microbiologia

1.Cocci can be grouped into. In chains – Streptococci. In clusters – Staphylococci. In pairs – Diplococci. In tetrads – Micrococci. All of the above.

2.Choose the correct association regarding the culture characters of streptococci. On nutrient agar – green pigment develops. On blood agar – develops hemolysis around the colony. On MacConkey agar – lactose fermentation. On chocolate agar – forms large mucoid colonies.

3.Streptococci. Have a cell diameter of about 0.5 microns. Are motile organisms. Have no cell wall. Are spore-forming bacteria.

4.Regarding the specific tests for the detection of group B streptococcus, the following statement is false. Agglutination is done with group A serum. CAMP test is used for identification. Hippurate hydrolysis is positive. Latex agglutination can detect group B antigen.

5.Which of the following statements are true about pneumococci?. They are motile and spore-forming. They are sensitive to optochin. They are resistant to bile solubility. They grow best at 25°C.

6.Bacteria of the same species that grew in the same place on a plate with solid culture medium, from a very small number of bacteria, called colony-forming units (CFU), represent: Biofilm. Spore. Colony. Microcolony cluster.

7.Colonies of staphylococci show the following characteristics, except: They are convex colonies. They are opaque. They are concave colonies. They have a creamy texture.

8.Influenza virus belongs to the family. Picornaviridae. Orthomyxoviridae. Adenoviridae. Retroviridae.

9.Which of the following is not an RNA virus?. Adenovirus. Measles virus. Influenza virus. Rabies virus.

10.Corynebacterium diphtheriae is a bacterium. Spiral shaped. Rod shaped with rounded ends. Spherical in shape. Coccus arranged in clusters.

11.Regarding Orthomyxoviridae family, circle the correct answer: Genome – linear negative ssRNA. Genome – circular dsDNA. Genome – segmented positive RNA. Genome – single stranded DNA.

Measles virus belongs to the family. Flaviviridae. Paramyxoviridae. Orthomyxoviridae. Retroviridae.

13.Choose the correct answer regarding Bordetella pertussis. The infection affects the gastrointestinal tract. The infection affects the upper respiratory tract. The infection affects the urinary tract. The infection affects the bloodstream.

14.α-haemolytic streptococci are also known as. Streptococcus pneumoniae. Streptococcus pyogenes. Streptococcus agalactiae. Enterococcus faecalis.

15.Following cocci are non-motile except. Staphylococcus. Streptococcus. Neisseria. Enterococcus. None of the above.

16.Generally HSV-1 causes infection, except. Cold sores. Gingivostomatitis. Meningitis. Keratitis.

17.Viruses that contaminate bacteria and live inside them are called. Viroids. Bacteriophages. Oncoviruses. Prions.

18. Bacillus is an example of. Gram-negative bacteria. Gram-positive bacteria. Acid-fast bacteria. Spirochetes.

19. Regarding Herpesviruses, transcription and translation occur in 3 phases: Immediate early phase. Early phase. Late phase. All of the above.

20.The correct answer regarding the genus Haemophilus is: H. influenzae requires hemin (factor X) and NAD⁺ (factor V) for growth. H. ducreyi requires only factor V. H. parainfluenzae requires only factor X. H. aegyptius grows without any growth factors.

21.What are the diseases produced by Coxsackieviruses?. Upper respiratory tract infection. Measles. Mumps. Poliomyelitis.

22.Viruses require the ______ for reproduction. Cell wall. Cell membrane. Nucleus. Ribosome.

23.The main routes of entry of neuroviruses into the CNS are, with the exception: Neural route. Olfactory route. Hematogenous spread. Fecal-oral route.

24.The correct answer regarding the genus Haemophilus is: Contains polymorphic coccobacilli, 0.5–2.5 microns. Is Gram-positive. Forms spores. Is an obligate anaerobe.

25.Is a β-hemolytic bacterium: Streptococcus pyogenes. Streptococcus pneumoniae. Streptococcus viridans. Enterococcus faecalis.

26.A chemical component that is found in all viruses is: Protein. Lipid. DNA. RNA.

27.Bacterial cell replication is usually accomplished by: Budding. Binary fission. Mitosis. Meiosis.

28.Prokaryotes can share genes through the following mechanisms: Conjugation, transformation, and transduction. Mutation, duplication, and segregation. Osmosis, diffusion, and active transport. None of these.

29.Choose the correct answer regarding Bordetella pertussis: Affects the gastrointestinal epithelium. Affects the respiratory epithelial cells. Affects skin and mucosa. Affects nervous tissue.

30.Enterotoxin responsible for food poisoning is produced by: Streptococcus pyogenes. Escherichia coli. Staphylococcus aureus. Salmonella typhi.

31.Bacteria of the same species that grew in the same place on a plate with solid culture medium, from a very small number of bacteria, called colony-forming units (CFU), represent: Spore. Colony. Biofilm. Clump.

32.The etiological agent of cholera is called: Vibrio cholerae. Escherichia coli. Salmonella paratyphi. Shigella dysenteriae.

33.The most pathogenic Brucella spp. for man is: Brucella abortus. Brucella suis. Brucella melitensis. Brucella canis.

34.H. pylori can cancel the effect of HCl with an enzyme called: Catalase. Oxidase. Urease. Coagulase.

35.Choose the correct answer regarding pulmonary cryptococcosis: Causes meningitis only. Affects only immunocompetent hosts. All of these. Causes cutaneous infection. None of these.

36. Spirochaetes exhibit: Flexibility. Motility. Helical shape. All of the above.

37.Almost all people with duodenal ulcers are positive for: Helicobacter pylori. Escherichia coli. Staphylococcus aureus. Campylobacter jejuni.

38.The true statement about cholera enterotoxin is: It consists of 2 subunits. It is an endotoxin. It inhibits adenylate cyclase. It is heat-stable.

39.The following are types of culture media, except: Selective. Differential. Enriched. Fastidious.

40.Helicobacter pylori is a: Facultative anaerobe. Obligate aerobe. Microaerophilic organism. Obligate anaerobe.

41.Which of the following media are used to differentiate the colonies of Vibrio cholerae?. Nutrient agar. Blood agar. Thiosulphate-citrate-bile-sucrose (TCBS). Chocolate agar.

42.The genus Pseudomonas includes bacilli: Gram-negative. Gram-positive. Acid-fast. Spore-forming.

43.Bacilli are: Spherical. Rod-shaped. Spiral. Oval.

44.Choose the false answer about Aspergillosis: Usually normal people are affected. It can affect immunocompromised patients. It can cause pulmonary infections. It can produce allergic reactions.

45.The substances which can be produced by strains of Pseudomonas aeruginosa are: Pyocyanin. Pyoverdine. Exotoxin A. All of these.

46.Which of the following is a form of cholera treatment?. Tetracycline. Amoxicillin. Vancomycin. Rifampicin.

47.Choose the false answer about primary syphilis: Begins as a single painful papule. Lesion appears at the site of inoculation. Lesion becomes a painless ulcer (chancre). Heals spontaneously.

48.The antibiotic of choice for treating syphilis is: Penicillin. Erythromycin. Tetracycline. Azithromycin.

49.All of the following Legionella-related features are true, except: Found in aquatic environments. Causes Legionnaires’ disease. Grows in macrophages. Person-to-person transmission.

50.Which of the following genera belongs to family Spirochaetaceae?. Treponema. Borrelia. Leptospira. All of these.

51.Choose the true answer regarding the morphology of the yeast: Yeast cells are generally larger than bacteria, some are elongated and spherical. Yeast cells are smaller than bacteria. Yeasts are filamentous. Yeasts are spore-forming rods.

52.Which of the following biochemical reactions is characteristic of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?. Catalase positive. Oxidase positive. Produces pigments. All of these.

53.Which of the following bacteria is sensitive to pyrazinamide?. Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Mycobacterium leprae. Mycobacterium bovis. Mycobacterium avium.

54.The bacteria which cause tuberculosis in man is/are: Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Mycobacterium bovis. Mycobacterium africanum. All of the above.

55.The correct statement about S. pneumoniae is: They have a lanceolate shape. They are motile. They form spores. They are acid-fast.

56.Which is the bacterium that changed the concept that no bacterium can survive at normal stomach pH?. Escherichia coli. Helicobacter pylori. Staphylococcus aureus. Vibrio cholerae.

57.Choose the true answer regarding the morphology of the species of the genus Vibrio: Comma-shaped. Spherical. Spiral. Rod-shaped with blunt ends.

58.Members of the genus Mycobacterium are: Non–acid-fast. Gram-negative. Acid-fast. Spore-forming.

59.Choose the false answer about Rickettsiaceae: They are obligate intracellular bacteria. Transmitted by arthropod vectors. Cause typhus and spotted fevers. Incubation period – 3 days.

60.Somatic "O" antigen found on species of the genus Vibrio: It is a lipopolysaccharide that confers serologic specificity. It is a protein antigen. It is a capsule polysaccharide. It is a flagellar antigen.

62.The following characteristics about staphylococci are true except: Gram-positive cocci. Occur in clusters. Catalase positive. Gram-negative cocci.

63.Choose the correct answer regarding control of cholera: Vaccination. Proper sanitation. Safe drinking water. All of these.

64.The genus Pseudomonas includes bacilli: Gram-positive. Gram-negative. Acid-fast. Spore-forming.

65.Regarding the specific tests of S. pyogenes: Catalase test is negative. Coagulase test is positive. Oxidase test is positive. Urease test is positive.

66.Choose the correct association regarding the culture characters of streptococci: On media with blood – develops hemolysis around the colony. On nutrient agar – forms yellow colonies. On MacConkey agar – lactose fermenting. On Sabouraud agar – white colonies.

67.Streptococci have a cell diameter of about: 0.5 microns. 1.5 microns. 2 microns. 0.05 microns.

68.Choose the correct answer regarding Vibrio cholerae: A positive oxidase test is a key step in preliminary identification of V. cholerae and E. coli. It is oxidase negative. It is Gram-positive. It forms spores.

69.Brucella are: Cocci. Coccobacilli. Spirilla. Filamentous rods.

70.Example of pathogenic bacteria is/are: Bacillus subtilis. Leptospira interrogans. Lactobacillus acidophilus. Micrococcus luteus.

71.Choose the correct answer for Haemophilus ducreyi: Causes pneumonia. Causes meningitis. Chancroid is a venereal disease caused by H. ducreyi. Causes otitis media.

