On switch (on the EMER ELEC PWR panel) is pressed?. The RAT will not deploy. The emergency generator will be driven directly by the RAT. The emergency generator will be driven by the Blue hydraulic system. The RAT will extend, but the emergency generator will not operate.

Initial actions in the event of a GPWS alert including "Pull Up" are: AP OFF, sidestick hard back, TOGA power. AP ON, TOGA power, select V/S 3000 ft/min. AP OFF, TOGA power, follow pitch demands on FD. AP OFF, TOGA power, select 17° pitch up.

What happens in the event of SFCC 1 total failure?. Slats and flaps will be locked by the Wing Tip Brake. Slats will be inoperative. Slats and flaps will operate at half speed. Flaps will be inoperative.

Regarding Ecam, which of the following statements is true?. Primary failures are identified by a star (*) against them. Amber messages on EWD are always accompanied by master cautions. Independent failures are identified by a star (*) against them. Master cautions are always accompanied by amber messages on EWD.

What are the correct actions if RMP 1 fails?. Switch it off, use RMP 3 or RMP 2. Switch it off, use ACP 2. Use the Audio Switching switch (on the overhead panel). Switch it off, use RMP 3 only.

In Alternate Law, how do indications change on the speed scale?. Alpha protection is replaced by an extended VLS. There are no changes. It is possible to stall the aircraft. Vstall warning replaces Alpha protection. It is possible to stall the aircraft. Vstall warning replaces VLS.

What SD is displayed during the T/O roll?. Cruise. Wheel. Flight Controls. Engine.

The captain's left EFIS has failed, so what must be done to display the PFD?. Push the button on the Captain's panel (outboard of the EFIS screens). Nothing. The PFD will automatically go to the right EFIS screen. Nothing. It cannot be displayed on the Captain's right EFIS. Using the ECAM/ND switching panel switch.

When is the Fuel Used indication (on the SD) reset to zero?. When the associated MASTER SW is selected off (on ground only). When the associated MASTER SW is selected off (at any time). Five minutes after engine shutdown on the ground. During associated engine start.

What are the lowest minima for a CAT II Auto Land?. DH 100 ft & RVR 500 m. DH 121 ft & RVR 400 m. DH 100 ft & RVR 300 m. DH 141 ft & RVR 450 m.

What is the rescue and firefighting airport category for the A321?. 5. 6. 7. 8.

What is the number of crash axes or crowbars located on the flight deck for aeroplanes with a maximum take off mass exceeding 5.700kg or a passenger seating configuration of more than nine?. 1. 2. 3. 6.

What are the planning minima for alternates for destination and enroute airports for the different types of approaches?. Remain no change if the alternates has CAT 3B ILS. ILS App: NPA minima, NPA: minima plus 200ft/1000m, Visual App: circling minima. CAT II, III: CAT I minima, CAT I: NPA minima, NPA: minima plus 200ft/1000m; Circling: circling minima.

When carrying out a missed approach, if not stated on the chart, what is the missed approach climb gradient?. 2.50%. 2.10%. 3%. 3.50%.

Within what angle of the extended runway centerline is a non-precision approach considered to be straight in?. 20 degrees. 15 degrees. 25 degrees. 30 degrees.

What are the restrictions for crew rest (sleep) on the flight deck?. Should be no longer than 45 minutes and should be terminated at leaset 30 minutes before TOD. Should be no longer than 30 minutes and should be terminated at leaset 45 minutes before TOD. Should be no longer than 30 minutes and should be terminated at leaset 30 minutes before TOD.

What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called?. Tropopause. Stratosphere. Lonosphere. Atmosphere.

Which of the following alternatives applies to the correct composition of the atmosphere by volume?. 50% oxygen and 50% nitrogen. 25% oxygen, 50% nitrogen and 25% water vapour. 21% oxygen and 78% nitrogen. 21% nitrogen and 78% oxygen.

What approximately is the average height of the tropopause over the equator?. 8 km. 16 km. 40 km. 11 km.

What is the primary cause of all changes in the Earth is weather?. Movement of air masses from moist areas to dry areas. Variation of solar energy at the Earth is surface. Changes in air pressure over the Earth is surface. None of the above.

The take off distance available is: TORA. The distance from brake release point to 35ft screen height. TORA plus stopway. TORA plus clearway.

The take off distance required on a dry runway is: The distance to reach 35 ft with all engines operating. The distance to reach 15 ft with the critical engine having failed at VEF. The greater of the distance to reach 35 ft with the critical engine having failed at VEF and 115% of the distance to reach 35 ft with all engines operating.