72. Identify the wrong correspondence between the basic shape of bacteria and their name: Cocci – spherical. Rod shape – staphylococci. Spirilla – spiral. Vibrios – comma-shaped.

73.The main components of the bacterial cell are: Cytoplasmic membrane and cell wall. Capsule and flagella. Nucleus and mitochondria. Pili and ribosomes.

74.The most important virulence factors are: Enzymes. Toxins. Capsule. All of these.

75.Penicillin was discovered by: Koch. Fleming. Pasteur. Lister.

76.Helicobacter pylori are bacilli: Aerobes. Anaerobes. Microaerophiles. Facultative anaerobes.

77.Which of the following is not a form of cholera treatment?. Penicillin. Tetracycline. Rehydration therapy. Zinc supplementation.

78.Bacteria of the genus Haemophilus: They are fastidious (require special growth factors). They are non-pathogenic. Grow on MacConkey agar. Are acid-fast.

79.Almost all people with duodenal ulcers are positive for: Helicobacter pylori. Escherichia coli. Vibrio cholerae. Shigella flexneri.

80.The correct variant regarding the genus Haemophilus is: Contains immobile coccobacilli. Contains motile rods. Is spore-forming. Is Gram-positive.

81.Choose the correct answer for Haemophilus influenzae: The disease begins in the nasopharynx. Causes primarily skin infections. Causes typhoid. Affects the gastrointestinal tract.

82.Choose the incorrect answer regarding Bordetella pertussis: Withstands a maximum of 2 hours at room temperature. Affects respiratory epithelium. Causes whooping cough. Is transmitted via droplets.

83.H. pylori can counteract the effect of HCl with the help of an enzyme called: Urease. Catalase. Coagulase. Lipase.

84.Choose the false statement about primary syphilis: The lesion is painful, being covered by a crust under which there is a serosity rich in treponemes. The lesion is painless. The lesion heals spontaneously. The lesion appears at the inoculation site.

85.The somatic "O" antigen found on species of the genus Vibrio: It is a group-specific antigen. It is a flagellar antigen. It is a capsular antigen. It is a protein antigen.

86.Choose the false statement about species of the genus Borrelia: They are anaerobic or microaerophilic. They are spirochaetes. Cause relapsing fever and Lyme disease. Are transmitted by ticks or lice.

87.Choose the correct statement for the genus Treponema: Includes both pathogenic and non-pathogenic species. All are pathogenic. Are Gram-positive. Are aerobic rods.

88.Choose the false statement regarding the morphology of yeasts: Yeasts do not have a cell wall. Yeasts reproduce by budding. Yeasts are larger than bacteria. Some yeasts can form pseudohyphae.

89.Choose the false statement regarding the species of the genus Candida: Candida does not produce nosocomial fungal infections. Candida albicans can cause oral thrush. Candida can form pseudohyphae. Candida infections are frequent in immunocompromised patients.

90.Choose the false statement about species of the genus Leptospira: It also develops on the chorioallantoic membrane of the embryonated egg. They are thin, spiral-shaped bacteria. They are motile with hooked ends. They can cause Weil’s disease.

91.Which statements are correct about the culture of the genus Pseudomonas?. By cultivating in broth, growth is observed by turbidity and the appearance of a white-gray membrane on the surface, adhering to the tube walls. After incubation, a thin film appears on liquid media with pigment accumulation underneath. On simple agar, colonies of several types (S, R, M, climbing) appear depending on the strain and culture age. The various pigments secreted by P. aeruginosa (purple pyocyanin, yellow-green fluorescein) are diffusible in the medium. all of them.

92.The Rickettsiaceae family includes bacilli: Very large (2–3 µm). Very small (0.3–0.5 × 0.8 µm). Spore-forming. Gram-positive.

93.Choose the correct answer for Bordetella pertussis: Contains a surface hemagglutinin. Is Gram-positive. Is motile. Produces coagulase.

94. Choose the correct statement regarding the morphology of the genus Treponema: They are thick spiral bacteria. They are thin spiral bacteria. They are cocci. They are coccobacilli.

95.To diagnose meningitis caused by H. influenzae, the following steps are taken, except: Gram staining. Culture of CSF. Detection of antigen in CSF. Penicillin of choice is administered until the arrival of the antibiogram.

96.The following can be said about the cholera vibrio with one exception: It produces enterotoxin. It produces cholera, an invasive disease. It is comma-shaped. It is oxidase positive.

97.Which of the following is NOT a clinical manifestation of cholera?. Rice-water stools. Vomiting. Dehydration. Incubation period is 2 weeks.

98.Choose the false statement about the species of the genus Cryptococcus: From a morphological point of view, C. neoformans has a round or ovoid cell, with a diameter of 4–20 µm, not encapsulated. C. neoformans is encapsulated. It reproduces by budding. It is surrounded by a polysaccharide capsule.

99.Choose the true statement about the morphology of the species of the genus Vibrio: They are comma-shaped. They are cocci. They are spiral. They are filamentous.

100.To prevent H. influenzae infection, the following can be done, except: Vaccination with Hib conjugate vaccine. Rifampicin prophylaxis in contacts. Ceftriaxone prophylaxis in communities. Good hygiene practices.

101.To prevent H. influenzae infection, the following can be done, except: Vaccination with Hib conjugate vaccine. Rifampicin prophylaxis in contacts. Ceftriaxone prophylaxis in communities. Good hygiene practices.

102.Choose the true Helicobacter pylori variant: Transmitted by fecal–oral route. Transmitted by blood. Transmitted by vectors. Transmitted sexually.

103.The most important sources of Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection are: In humans. In soil. In animals. In insects.

104.TSI agar is commonly used to identify: Gram-negative pathogens. Gram-positive cocci. Anaerobes. Mycobacteria.

105.The following are types of culture media except: Selective. Differential. Enriched. For transportation.

106.Gram-negative bacteria are stained in: Red. Blue. Green. Purple.

107.The true statement regarding group A Streptococcus cultures is: Incubation is done at 37°C for 24 hours. Incubation is done at 25°C for 72 hours. Growth requires CO₂ enrichment. Incubation is done at room temperature.

108.The correct statement about S. pneumoniae is: It is a bacterium strictly parasitic on humans. It is found in soil. It is an obligate anaerobe. It forms spores.

109.The cocci that following cell division are grouped into chains are: Streptococci. Staphylococci. Diplococci. Tetracocci.

110. Staphylococci grown on solid culture media: Develop circular colonies with a diameter of 1–3 mm. Produce β-hemolysis only. Are motile. Grow only in anaerobic conditions.

111. The α-hemolytic streptococci are also known as: Viridans group. Group A. Group B. Group D.

112. Toxins or enzymes which are not produced by Streptococcus pyogenes: Phosphatase. Streptokinase. Hyaluronidase. Streptolysin.

113. Is a β-hemolytic bacterium: Streptococcus pyogenes. Streptococcus pneumoniae. Streptococcus viridans. Enterococcus faecalis.

114. Depending on type of hemolysis, Streptococcus pyogenes is: Beta-hemolytic. Alpha-hemolytic. Gamma-hemolytic. Non-hemolytic.

115.Gram-positive bacteria are stained in: Purple. Red. Blue. Orange.

117.Bacteria of the same species that grew in the same place on a plate with solid culture medium, from a very small number of bacteria, called colony-forming units (CFU), represent: Colony. Spore. Clump. Biofilm.

117.What staining method is used for identification and detection of microfilaria in blood: Giemsa. Gram. Ziehl–Neelsen. India ink.

118.The sporulated bacilli of the genus Clostridium have the form of: Drumstick. Club. Filament. Rod.

119. Streptococci: Have a cell diameter of about 0.5 microns. Are motile. Are spore-forming. Are Gram-negative.

120. Choose the correct association regarding the culture characteristics of streptococci: On media with blood – develops hemolysis around the colony. On nutrient agar – forms yellow colonies. On MacConkey agar – lactose fermenting. On Sabouraud agar – white colonies.

121. Pathogenic streptococci are grown on the following culture media: Blood agar. MacConkey agar. Chocolate agar. Sabouraud agar.

122.The action of alcohol–acetone during Gram staining is: Allows decolorization. Fixes the dye. Acts as mordant. Counterstains cells.

123. Which of the following substances are dyes in the Gram kit: Crystal violet. Safranin only. Carbol fuchsin. Malachite green.

124. Which one of the following is about Herpesviruses?. Icosahedral, with envelope, dsDNA. Helical, with envelope, ssRNA. Icosahedral, naked, ssRNA. Helical, naked, dsDNA.

125. The viruses that live as parasites on bacteria are: Bacteriophages. Viroids. Prions. Oncoviruses.

126. Diphtheria is caused by: Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Streptococcus pyogenes. Bacillus anthracis.

127. Virion means: a) Infectious virus particle. b) Viral genome only. c) Viral protein coat. d) Viral RNA.

128. Cell wall of Gram-negative bacteria is: Teichoic acids are absent. Contains teichoic acid. Thick peptidoglycan. Composed mainly of mycolic acids.

129. Which bacterium is most actively involved in the progression of dental decay?. Streptococcus mutans. Lactobacillus bulgaricus. Streptococcus pyogenes. Corynebacterium species.

130. The “wonder drug” of the Second World War is produced by: Fungi. Algae. Bacteria. Protozoa.

131. The motile bacterium is: S. typhi. S. aureus. Klebsiella pneumoniae. Shigella dysenteriae.

132. Enteroviruses include: Poliovirus. Coxsackievirus A and B. Echovirus. All of them.

133. Which of the following viruses are best known for latent infection?. Herpesvirus. Adenovirus. Influenza virus. Rotavirus.

134. Bacterial cell replication is usually accomplished by: Binary fission. Conjugation. Budding. Fragmentation.

135. Prokaryotes can share genes through the following mechanisms: Conjugation, transformation, and transduction. Mutation and segregation. Osmosis and diffusion. Recombination only.

136. Which of the following is the genome of poliovirus?. ssRNA. dsRNA. dsDNA. ssDNA.

137.Chemical component that is found in all viruses is: Protein. Lipid. DNA and RNA. Carbohydrate.

138. Following cocci are non-motile except: Gonococcus (Neisseria gonorrhoeae). Staphylococcus. Streptococcus. Enterococcus. None of the above.

139. Is a β-hemolytic bacterium: Streptococcus pyogenes. Streptococcus pneumoniae. Streptococcus viridans. Enterococcus faecalis.

140. A virus consists of: RNA or DNA and a protein coat. RNA only. DNA only. Lipid only.

141.Bacterial capsule contains: Polysaccharide. Protein. Lipid. Peptidoglycan.

142.A structural component that is found in all viruses is: Capsid. Envelope. Lipid. Tail fibers.

143. Viruses require this for reproduction: A host cell. A mate. A nutrient medium. An enzyme.

144. The main components of the bacterial cell are: Nucleus, cytoplasm, cell wall, cytoplasmic membrane. Nucleus and mitochondria. Ribosomes and vacuoles. Capsule and flagella.

145. Toxins or enzymes which are not produced by Streptococcus pyogenes: Streptokinase. Hyaluronidase. Phosphatase. All of these.

146. Regarding Herpesviruses, transcription and translation occur in 3 phases: Immediate early. Early. Late. All of the above.

147. Enteroviruses include: Poliovirus (types 1, 2, 3). Coxsackieviruses (A & B). Echoviruses. All of the above.

148. Enterotoxin responsible for food poisoning is produced by: Staphylococcus aureus. Escherichia coli. Salmonella typhi. Shigella dysenteriae.

149. Enteric Cytopathic Human Orphan (ECHO) viruses produce: Fever, skin rash, diarrhea. Pneumonia. Meningitis only. Otitis media.

150. A chemical component that is found in all viruses is: Protein. Lipid. DNA. RNA.

151. Viruses that contaminate bacteria and live inside them are called: Bacteriophages. Viroids. Mycoplasmas. Retroviruses.

152. Choose the false answer regarding Pertussis toxin (PT): It cannot be toxoided. It is composed of multiple subunits. It affects G-proteins. It increases cAMP.

153. The stages of phagocytosis include all of the following except: Adherence (may be multicatenary). Ingestion. Digestion. Exocytosis.

154. The viral genome: Is composed of a single type of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA. Contains both DNA and RNA. Is always circular. Is always segmented.

155. The essential structures for the survival of a bacterial cell are: Cytoplasmic membrane and cell wall. Capsule and pili. Flagella and spores. Nucleus and mitochondria.

156. Protective sites include all of the following except: Soft palate. Skin. Mucous membranes. Saliva.

157. The viral genome: Is composed of a single type of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA. Has both nucleic acids. Always linear. Always circular.

158. What is the name of the short formations (2–3 micrometers) on the cell surface involved in locomotion?. Cilia. Flagella. Pili. Spikes.

159. The viral capsid: Icosahedral symmetry with a spherical appearance is characteristic of DNA viruses. Always helical. Present only in RNA viruses. Absent in enveloped viruses.

160. In which example is the binomial nomenclature system used correctly?. Escherichia coli. E. Coli. escherichia Coli. ESCHERICHIA COLI.

161. The elimination of microorganisms is facilitated by the following except: Continuous desquamation of the endothelial epithelium. Ciliary movement. Lysozyme in secretions. Peristalsis.

162. The role of the capsule is: To provide motility. To act as a virulence factor, allowing the pathogen to evade phagocytes. To produce toxins. To form spores.

163. Which bacterial aggregates depend on vitamin K?. Fusobacterium spp. Porphyromonas sp., Prevotella spp. Streptococcus spp. Staphylococcus spp.

164. Staphylococcus aureus is: Coagulase-negative. Coagulase-positive. Catalase-negative. Oxidase-negative.

165. Bacteriological diagnostic schemes analyze every bacterial metabolic process except: Enzyme activity. Substrate utilization. Energy used for metabolic processes. Product formation.

166. A short incubation period in food poisoning caused by preformed toxins in food is characteristic of infection with: Salmonella typhi. Shigella dysenteriae. Staphylococcus aureus. Escherichia coli.

167. Bacterial spores: Are always terminal. Can be central, terminal, or subterminal. Are non-resistant structures. Are found in cocci.

168. Which viral infection evolves at some point as keratoconjunctivitis?. HSV-1 infection. Adenovirus. Cytomegalovirus. Epstein–Barr virus.

169. Culture media can be sterilized by: Autoclaving. Freezing. Boiling. Refrigeration.

170. Pericoronitis: Is inflammation of the gingival operculum covering the wisdom tooth. Is inflammation of the pulp. Is inflammation of the tongue. Is inflammation of the palate.

171. Conjugation is: The transfer of genetic material from a donor bacterium to a recipient bacterium. Binary fission. Transformation. Recombination in eukaryotes.

171. The etiological agent of diphtheria belongs to the genus: Corynebacterium. Clostridium. Bacillus. Listeria.

173. The periodontal pocket: Results from the pathological deepening of the gingival sulcus beyond 3 mm. Is normal anatomy. Is due to caries only. Is a sign of viral infection.

174. Beta-hemolytic bacteria include: Streptococcus pyogenes. Streptococcus pneumoniae. Streptococcus viridans. Enterococcus faecalis.

175. Choose the incorrect answer: The essential structures of bacteria are external structures. The cytoplasmic membrane is essential. The cell wall provides shape. Ribosomes are present.

176. Bacterial locomotion occurs via: Flagella. Pili. Fimbriae. Cilia.

177. Extracellular enzymes include all of the following except: Phosphatase. Hyaluronidase. Collagenase. Coagulase.

178. Non-specific defense mechanisms include all of the following: Physical barriers. Chemical factors. Only A and B are correct (Physical+chemical). Specific antibodies.

179. Hepatitis A virus: Has an envelope. Does not have an envelope. Is a DNA virus. Belongs to Retroviridae.

180. The immunological specificity of Neisseria meningitidis serogroups is based on: Flagellar antigens. Capsular polysaccharides. Cell wall proteins. Pili.

181.Staphylococcus aureus: Produces coagulase. Produces enterotoxin. Both A and B are correct. Neither A nor B.

182. Pulpal gangrene and apical periodontitis: Occur through the periodontal pocket reaching the apex. Occur via the bloodstream. Occur only from trauma. Are viral.

183. Streptococcus pyogenes can cause: Scarlet fever. Rheumatic fever. Pharyngitis. All of the above.

184. Beta-hemolysis: Is a clear hemolysis zone with complete destruction of red blood cells. Is partial hemolysis. Is greenish discoloration. Is no hemolysis.

185. The function of the cell wall is to: Provide rigidity to the cell. Store nutrients. Control osmotic pressure. Aid motility.

186. The difference between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria is observed at the level of: The cell wall. The nucleus. The cytoplasm. The ribosomes.

187. Bacterial multiplication generally occurs through: Binary fission. Mitosis. Budding. Meiosis.

188. In prokaryotic cells, DNA is found in the form of: Circular. Linear. Fragmented. Plasmid only.

189. Penicillin was extracted from: Fungi. Algae. Bacteria. Protozoa.

190. Which of the following microorganisms are Gram-positive bacteria?. Streptococcus. Neisseria. Pseudomonas. Escherichia coli.

191. HIV virus: Composed of a nucleotide, cylindrical structure, and envelope. Lacks an envelope. Has circular DNA. Is double-stranded DNA virus.

192. A motile microorganism is: Staphylococcus. Streptococcus. Neisseria. None of the above.

193. Factors determining bacterial multiplication: Temperature. pH. Nutrient availability. All of the above.

194. Choose the incorrect statement regarding Haemophilus influenzae: Is frequently involved in tuberculosis exacerbations. Requires factor X and V for growth. Is Gram-negative. Causes meningitis.

195. Viral replication involves the following stages: Adsorption of the virus onto the host cell. Enzyme inhibition. Sporulation. Binary fission.

196. Bacteria of the genus Haemophilus: Are fastidious. Are motile. Are Gram-positive. Form spores.

197. Choose the incorrect answer regarding Haemophilus ducreyi: Pertussis toxin is the major virulence factor. Causes chancroid. Is transmitted sexually. Requires factor X for growth.

198. For preventing Haemophilus influenzae infections, the following measures can be taken, except: Hygiene. Vaccination. Antibiotic prophylaxis. Avoid overcrowding.

199. To diagnose meningitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae, the following steps are taken, except: Culture of CSF. Antigen detection. Perform inoculation at the patient’s bedside. Gram staining.

200. The toxin not released by Bordetella pertussis is: Erythrotoxin. Pertussis toxin. Tracheal cytotoxin. Dermonecrotic toxin.

201.Regarding the cultural characteristics of Bordetella pertussis, we can say: Colonies are of type S. Colonies are of type R. Colonies are motile. Colonies are large and irregular.

202. Choose the incorrect statement regarding Haemophilus influenzae: It is the etiological agent of soft chancre. Causes meningitis. Requires factors X and V. Is Gram-negative.

203. Gingivitis (acute or chronic) is: Initiated by local irritation followed by microbial invasion. Always viral. Caused only by trauma. A systemic disease.

204. Endotoxins are: Relatively stable. Heat-labile. Excreted enzymes. Found in Gram-positive bacteria.

205. The etiology of dysenteric syndrome involves: Shigella spp. Salmonella spp. Vibrio cholerae. Escherichia coli.

206. Following cocci are non-motile except: Staphylococcus. Streptococcus. Neisseria. Enterococcus. None of the above.

207. What is the main genetic characteristic of the herpesvirus family?. Large linear DNA genome. Segmented RNA genome. Circular DNA genome. ssRNA.

208. What are the diseases produced by Coxsackieviruses?. Herpangina. Myocarditis. Hand, foot, and mouth disease. All of the above.

209. Which of the following is the local symptom of mumps?. Swelling of salivary glands. Rash. Conjunctivitis. Diarrhea.

210. The flaviviruses include the following viruses with one exception: Dengue virus. Yellow fever virus. Zika virus. Haemorrhagic fever virus.

211. Which of the following viruses infects the gastrointestinal tract?. Norwalk virus. Rabies virus. Influenza virus. Mumps virus.

212. The main components of bacterial cells are: Nucleus, cytoplasm, cytoplasmic membrane, and cell wall. Mitochondria. Nucleus and capsule. Nucleus and chloroplast.

213. Which of the following is not an RNA virus?. Adenovirus. Poliovirus. Influenza virus. Measles virus.

214. Measles virus family: Paramyxoviridae. Orthomyxoviridae. Flaviviridae. Herpesviridae.

215. Neisseria: Gram-negative arranged in pairs. Gram-positive arranged in clusters. Gram-negative in chains. Gram-positive diplococci.