How long is the maximum thrust certified for take off?. 2 engines: five minutes, 1 engine: ten minutes. 5 minutes. 10 minutes.

The coefficient of lift can be increased either by flap extension or by: Increasing the TAS. Increasing the CAS. Decreasing the nose up elevator trim setting. Increasing the angle of attack.

The weather is above CAT I limits but ATC report LVP's are in force. Which of the following statements is true?. You must follow Low Visibility Procedures. You may carry out a CAT I approach unrestricted. You may carry out a CAT I approach if you advise ATC. You may carry out a CAT I approach only if authorised by ATC.

What do green lines next to the REL indicators show?. Serviceable anti skid in flight, release of brake pressure after landing. Nothing in flight and brake applications after landing. Unserviceable anti skid in flight, release of brake pressure after landing. Release of brake pressure after landing only if autobrake is selected.

Regarding the PFD, which of the following statements is true?. On the IAS, a split magenta triangle indicates a managed climb. The bottom left corner of the PFD displays the Mach number at all times. Selected heading can be displayed as a triangle or digits. An excess rate of descent will cause the VSI to go Red.

What are the minimum visual refs required at DH for CAT IIIA approach?. Three consecutive centre line lights or TDZ lights. One centre line or TDZ lights. Five consecutive centre line lights or TDZ lights. Any combination of two centre line / runway edge / TDZ lights.

With the Blue switch at Auto, when will the pump operate?. After the both engines have been started. After engine 1 has been started. After the first engine has been started. For 5 minutes after electrical power-up.

In the MEL "remarks or exceptions" column, what is signified by an (*)?. Maintenance action is required. Aircraft may operate back to base. A crew operational procedure. Inoperative equipment must have a placard.

What would cause a managed climb to revert to an Open Climb?. Pushing the altitude knob on the FCU. Pushing the heading knob on the FCU. Pushing the vertical speed knob on the FCU. Pulling the heading knob on the FCU.

After clearing the runway, you are clear of the "sensitive" area when: You pass a red stop bar. The green/yellow alternating centreline lights become green only. You pass the normal holding point. The green/yellow alternating centreline lights become blue.

A/C on GND - Flap Lever Position 1: Slats are 1 Flaps are 1. Slats are 2 Flaps are 1. Slats are 1 Flaps are 0. Slats are 0 Flaps are 1.

When RMP tuning is in operation, which is true: ILS DME is not available. There will be an amber light on the ACP. The MCDUs will display the tuned NAVAIDs. The ILS receivers are tuned by their respective RMP's.

Take off below what RVR is considered as low visibility take off?. 400m. 300m. 200m. 500m.

Without wind, the tip vortices created by an airplane at take off: Separate to the right side. Separate on the runway. Separate to the left side. Separate on each side of the runway.

For the flight crew members, quickly fitted oxygen masks are compulsory onboard any pressurized aircraft flying at a pressure altitude greater than: 10000 ft. 25000 ft. 29000 ft. 13000 ft.

The effect of a decrease in air density is to: Decrease the take off distance and increase the rate of climb. Increase the take off distance and reduce the rate of climb. Decrease the take off distance and reduce the rate of climb. Increase the take off distance and increase the rate of climb.

The C of G is: The point on the aircraft through which gravity appears to act. The point on the aircraft from where the dihedral angle is measured. The point on the aircraft where the lift acts through. The point on the aircraft where the datum is located.

Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?. At standard temperature. When indicated and pressure altitudes are the same value on the altimeter. When the altimeter setting is 29.92" Hg. When the altimeter setting is 1013" Hg.

What are the limitation of the Minimum and Maximum ACC Height and ALT on RTOW chart?. Minimum for obstacle clearance and maximum for limited time with take off power for One Eng. Minimum for obstacle clearance and maximum for weight limit. Minimum for V2 minimum and maximum runway lenght.

Is Tref a fix number?. Yes, and it must be higher than AOT. No, as it is a function of the speed and the pressure altitude.

What are the pitch and roll limits in Normal Law configuration?. Pitch +30° (+25° at low speed), -15°, Roll: 67°. Pitch +30° (+25° at low speed), -10°, Roll: 67°. Pitch ±30°, Roll: 45°. Pitch +25° (+20° at low speed), -15°, Roll: 67°.

When does the Refuel Memo appear?. When the refuel hose is connected to the coupling. When the end light illuminates steady green. When the mode select switch is placed to refuel. When the re-fueling control panel door is open.