216. Enterovirus include: poliovirus (1.2&3 types). Coxasackieviruses. Enteroviruses. All of them.

217. Which of the following viruses are best known for latent infection ?. Herpesvirus. Poliovirus. HIV. Rhinovirus.

218. Bacterial cell replication is usually accomplished by: cross infection. loss of the cell nucleus. loss of celll membrane. Binary-fission.

219. Prokaryotes can share genes through the folowing mechanisms: conjugation, transformation, and transduction. transformation, and transduction. binary fission. None of these.

220. Which of the following is the genome of poliovirus?. dsRNA. dsRNA. ssDNA. ssRNA.

221. A chemical component that is found in all viruses is: protein. Lipid. DNA. RNA. Glycoproteins.

222.Following cocci era non-motile except: Staphylococcus. meningococcus. gonococcus. None of these.

223.Is a B-hemolytic bacterium: Streptococcus pyogenes. Str. pneumoniae. Str. viridans. Str. faecalis.

224. Viruses that can remain latent for many years are most likely: Togaviruses. Herpesviruses. Enteroviruses. Rhinoviruses.

225.A virus consist of: RNA or DNA and a cell membrane. RNA or DNA and a protein coat. RNA and DNA and a protein coat. Proteins, cell mebrane and RNA.

226. Enterotoxin responsible for food poisoning is produced by: Enterococcus spp. Entamoeba histolytica. Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Staphylococcus.

227. The correct answer regarding to genus Haemophilus is: Contains polymorphic cocobacilli, 0.5-2.5 microns. Contains immobile cocci. H.influenzae requires hemin (factor X) and NAD+ (factor V) for growth. Contains Gram-positive cocci. Contains strictly aerobic bacteria.

228.The main routes of entry of neuroviruses into the CNS are, with the exception: Hematogenous route. Neural route. Fecal-Oral route.

229.What is the main genetic characteristic of the herpes virus family?. Large linear DNA genome. Small ssDNA genome. Segmented DNA genome. Circular dsDNA genome.

230.Bacterial locomotion is accomplished by: capsules. flagella. cytoskeleton. all of these.

231. Bacterial capsule contains: Lipopolysaccharide. Peptidoglycan. Polysaccharide. Phospholipid.

232.A structural component that is found in all viruses is: The envelope. DNA. Capsid. Tail fibers. Spikes.

233.Viruses require this for reproduction. Tail fibers. A mate. Cell membrans. Host cell.

234.The main components of the bacterial cell are: nucleus, cytoplasm, cell wall cytoplasmic membrane. a classic membrane and nucleus. a lipid membrane and cell wall. Cytoplasmic mebrane and cell.

235. What are the diseases produced by Coxsackieviruses?. Upper respiratory tract infection. Hand, foot, and mouth disease. Myocarditis. All of these.

236. Bacillus is an example of. Gram positive bacteria. Gram negative bacteria. Virus. Viroid.

237.Toxins or enzymes which are not produced by Streptococcus pyrogens. hyaluronides. phosphatase. streptokinase. all of these.

238.Regarding of Herpesviruses transcription and translation occur in 3 phases: Immediate early. early. late. all of the above.

239. Enterovirus include: Poliovirus (1, 283 types). Coxsackieviruses (A&B). all of these.

240.Regarding of Herpesviruses transcription and translation occur in 3 phases: Immediate early. early. late. all of the above.

241 .What is the main genetic characteristic of the herpes virus family?. Large linear DNA genome. Small ssDNA genome. Segmented DNA genome. circular dsDNA genome.

242 .Viruses that can remain latent for many years are most likely: Togaviruses. Herpesviruses. Enteroviruses. Rhinoviruses. Retroviruses.

243. Choose the correct answer regarding Bordetella pertussis: They are Gram-positive cocci arranged in clusters. Outside the body, B. pertussis survives for long periods. It infects the host by colonizing the respiratory epithelial cells. It produces β-hemolysis on blood agar.

244. Enterotoxin responsible for food poisoning si produced by: Enterococcus spp. Entamoeba histolytica. Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Staphylococcus aureus.

245. Enteric Cytopathic Human Orphan produced : URT infection. Fever, skin rash, diarrhea.

246. A structural component that is found in all viruses is: The envelope. DNA. Capsid. Tail fibers.

247. A chemical component that is found in all viruses is: Protein. Lipid. DNA.

248. Generally HSV-1 causes infection, except: Acute gingivostomatitis. Meningitis. Recurrent herpes labialis. iunctivitis.

249. Viruses that contaminate bacteria and live inside them are called: Fungi. Bacteriophages. Commensals. None of these.

250. 0 prevent H. influenzae infection, the following methods can be done, except: Hygiene. Vaccinate. Ceftriaxone prophylaxis in communities. Overcrowding is avoided.

251. Choose false answer regarding to Pertussis toxin (PT). It can not be toxoided. TP has a role ni the pathogenesis of whooping cough. TP si expressed on the surface of the bacillus and secreted into the surrounding medium. TP produces profound lymphocytosis, a increased sensitivity istamine, splenomegaly, cell ntion, hypoglycemia, and..

252. Choose the correct answer regarding to Bordetella pertussis: They are Gram-negative shells arranged in pairs. Outside the body, B pertussis has a particularly high resistance. The infection affects the upper respiratory tract. Affects the digestive tract. It infects the host by colonizing the respiratory Epitelial cells.

253. Alpha-haemolitic strptococci are also knownas: streptococcus pyogenes. virulence group. viridans group.

254. Following cocci are non-motile except: Staphylococcus. meningococcus. Gonococcus. none of these.

255. Which one of the following is about Herpes viruses: Icosahedral, with envelope, ds DNA. Polyhedral with envelope, ds DNA. RNA, helical with envelope. ds DNA, brick shape.

256. The viruses that live as parasites on bacteria are: Fungi. Commensals. Bacteriophages. None of these.

257. Diphtheria is caused by: Corynebacterium. Staphylococcus. Streptococcus. None of these.

258. Bacillus is an example of: Gram-positive bacteria. Gram-negative bacteria. Virus. Viroid.

259. Virion means: Infectious virus particles. Non-infectious particles. Incomplete particles. Defective virus particles.

260. Following cocci are non-motile except: Staphylococcus. Meningococcus. Gonococcus. Rhodococcus agilis.

261. Cell wall of Gram-negative bacteria is: Thick. Lipids are present. Teichoic acids are absent. None of these.

262. Which bacteria is more actively involved in the progression of a decay?. Streptococcus mutans. Viridans streptococci. Lactobacilli. Actinomyces.

263. The wonder drug of the Second World War is produced by: Algae. Fungi. Bacteria. Plants.

264. The motile bacterium is: S. typhi. K. pneumoniae. B. anthracis. Shigella.

265. TSI Agar is commonly used to identify: Gram negative pathogens. Bacillus cereus. Streptococcus and Staphylococcus. None of these. All of these.

266. Pneumococci: They are Gram positive cocci. They have an oval shape. They are not optochin resistant. They are Gram negative cocci. They are resistant to bile salts.

267. The following are types of culture media except: Differential. Fastidious. For transportation. Enrichment media.

268. Gram negative bacteria are stained in: Red. Purple. Both. None of these.

269. Bacilli are: Spherical. Spirals. Coffee bean-shaped. Rod-shaped. Comma-shaped.

270. The true statement regarding group A streptococcus cultures is: Form R-type colonies. The medium of choice is chocolate agar. Incubation is done at 37°C for 24 hours. They are glossy, concave cultures. They have irregular edges.

271.The correct statement about S. pneumoniae is: It is a bacterium strictly parasitic on humans. They are Gram negative cocci. They have a lanceolate shape. They are arranged in clusters. They are unencapsulated.

272.The cocci that following cell division are grouped into chains are: Gonococci. Meningococci. Staphylococci. Streptococci.

273. Colonies of staphylococci show the following characteristics, except: They are opaque colonies. They are S-shape colonies. They are concave colonies. They are pigmented. They have a diameter of 1–3 mm.

274. Staphylococci grown on solid culture media: Uniformly disturb these media. Grow as large unpigmented colonies. Develop colonies R. Develop circular colonies with a diameter of 1–3 mm. Develop circular colonies with a diameter of 1–3 µm.

275. The α-hemolytic streptococci are also known as: Streptococcus pyogenes. Virulence group. Viridans group. None of these.

276. The following cocci are non-motile except: Staphylococcus. Meningococcus. Gonococcus. None of these.

277. Bacillus is an example of: Gram positive bacteria. Gram negative bacteria. Virus. Viroid.

278. Toxins or enzymes which are not produced by Streptococcus pyogenes: Hyaluronidase. Phosphatase. Streptokinase. All of these.

279. Is a β-hemolytic bacterium: Streptococcus pyogenes. Streptococcus pneumoniae. Streptococcus viridans. Streptococcus faecalis.

280. Depending on the type of hemolysis, Streptococcus pyogenes is: Alpha hemolytic. Beta hemolytic. Gamma hemolytic. Nonhemolytic streptococcus. Producer of viridans hemolysis.

281. Gram positive bacteria are stained in: Red. Purple. Both. None of these.

282. Bacteria of the same species that grew in the same place on a plate with solid culture medium, from a very small number of bacteria, called colony-forming units (CFU) represent: The bacterial strain. Colony. Clone. Serotype. The biotype.

283. What staining method is used for identification and detection of microfilaria in blood: Gram stain. Giemsa. India ink.

284. The following characteristics about staphylococci are true except: Nonsporulate. Gram positive cocci. Gram negative cocci. Unencapsulated. Group in clusters.

285. The sporulated bacilli of the genus Clostridium have the form of: Round. Coffee bean. Drumstick. Comma. Chinese characters.

286. Regarding the specific tests for the detection of group B streptococcus, the following statement is false: Streptococcus agalactiae is resistant to both bacitracin and biseptol. Produces Hippurate hydrolysis CAMP-test-positive. Serological identification is done by latex agglutination with specific kits. Agglutination is done with group A serum. Hydrolysis of Hippurate CAMP-test-positive involves the production of a protein (CAMP factor), which interacts with Staphylococcal alpha hemolysin and causes complete hemolysis.

287. Regarding the specific tests of S. pyogenes: The catalase test is negative. The oxidase test is positive. The catalase test is positive. The bacitracin test is negative. Biseptol test is positive.

288. Streptococci: Belong to the Micrococcaceae family. They are Gram negative cocci. They are arranged in clusters. They can be rod-shaped or oval. They have a cell diameter of about 0.5 microns.

289. Choose the correct association regarding the culture characteristics of streptococci: On liquid media – develops very small, circular, convex, translucent colonies. On media with blood – develops hemolysis around the colony. On solid media – it develops grunts that settle at the bottom of the tube. On media with blood – the capsulated strains cause a homogeneous turbidity of the medium. On solid medium – develops hemolysis.

290. Pathogenic streptococci are grown on the following culture media: Agar. Blood agar. Löffler medium. Bordet-Gengou medium. The AABTL medium.

291. Depending on the type of hemolysis Streptococcus pyogenes is: Alpha hemolytic. Beta hemolytic. Gamma hemolytic. Nonhemolytic streptococcus. Producer of viridans hemolysis.

292. Cocci can be grouped into: In clusters – streptobacilli. In diplo – vibrios. In a chain – staphylococcus. In spirals – coccobacilli. In clusters – staphylococci.

293. The cocci that, following cell division, are grouped into clusters are: Staphylococci. Pneumococci. Streptococci. Meningococci. Gonococci.

294. The action of alcohol-acetone during Gram staining is: All of the below. Add color. Allows decolorization. None of these.

295. Which of the following substances are dyes in the Gram Kit: All of these. Brilliant green. Methylene blue. Crystal violet.

296. Cocci can be grouped into. in clusters - streptobacilli. In diplo - vibrios. In the chain - staphylococci. In cluster - staphylococci. In spirals - coccobacilli.

297. Pneumococci. it is identified by the coagglutination reaction. Does not produce frank lobar pneumonia. They are sensitive to optochin. The Eleck in vitro test is used for diagnosis. The immunological diagnosis is made by the ASLO reaction.

298.The action of alcohol-acetone during Gram staining is. all of the below. add color. allows decolorization. none of these.

299. Choose the correct association regarding the culture characters of streptococci. On liquid media - develop very small, circular, convex, translucent colonies. On media with blood - develops hemolysis around the colony. On solid media - it develops grunts that settle at the bottom of the tube. On media with blood - the capsulated strains cause a homogeneous turbidity of the medium. On solid media - develops hemolysis.

300.Streptococci. They belong to the Micrococcaceae family. They are Gram negative cocci. They are arranged in clusters. They can be rod-shaped or oval. They have a cell diameter of about 0.5 microns.

301. Regarding the specific tests for the detection of group B streptococcus, the following statement is false. Streptococcus agalactiae is resistant to both bacitracin and biseptol. Produces hippurate hydrolysis CAMP-test - positive. Serological identification is done by latex agglutination with specific kits. Agglutination is done with group A serum. Hydrolysis of hippurate CAMP-test - positive involves the production of a protein (CAMP factor), which interacts with staphylococcal alpha hemolysin and causes complete hemolysis.

302. Regarding the specific tests of S. pyogenes. The catalase test is negative. The oxidase test is positive. The catalase test is positive. The bacitracin test is negative. The biseptol test is positive.

303.The cocci that, following cell division, are grouped into clusters are. Staphylococci. Pneumococci. Streptococci. Meningococci. Gonococci.

304.The true statement regarding Group A streptococcus culture. Form R-type colonies. The medium of choice is agar chocolate. Incubation is done at 37°C for 24 hours. They are glossy, concave cultures. They have irregular edges.

305.Depending on the type of hemolysis Streptococcus pyogenes is. Alpha hemolytic. Beta hemolytic. Gamma hemolytic. Nonhemolytic streptococcus. Producer of viridans hemolysis.

306.Which of the following statements are true about pneumococci. It is identified by the coagglutination reaction. Does not produce frank lobar pneumonia. They are sensitive to optochin.

307.The sporulated bacilli of the genus Clostridium have the form of. round. "coffee bean". drumstick. comma. "Chinese characters".

308.Bacilli are. Spherical. Spirals. Coffee bean shaped. Rod-shaped. Comma shaped.

309.Pathogenic streptococci are grown on the following culture media agar. Blood agar. Toffler medium. Bordet-Gengou medium. The AABTL medium.

310. Bacteria of the same species that grew in the same place on a plate with solid culture medium, from a very small number of bacteria, called colony-forming units (CFU), represent. The bacterial strain. Colony. Clone. Serotype. The biotype.

311. Gram positive bacteria are stained in. red. purple. both. none of these.

312.Colonies of staphylococci show the following characteristics, except. They are opaque colonies. They are S-type colonies. They are concave colonies. They are pigmented. They have a diameter of 1–3 mm.

313.The following characteristics about staphylococci are true except. Nonsporulate. Gram positive cocci. Gram negative cocci. Unencapsulated. Group “in clusters”.

314.The cocci that, following cell division, are grouped into chains are. Gonococci. Meningococci. Staphylococci. Streptococci.

315.Influenza virus belongs to the family. Papoviridae. Orthomyxoviridae. Parvoviridae. Retroviridae.

316.Which of the following is not an RNA virus. Retrovirus. Enteravirus. Rhabdovirus. Adenovirus. Rubellavirus.

317.Which of the following is the local symptom of mumps. Swelling of pancreatic glands. Swelling of salivary glands. Swelling of testes. Swelling of adrenal glands.

318. Which of the following viruses are best known for latent infections. Herpesvirus. Poliovirus. HIV. Rhinovirus.

319. Corynebacterium diphtheriae is a bacterium. Rod-shaped with straight ends. Rod-shaped with rounded ends. With pleomorphic shape. Grouped in clusters shaped like a rod with a rocked appearance.

320.The flaviviruses include the following viruses with one exception. Yellow fever. West Nile. Zika. Hepatitis D (not a flavivirus).

321.Which of the following viruses infects the gastrointestinal tract. Rubella virus. Norwalk virus. Mumps virus.

322.Regarding Orthomyxoviridae family, circle the correct answer. Genome - linear negative ssRNA. Genome - dsDNA. Genome - dsRNA. Unenveloped.

323.Which family does the Measles virus belong to. Flaviviridae. Bunyaviridae. Filoviridae. Paramyxoviridae.

324.What is the main characteristic of the herpes virus family. Large linear DNA genome. Small circular DNA genome. Segmented RNA genome. Single-stranded RNA genome. Enveloped virus with linear DNA genome.

325. Choose the false answer regarding Pertussis toxin (PT. It cannot be toxoided. PT has a role in the pathogenesis of whooping cough. PT is expressed on the surface of the bacillus and secreted into the surrounding medium. PT produces profound lymphocytosis, an increased sensitivity.

326.Choose the correct answer regarding Bordetella pertussis. They are Gram-negative shells arranged in pairs. Outside the body, B. pertussis has a particularly high resistance. The infection affects the upper respiratory tract. Affects the digestive tract. It infects the host by colonizing the respiratory epithelium.

327.α-haemolytic streptococci are also known as. Streptococcus pyogenes. Viridans group.

328. Following cocci are non-motile except. Staphylococcus. Meningococcus. Gonococcus. None of these.

329. Generally HSV-1 causes infection, except. Acute gingivostomatitis. Meningitis. Recurrent herpes labialis. Conjunctivitis.

330. Viruses that contaminate bacteria and live inside them are called. Fungi. Commensals. Bacteriophages. None of these.

331.To prevent H. influenzae infection, the following methods can be done, except. Hygiene. Vaccination. Ceftriaxone prophylaxis in communities. Overcrowding is avoided. Vaccine is administered.

332.Enterotoxin responsible for food poisoning is produced by. Enterococcus spp. Entamoeba histolytica. Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Staphylococcus.

333.What is the main genetic characteristic of the herpes virus family. Large linear DNA genome. Small ssDNA genome. Segmented DNA genome. dsRNA genome.

334.Viruses that can remain latent for many years are most likely. Togaviruses. Herpesviruses. Enteroviruses. Rhinoviruses.

335. Bacillus is an example of. Gram positive bacteria. Gram negative bacteria. Virus. Viroid.

336.Toxins or enzymes which are not produced by Streptococcus pyogenes. Hyaluronidase. Phosphatase. Streptokinase. All of these.

337.Regarding Herpesviruses, transcription and translation occur in 3 phases. Immediate early. Early. Late. All of the above.

338.Enterotoxin responsible for food poisoning is produced by. Enterococcus spp. Entamoeba histolytica. Staphylococcus.

339. The correct answer regarding genus Haemophilus is. Contains polymorphic coccobacilli. Contains immobile cocci. H. influenzae requires hemin (factor X) and NAD+ (factor V) for growth.

340. What are the diseases produced by Coxsackieviruses. Upper respiratory tract infection. Viral hepatitis. Measles-like exanthema. Severe pneumonia. Acute gastroenteritis.

341. Enteric Cytopathic Human Orphan (ECHO) viruses produce. Fever, skin rash, diarrhea. Paralysis of lower limbs. Severe dehydration due to vomiting. Hemorrhagic fever with renal failure.

342. A structural component that is found in all viruses is. The envelope. DNA. Capsid. Tail fibers. Spikes.

343.Viruses require the __________ for reproduction. Tail fibers. A mate. Cell membrane (host cell).

344.The main routes of entry of neuroviruses into the CNS are, with the exception. Hematogenous route. Neural route. Fecal-oral route.

345.Enterotoxin responsible for food poisoning is produced by. Enterococcus. Entamoeba histolytica. Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Staphylococcus.

346.The correct answer regarding the genus Haemophilus is. Contains polymorphic coccobacilli, 0.5–2.5 microns ad H. influenzae requires hemin (factor X) and NAD+ (factor V) for growth. Contains immobile cocci. Contains strictly aerobic bacteria. Contains Gram positive cocci.

347.Following cocci are non-motile except. Staphylococcus. Meningococcus. Gonococcus. None of these.

348. Is a β-hemolytic bacterium. Streptococcus pyogenes. Streptococcus pneumoniae. Streptococcus viridans. Streptococcus faecalis.

349. Which of the following is the genome of poliovirus. dsRNA. dsDNA. ssDNA. ssRNA.

350.A chemical component that is found in all viruses is. Protein. Lipid. DNA. RNA. Glycoproteins.

351. Enteroviruses include: Poliovirus. Coxsackieviruses (A & B). Echoviruses. All of the above.

352. Which of the following viruses are best known for latent infections. Herpesvirus. Poliovirus. HIV. Rhinovirus.

353. Bacterial cell replication is usually accomplished by. Cross infection. Loss of the cell nucleus. Loss of cell membrane. Binary fission.