Which is true of the Fadec system?. It is a dual channel unit that is self powered with the engine running. It is continuously powered from when the aircraft receives AC power. It is not available until the engine Mode Selector is set to IGN/START. It is self powered above 5% N1.

What does a red UNLK light indicate on the Landing Gear indicator panel?. Associated door is not locked/closed. LGCIU 1 and 2 failure. Associated gear leg is in transit. Associated gear leg is not locked in selected position.

Which of the following correctly describes the Cross Bleed valve operation?. In auto, it is pneumatically operated. In manual, it is electrically selected and pneumatically operated. In auto, it will open as necessary to equalise the duct pressures. In auto, it will be closed if the engine bleed valves are open.

The APU has been switched off, but it has not stopped. Why is this?. The Air Intake Flap failing to close. The APU Fuel Pump continuing to run. A cooling period, which occurs on all APU shutdowns. A cooling period (following use of APU Bleed).

If GROUND HP AIR is connected, which of the following is true?. Do not mix with Engine Bleed Air. Do not use the Packs. Do not use the Packs or mix it with Engine Bleed Air. The GROUND HP AIR can be used without restrictions.

In normal flight, what does sidestick deflection demand?. Rate of pitch change and 67° bank at full roll demand. Load factor in pitch and rate of roll in roll. A pitch attitude and a rate of roll up to 33° of bank. Load factor in pitch, proportional aileron and spoiler deflection in roll.

What does the Avail Light on the APU START switch indicate?. N speed greater than 75%. APU starter disengagement. ECB power-up check is satisfactory. APU electrical power can be used.

The term decision height (DH) is used for?. A precision approach. A conventional approach followed by a visual maneuver. An indirect approach. A conventional approach.

When calculating the length of the runway available (TODA): The clearway has to be taken into account. The stopway has to be taken into account. The distance lost in lining up the aircraft does not have to be taken into account. The runway slope has to be taken into account.

What is an emergency airport?. An airport with an availble runway length sufficient to meet the performance and where a safe landing can be made. Any airport enroute where emergency servicea are available. Any civiliant airport.

A destination alternate aerodrome must be specified for: Any IFR flight unless there is reasonable certainty that at the ETA a visual approach can be made. Any flight where a take off diversion has been planned. An IFR flight, if enroute VMC conditions are expected. Any flight for public transport over 40km.

What is dynamic pressure?. Pressure caused by movement. Centrifugal force. Turbulence. Acceleration force.

The pressure at sea level in the ISA is: 1013.25 hPa. 29,95 inHg. 1025.13 hPa. 1012.35 hPa.

When the altimeter indicated 0 (zero) ft when the aircraft was parked for the night and 1000 ft the following morning, this shows that: The barometric pressure is constant but the temperature has fallen during the night. The barometric pressure has decreased by approx. 37 hPa. The barometric pressure has increased by approx. 37 hPa. A formation of fog has most probably taken place.

How many percentage of Flexible Take Off Thrust can be reduced compare with full rated takeoff thrust?. 30%. 25%. 20%. 40%.

An upward runway slope: Increases the take off distance required. Increases the accelerated stop distance available. Decreases the accelerated stop distance available. Decreases the take off distance required.

In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1: A height of 50ft must be reached within the take off distance. The take off must be rejected if the speed is still below VLOF. The take off must be continued. The take off should be rejected if the speed is still below VRC.

High and low speed stabilities may be available in alternate law, stabilities: Will not allow the pilot to stall the aircraft. Prohibit steep bank angles. Prohibit steep climb angles. Can be overridden by the pilot, and it is possible to exceed Vmo, Mmo and stall the aircraft.

How can the brake accumulator be re-pressurized?. With the yellow electric hydraulic pump. With the blue electric hydraulic pump. None of the above. A and B.

With the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch in the on position, if the BSCU detects a brake system malfunction and/or normal braking is not available: The crew will be notified with an Ecam message only if after touchdown the brake system does actually malfunction. Transition to the alternate brake system is automatic. The crew must select alternate brakes. Both A and B are correct.

The FAC is primarily control which control surface?. Rudder. Elevator. Aileron. Elevator and aileron.

You have been cleared to intercept the localiser. You have pushed the LOC push button on the FCU. If all necessary data has been entered in the MCDU, can you now engage both autopilots?. No, the LOC must capture before both autopilots will engage. Yes. No, the Appr pushbutton must be pushed. None of the above.