354. The following are types of culture media, except: Differential. Fastidious (not a media type). For transportation. Enrichment media.

355. Staphylococci grown on some culture media. Uniformly disturb the medium. Grow as large unpigmented colonies. Develop colonies R. Develop circular colonies with a diameter of 1–3 mm.

356. The correct statement about S. pneumoniae is: It is a bacterium strictly parasitic on humans. They are Gram negative cocci. They have a lanceolate shape. They are arranged in clusters. They are unencapsulated.

357. TS agar is commonly used to identify: Gram negative pathogens. Bacillus cereus. Streptococcus, Staphylococcus. None of these. All of these.

358. A virus consists of: RNA or DNA and a cell membrane. RNA or DNA and a protein coat. RNA and DNA and a protein coat. Proteins, cell membrane, and RNA.

359. Which of the following organs depend on inflammation (examples of inflammatory tropism). Heart. Liver. Lungs. Brain.

360. Regarding Orthomyxoviridae family, choose the correct answer: Genome – negative-sense single-stranded RNA (ssRNA). Genome – positive ssRNA. Genome – double-stranded RNA. Genome – circular DNA.

361. Choose the correct answer regarding Bordetella pertussis. They are Gram-negative cells arranged in pairs. Outside the body, B. pertussis has high resistance. The infection affects the upper respiratory tract. Affects the digestive tract. Affects the respiratory epithelial cells. The infection affects the upper respiratory tract AND Affects the respiratory epithelial cells.

362. Enterotoxin responsible for food poisoning is produced by: Enterococcus. Entamoeba histolytica. Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Staphylococcus aureus.

363. Regarding the specific tests for the detection of group B streptococcus, the following statement is false: Streptococcus agalactiae is resistant to both bacitracin and biseptol. Produces hippurate hydrolysis CAMP-test – positive. Serological identification with latex agglutination kits. Agglutination is done with group A serum. Hydrolysis of hippurate CAMP-test – positive involves the production of a CAMP factor interacting with staphylococcal alpha-hemolysin causing complete hemolysis.

364. Bacteria of the same species that grew in the same place on a plate with solid culture medium, from a very small number of bacteria, called colony-forming units (CFU) represent: The bacterial strain. Colony. Clone. Serotype. Biotype.

365. Pathogenic streptococci are grown on the following culture media: Nutrient agar. Blood agar. MacConkey agar. Sabouraud agar. Mannitol salt agar.

366. The etiological agent of cholera is called: Escherichia coli. Vibrio cholerae. Salmonella typhi. Shigella flexneri. Campylobacter jejuni.

367. The most pathogenic Brucella spp for man is: B. melitensis. B. abortus. B. suis. B. canis. B. neotomae.

368. Choose the correct answer regarding Bordetella pertussis: Contains a surface filamentous hemagglutinin. Produces cholera toxin. Is a Gram-positive coccus. Colonizes the gastrointestinal tract. Resistant to bile salts.

369. H. pylori can cancel the effect of HCl with an enzyme called: Catalase. Urease inhibitor. Urease. Lipase. Amylase.

370.Choose the correct answer regarding pulmonary cryptococcosis: Only affects immunocompromised. Only affects lungs. Only affects CNS. Only affects skin. All of these.

371.Spirochaetes exhibit: Motility. Helical shape. Gram-negative staining. All of the above. None of the above.

372. Almost all people with duodenal ulcers are positive for: Helicobacter pylori. Escherichia coli. Streptococcus pyogenes. Vibrio cholerae. Staphylococcus aureus.

373. The true statement about cholera enterotoxin is: It is monomeric. It consists of 2 subunits. It is a DNA toxin. It is inactive in the gut. It is a Gram-positive toxin.

374. Choose false answer regarding Pertussis toxin (PT): It cannot be toxoided. It is an exotoxin. It disrupts host cell signaling. It is secreted by Bordetella pertussis. It contributes to lymphocytosis.

375. Choose the correct answer regarding Bordetella pertussis: It colonizes the gastrointestinal tract. It is Gram-positive. The infection affects the upper respiratory tract. It produces cholera toxin. It is a spore-forming bacterium.

376. Choose the correct answer regarding Bordetella pertussis: Only infects immunocompromised. Causes food poisoning. The infection affects the upper respiratory tract. Colonizes the skin. Resistant to antibiotics.

377. The following are types of culture media, except: Differential. Fastidious. Enrichment. Selective. Transport.

378. Helicobacter pylori is: Anaerobic. Aerobic. Microaerophilic. Facultative anaerobic. Obligate intracellular.

379. Which of the following media are used to differentiate the colonies of Vibrio cholerae: MacConkey agar. Thiosulphate-citrate-bile-sucrose (TCBS). Blood agar. Chocolate agar. Mannitol salt agar.

380. Choose the correct answer regarding the control of Cholera: Isolation only. Vaccination only. Antibiotic therapy only. Proper sanitation only. All of these.

381.The genus Pseudomonas includes bacilli: Gram-negative. Gram-positive. Acid-fast. Spore-forming. Gram-variable.

382. The sporulated bacilli of the genus Clostridium have the form of: Spherical. Coffee bean. Drumstick. Comma. Rod.

383. Bacilli are: Spherical. Spirals. Comma-shaped. Rod-shaped. Irregular.

385. The substance(s) which can be produced by strains of Pseudomonas aeruginosa are: Pyocyanin. Fluorescein. Exotoxin A. All of these. None of these.

386. Which of the following is a form of cholera treatment?. Penicillin. Tetracycline. Cephalosporin. Amphotericin B. Isoniazid.

387. Choose the false answer about primary syphilis: Begins as a single painful papule. Usually begins as a painless chancre. Caused by Treponema pallidum. Appears at the site of inoculation. Can heal spontaneously.

388. The antibiotic of choice for treating syphilis is: Tetracycline. Penicillin. Ciprofloxacin. Erythromycin. Amoxicillin.

389. All of the following Legionella-related features are true, except: Gram-negative. Aerobic. Causes pneumonia. Lives in water systems. Person-to-person transmission ✔️.

390. Which of the following genera belong to family Spirochaetaceae: Treponema. Borrelia. Leptospira. All of these. None of these.

391. Choose the true answer regarding the morphology of the yeast: Yeast cells are generally larger than bacteria, some are elongated and spherical. Yeast cells are smaller than bacteria. Yeasts do not have a cell wall. Yeasts are always filamentous. Yeasts are prokaryotic.

392. Which of the following biochemical reactions is characteristic of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?. Oxidase positive. Nitrate reduction. Citrate utilization. All of these. None of these.

393. Which of the following is not a clinical manifestation of cholera?. The incubation period is 2 weeks. Profuse watery diarrhea. Vomiting. Dehydration.

394. Colonies of staphylococci show the following characteristics, except: They are opaque colonies. They are S-shaped colonies. They are concave colonies. They are pigmented. They have a diameter of 1-3 mm.

395. Gram positive bacteria are stained in: Red. Purple. Both. None of these.

396. Which of the following bacteria is sensitive to pyrazinamide?. Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Staphylococcus aureus. Escherichia coli. Streptococcus pyogenes.

397. The bacteria which cause(s) tuberculosis in man is/are: Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Mycobacterium leprae. Mycobacterium bovis. Mycobacterium avium. None of these.

398. The correct statement about S. pneumoniae is: They are Gram-negative cocci. They are arranged in clusters. They have a lanceolate shape. They are unencapsulated. They are rod-shaped.

399. Which is the bacterium that changed the concept that no bacterium can survive at normal stomach pH?. Escherichia coli. Salmonella typhi. Vibrio cholerae. Helicobacter felis. H. pylori.

400. The sporulated bacilli of the genus Clostridium have the form of: Round. Coffee bean. Drumstick. Comma. Filamentous.

401. Bacilli are: Spherical. Spirals. Comma-shaped. Rod-shaped. Irregular.

402. Choose the true answer regarding the morphology of the species of the genus Vibrio: Spherical. Rod-shaped. Spiral. Comma-shaped. Filamentous.

403.Members of the genus Mycobacterium are: Gram-negative. Acid-fast. Gram-positive cocci. Spore-forming. Non-acid-fast.

404. Cocci can be grouped into: In clusters – streptobacilli. In diplo – vibrios. In a chain – staphylococcus. In spirals – coccobacilli. In clusters – staphylococci.

405. Which of these statements are true about pneumococci?. They are Gram-negative. They are optochin resistant. They are sensitive to optochin. They are motile. They are arranged in chains.

406. Choose the false answer about Rickettsiaceae: They are obligate intracellular. They are Gram-negative. They are transmitted by arthropod vectors. They are coccobacilli. Incubation period – 3 days.

407. Somatic “O” antigen found on species of the genus Vibrio: It is an O lipopolysaccharide that confers serologic specificity. It is a capsule. It is a flagellar antigen. It is a toxin. It is a plasmid.

408. Bacteria of the same species that grew in the same place on a plate with solid culture medium, from a very small number of bacteria, called colony-forming units (CFU) represent: Serotype. Biotype. Clone. Colony. The bacterial strain.

409. The following characteristics about staphylococci are true except: Non-sporulate. Gram-positive cocci. Gram-negative cocci. Unencapsulated. Grouped in clusters.

410. The cocci that, following cell division, are grouped into clusters are: Staphylococci. Pneumococci. Streptococci. Meningococci. Gonococci.

411. The cocci that, following cell division, are grouped into chains are: Staphylococci. Pneumococci. Meningococci. Gonococci. Streptococci.

412. Choose the correct answer regarding the control of Cholera: Isolation only. Vaccination only. Antibiotic therapy only. Sanitation only. All of these.

413. The genus Pseudomonas includes bacilli: Gram-negative. Gram-positive. Spore-forming. Acid-fast. Gram-variable.

414. Regarding the specific tests of S. pyogenes: The catalase test is negative. The oxidase test is positive. The catalase test is positive. The bacitracin test is negative. Biseptol test is positive.

415. The true statement regarding group A streptococcus culture: Form R-type colonies. Use MacConkey agar. Incubation is done at 37°C for 24 hours. Colonies are always pigmented. Colonies are irregular in shape.

416. Choose the correct association regarding the culture characteristics of streptococci: On liquid media – develops very small, circular, convex, translucent colonies. On media with blood – develops hemolysis around the colony. On solid media – develops grunts that settle at the bottom of the tube. On media with blood – capsulated strains cause homogeneous turbidity. On solid medium – develops hemolysis.

417. Streptococci: Belong to the Micrococcaceae family. They are Gram-negative cocci. They are arranged in clusters. They can be rod-shaped or oval. They have a cell diameter of about 0.5 microns.

418. Choose the correct answer regarding Vibrio cholerae: They are Gram-positive. A positive Oxidase test is key step in preliminary identification of V. cholerae and E. coli. They are facultative anaerobes only. They form endospores. They are non-motile.

419. Brucella are: Vibrio. Spiral. Coccobacilli. Bacilli. Cocci.

420. Example of pathogenic bacteria is/are: Escherichia coli. Bacillus subtilis. Leptospira interrogans. Lactobacillus. Staphylococcus epidermidis.

421. Choose the correct answer for Haemophilus ducreyi: Chancroid is a venereal disease caused by H. ducreyi. Causes diphtheria. Causes cholera. Causes meningitis. Causes pneumonia.

422. Identify the wrong correspondence between the basic shape of bacteria and their name: Bacillus – rod-shaped. Cocci – spherical. Vibrio – comma-shaped. Rod shape – staphylococc. Spirochete – spiral.

423. The main components of the bacterial cell are: Nucleus and cytoplasm. Cytoplasm and cell membrane only. Nucleus, cytoplasm, and cell wall. Cytoplasmic membrane and cell wall. Nucleus, mitochondria, and ribosomes.

424. The most important virulence factors are: Capsule only. Toxins only. All of these. Enzymes only. Flagella only.

425. How is the binomial nomenclature system used correctly?. Escherichia coli. escherichia Coli. Escherichia Coli. E. coli (not italicized). Escherichia coli (all caps).

426. Helicobacter pylori are bacilli: Obligate anaerobes. Facultative anaerobes. Microaerophiles. Aerobes.

427. Which of the following is not a form of cholera treatment?. Tetracycline. Rehydration. Azithromycin. Penicillin. Doxycycline.

428. Choose the incorrect answer regarding H. ducreyi: Causes chancroid. Transmitted sexually. Toxin pertussis is the major factor of virulence. Gram-negative coccobacilli. Requires chocolate agar for culture.

429. Choose false statement about species of the genus Leptospira: They are spiral-shaped. They are motile. They are aerobic. They are pathogenic in humans. It also develops on the chorioallantoic membrane of the embryonated egg.

430. Bacteria of the genus Haemophilus: They are pretentious; because not others. They are Gram-positive. They are motile. They form spores. They are acid-fast.

431. Almost all people with duodenal ulcers are positive for: Helicobacter pylori. Escherichia coli. Streptococcus pyogenes. Staphylococcus aureus. Salmonella typhi.

432.The etiological agent of cholera is called: Escherichia coli. Vibrio cholerae. Salmonella typhi. Shigella dysenteriae. Campylobacter jejuni.

433. The correct variant regarding the genus Haemophilus is: Mobile bacilli. Contains immobile coccobacilli. Spiral-shaped. Encapsulated rod. Gram-positive.

434. Choose the correct answer for Haemophilus influenzae: The disease begins in the nasopharynx. Causes cholera. Causes tuberculosis. Causes meningitis only. Causes soft chancre.

435. Choose the incorrect answer regarding Bordetella pertussis: Withstands a maximum of 2 hours at room temperature. Causes whooping cough. Gram-negative coccobacilli. Produces pertussis toxin. Colonizes the respiratory epithelium.

436. H. pylori can counteract the effect of HCl with the help of an enzyme called: Catalase. Lipase. Urease. Amylase. Protease.

437. Choose the false statement about primary syphilis: Begins as a painless papule. The lesion is painful, being covered by a crust under which there is a serosity rich in treponemes. It is caused by Treponema pallidum. Lesion appears at the site of infection. The lesion heals spontaneously.

438. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a bacterium that is sensitive to: Rifampicin. Ethambutol. Isoniazid. Penicillin.

439. The somatic “O” antigen found on species of the genus Vibrio: Capsule. It is a group-specific antigen. Flagellar antigen. Toxin. Plasmid.

440. The true statement about cholera enterotoxin is: It has one subunit. It consists of 2 subunits. It is a DNA virus. It only affects the CNS. It is heat stable.

441. Choose false statement about species of the genus Borrelia: They are motile. They are spiral-shaped. They cause Lyme disease. They are Gram-negative. They are anaerobic or microaerophilic.

442. Choose the correct statement for the genus Treponema: All species are pathogenic. All species are non-pathogenic. Includes pathogenic and non-pathogenic species. They are Gram-positive cocci. They form endospores.

443. Choose the false statement regarding the morphology of yeasts: They are eukaryotic. They are unicellular. Yeasts do not have a cell wall. Some are elongated and spherical. Some reproduce by budding.

444. Regarding the culture characters of B. pertussis, we can say that: Colonies are pigmented. The colonies are of type S. Colonies are beta-hemolytic. Colonies grow rapidly. Colonies are Gram-positive.

445. Choose the false statement regarding the species of the genus Candida: Some species are pathogenic. Some species produce infections in immunocompromised. Candida does not produce nosocomial fungal infections. Candida can form biofilms. Some species are commensals.

446. The Rickettsiaceae family includes bacilli: Large (2–3 × 5 microns). Spiral. Very small (0.3–0.5 × 0.8 microns). Gram-positive cocci. Motile.

447. Choose the correct answer for Bordetella pertussis: Contains a surface hemagglutinin. Produces enterotoxin. Gram-positive rod. Non-pathogenic. Causes cholera.

448. Choose the correct statement regarding the morphology of the genus Treponema: They are thin spiral bacteria. They are Gram-negative cocci. They are rod-shaped. They are comma-shaped. They are non-motile.

449. The toxin that is not released by B. pertussis is: Pertussis toxin. Adenylate cyclase. Dermonecrotic toxin. Tracheal cytotoxin. Erythrotoxin.

450. To diagnose meningitis caused by H. influenzae, the following steps are taken, except: Collect cerebrospinal fluid. Culture on chocolate agar. Perform Gram stain. Perform PCR. Penicillin of choice is administered until the arrival of the antibiogram.

451. The following can be said about the cholera vibrio with one exception: It produces cholera, an invasive disease. It is comma-shaped. It is Gram-negative. It is motile. It is oxidase-positive.

452. Which of the following is NOT a clinical manifestation of cholera?. Incubation period is 2 weeks. Profuse watery diarrhea. Vomiting. Dehydration. Rice-water stool.

453. Choose the false statement about the species of the genus Cryptococcus: C. neoformans is encapsulated. It is a yeast. From a morphological point of view, C. neoformans has a round or ovoid cell, 4–20 µm, not encapsulated. Some species cause meningitis. It can grow on Sabouraud agar.

454. Choose the true statement about the morphology of the species of the genus Vibrio: Spherical. Rod-shaped. Filamentous. They are comma-shaped. Spiral.

455. The antibiotic of choice for the treatment of syphilis is: Tetracycline. Penicillin. Erythromycin. Ciprofloxacin. Azithromycin.

456. To prevent H. influenzae infection, the following can be done, except: Hygiene. Vaccination. Ceftriaxone prophylaxis in communities. Avoid overcrowding. Administer vaccine.

457. Choose the true Helicobacter pylori variant (true): Transmitted by air. Transmitted by oral-feces. Transmitted by vectors. Transmitted sexually. Transmitted through water only.

458. Choose the correct answer regarding Bordetella pertussis: Gram-positive rod. Colonizes the gastrointestinal tract. Causes skin rash. Infection affects the upper respiratory tract. Non-pathogenic.

459. Choose the correct statement about the genus Treponema: All species are non-pathogenic. All species are pathogenic. Includes pathogenic and non-pathogenic species. They form spores. They are Gram-positive cocci.

460. Which statements are correct about the culture of the genus Pseudomonas?. By cultivating in broth, the growth of the bacillus is observed by the appearance of turbidity and a white-gray membrane. After incubation, a thin film appears on liquid media under which a layer of pigment accumulates. On simple agar, colonies of several types can appear: S, R, M, climbers. Various pigments secreted by P. aeruginosa (purple pyocyanin, yellow fluorescent fluorescein) are diffusible in the medium. All of them.

461. Which is the bacterium that changed the concept that no bacteria can survive at normal stomach pH?. Escherichia coli. Salmonella typhi. Vibrio cholerae. Helicobacter felis. H. pylori.

462. Choose the false statement about aspergillosis: Caused by Aspergillus fumigatus. Occurs in immunocompromised. Can produce allergic reactions. Affects lungs. Allergic aspergillosis does not affect patients with cystic fibrosis.

463. The most important sources of Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection are: Soil. Water. Ill humans. Animals. Airborne spores.

464. Choose the correct statement regarding the morphology of the genus Treponema: They are thin spiral bacteria. They are rod-shaped bacteria. They are cocci. They are comma-shaped. They are filamentous bacteria.

465. The stages of phagocytosis include all of the following except: Chemotaxis. Opsonization. Adherence, may be multicatenary. Destruction of bacteria.

466. The viral genome: Is composed of a single type of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA. Does not contain all the genetic information needed for replication. The nucleic acid molecule can be multicatenary. Viruses do not have genetic material.

467. Essential structures for the survival of a bacterial cell are: Cell wall, membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus. Membrane and classic nucleus. Lipid membrane and cell wall. Cytoplasmic membrane and cell wall.

468. Which of the following are protective sites except: Occlusal pits. Enamel defects. Gingival crevices. Soft palate.

469. The viral genome: Is composed of a single type of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA. Does not contain all genetic information required for replication. The nucleic acid molecule can be multicatenary. Viruses do not have genetic material.

470. What is the name of the short 2–3 micrometer formations on the cell surface involved in locomotion?. Flagellar formations. Mitochondria. Cilia. Phospholipids.

471. Viral capsid: It is a coat made of many protein units called viral corpuscles. There are four types of capsid symmetry. Icosahedral symmetry with a spherical appearance is characteristic of DNA viruses. Helical symmetry with triangular appearance is characteristic of RNA viruses.

472. Elimination of microorganisms is facilitated by all of the following except: Tongue movements. Continuous desquamation of endothelial epithelium. Mastication. Swallowing.

473. What is the role of the capsule?. Prevents osmotic damage to the nucleus. Forms the periplasmic space. Acts as a virulence factor allowing the pathogen to evade phagocytes. Provides an attachment site for the somatic antigen.

474. Which bacterial aggregates depend on vitamin K?. Campylobacter spp. and Wollnella, Eikenella corrodens, Actinobacillus actinomycetem. Porphyromonas sp. and Prevotella spp. Capnocytophaga spp. and Eikenella corrodens.

475. Staphylococcus aureus is: Catalase-negative. Coagulase-positive. Catalase-positive and anaerobic. Gram-positive cocci.

476. Bacteriological diagnostic schemes analyze every bacterial metabolic process except: Use of various substances as carbon sources. Energy used for metabolic processes. Formation of end products from different substrates. Determination of acidic or basic pH in the test medium.

477. A short incubation period in food poisoning caused by preformed toxins in food is characteristic of infection with: Staphylococcus aureus. Staphylococcus epidermidis. Enterococcus faecalis. Streptococcus pneumoniae. Streptococcus pyogenes.

478. Bacterial spores: Form under favorable environmental conditions. Are a form of reproduction. Can be central, terminal, or subterminal. Only require free water.

479. Which viral infection sometimes evolves as keratoconjunctivitis?. HSV-1 infection. Adenovirus infection. Measles virus infection. Influenza virus infection.

480. Culture media can be sterilized by: Autoclaving. Tyndallization. Filtration. Pasteurization.

481. Pericoronitis: Inflammation of the gingival operculum covering the wisdom tooth. Caused by the periodontal pocket. Caused by tooth trauma.

482. Conjugation is: Transfer of genetic material from a donor bacterium to a recipient bacterium. Found in Gram-positive bacteria. Found in bacteria with R plasmid. Only possible in Gram-negative bacteria.

483.The etiological agent of diphtheria belongs to the genus: Corynebacterium. Staphylococcus. Streptococcus. None of these.

484. The periodontal pocket: Affects the pulp without microbial infection. Results from pathological deepening of the gingival sulcus beyond 3 mm. Can be intermediate (from gingival proliferation or hypertrophy).

485. Beta-hemolytic bacteria include: Streptococcus pyogenes. Streptococcus pneumoniae. Streptococcus viridans. Streptococcus faecalis.

486. Choose the incorrect answer: Bacteria are unicellular organisms; depending on morphology, they are classified as cocci, bacilli, or spiral organisms. The essential structures of bacteria are external structures. The essential structures of bacteria are internal structures. Bacteria have a single chromosome.

487. Bacterial locomotion occurs via: Capsules. Flagella. Cytoskeleton. All of these.

488. Extracellular enzymes include all of the following except: Collagenases. Coagulases. Hyaluronidases. Phosphatase.

489. Non-specific defense mechanisms include all of the following except: A-Physiological barriers. B- Continuous desquamation of the stratum corneum. C- Inflammatory response. Only A and B are correct.

490.Hepatitis A virus: Has a diamond shape. Does not have an envelope. Capsid has helical symmetry. All of the above.

491. The immunological specificity of Neisseria meningitidis serogroups is based on: Hyaluronidases. Lysozyme. Capsular polysaccharides. mRNA.

493. Staphylococcus aureus: A-Sensitive to dryness and temperature. B-Over 95% resistant to penicillin via plasmid-produced beta-lactamases. Both A and B are correct. Only B is correct.

493. Pulpal gangrene and apical periodontitis: Inflammation of the gingival operculum. Occur through the periodontal pocket reaching the apex. Do not affect the apical area.

494.Streptococcus pyogenes can cause: Local infections. Post-streptococcal sequelae. Sensitive to bacitracin. All of the above.

495. Beta-hemolysis: Clear zone of hemolysis with complete destruction of red blood cells. Partial degradation of red blood cells. Both A and B are correct. Characteristic of pathogenic Neisseria species.

496. The function of the cell wall is to: Regulate transport of molecules in and out of the cell. Provide rigidity to the cell. Provide energy to the cell. Protect the cell from predators.

497. The difference between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria is observed at the level of: Nucleus. Cell wall. Cell membrane. Mesosome.

498. Bacterial multiplication generally occurs through: Transduction. Meiosis. Binary fission. Mitosis.

499. The form in which DNA exists in prokaryotic cells: Linear. Circular. Plasmid form. Colloidal form.

500. Subgingival plaque has three zones composed of: Bacteria adhering to the tongue. Bacteria associated with the dental pulp. Bacteria located apically. Bacteria in saliva.

501. Penicillin was extracted from: Algae. Fungi. Bacteria. Plants.

502. Which of the following microorganisms are Gram-positive bacteria?. Streptococcus. E. coli. None of these. Both A and B.

503. HIV virus: DNA virus. Composed of nucleotides, cylindrical structure, and envelope. Nucleotide contains 2 DNA elements. Does not contain enzymes.

504. A motile microorganism is: Corynebacterium. Neisseria meningitidis. Clostridium perfringens. None of these.

505. Factors determining bacterial multiplication: Microbial colonization of the oral cavity. Retention of microorganisms. Elimination of microorganisms. All of the above.

506. Correct answer regarding Bordetella pertussis: Contains a surface hemagglutinin. Does not produce toxins. Conditionally saprophytic pathogenic bacterium. Low contagiousness. Encapsulated Gram-positive bacilli.

507. Correct answer regarding Bordetella pertussis: Gram-negative cocci arranged in diplos. B. pertussis has particularly high resistance outside the body. Infection affects the upper respiratory tract. Affects the digestive tract. Infects the host by colonizing respiratory epithelial cells.

508. Incorrect answer regarding Haemophilus influenzae: Adheres via pili and adhesins to mucosal epithelium and colonizes cells. Non-pathogenic. Frequently involved in tuberculosis exacerbations. H. influenzae is most frequently involved in human infections. Epiglottitis is mainly found in elderly.

509. Viral replication goes through the following stages: Adsorption of the virus onto the host cell. Detachment of the virus from the host cell. Encystment of the virus. Synthesis of vacuoles.

510. Bacteria of the genus Haemophilus. Are fastidious. Do not require enriched media. Represent first organisms with incompletely decoded genome. Are Gram-positive. Are motile.

511.Incorrect answer regarding H. ducreyi: Azithromycin is recommended for treatment. Pertussis toxin is the major virulence factor. Characteristic lesion is chancroid. Sometimes inguinal lymph nodes may be involved.

512. To prevent H. influenzae infection, the following measures can be taken except: Hygiene. Vaccination. Ceftriaxone prophylaxis in communities. Avoid overcrowding. Vaccination of infants, children, immunocompromised.

513. To diagnose meningitis caused by H. influenzae, the following steps are taken, except: Collect cerebrospinal fluid. Inoculate at the patient’s bedside. Perform CSF biochemistry and Gram stain for orientation and rapid treatment. Administer penicillin until the antibiogram result.

514. Toxin not released by B. pertussis: Dermonecrotic. Pertussis toxin. Tracheal cytotoxin. Adenylate cyclase. Erythrotoxin.

515. Regarding the culture characteristics of B. pertussis: Incubation at 35°C for 2 days. Colonies are S-type. Colonies are concave. Colonies are transparent. Colonies are large.

516. Incorrect answer regarding Haemophilus influenzae. Disease begins in the nasopharynx. Can evolve as epiglottitis. Is the etiological agent of chancroid. Does not cause influenza. Low resistance to external environment.

517. The etiology of dysenteric syndrome involves: Clostridium perfringens. Calicivirus. Rotaviruses. Shigella spp.

518. The true statement about cholera enterotoxin is: Cholerae enterotoxin is antigenically related to LT of Enterobacter. It consists of 2 subunits. The genes for Vicholerae enterotoxin are on the plasmids. Ganglioside GMI serves as al mucosal receptor for subunit A. Activation of subunit B yields increased levels of intracellular cAMP.

519. Choose the correct answer regarding the control of Cholera: Needs improvement of sanitation along with water treatment and food safety. Patients infected should preferably be isolated. Proper disinfection of excreta. Use of vaccines and chemoprophylaxis. All of these.

520. Which of the following medium are used to differentiate the colonies of Vibrio cholerae and V parahaemolyticus?. Alkaline bile salt. Thiosulphate-citrate-bile-sucrose(TCBS). MacConkey. All of the above. None of these.

521. Somatic "O" antigen found in Vibrio species: It is a O lipopolysacchuride that confer serologic specificity. It is o protein. It is not a group specific antigen. V.cholerae strains of 0 group 1 and O group 150 cause classic cholera. It is an amino acid.

522. Choose the correct answer regarding to Vibrio cholerae. V. cholerae ferments sucrose and arabinose but not mannose. A positive oxidase test is key step in preliminary identification of V. cholerae and E.coli. Vibrios usually grow on medium containing NAD. Halophilic vibrios need and grow in the presence of 6% CuSO. On Blood agar Vibrios show hemodigestion.

523. Helicobacter pylori it is a: Gram positive bacteria. It has one polar flagellum. It is microaerophilic. Hydrogen sulfide producer. Catalase negative, Oxidase positive.

524. Which of the following infection(s) can be caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?. Urinary tract infection. Wound and burn infection. Respiratory tract infection. All of these. None of thease.

525. Which of the following biochemical reaction is characteristic of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?. Production of pyocyanin. Oxidative utilization of glucose. Oxidase production. All of these. None of these.

526. The substance(s) which can be produced by strains of Pseudomonas aeruginosa is/are. Exotoxins T and S. Exotoxin A. Haemolysins. All of these. None of these.

527. Choose the correct answer regarding Candida. Most frequently Isolated strains of candida are - C. albicans, C. tropicalis,C. glabrata. The other pathogenic Candida specie are C. parapsilosis, C, stellatoldra, C. guilliermnondil, C. krusel, C. pseudotropicalis. Candlda albicans is an opportunlatig fangal pathogen responsible for candidiasis in human hosts. C. albicans grow in several different morphological forms, ranging from unicellular budding yeast to true byplac with parallel side wall. All of these.

529. Which of the following infection(s) can be caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?. Urinary tract infection. Wound and burn infection. Respiratory tract infection. All of these. None of these.

530. Members of the genus Mycobacterium are: Gram-positive. Acid-fast. Motile. All of these. None of these.

532.Which of the following is sensitive to pyrizinamide?. Mycobacterium tuberculosis. M bovis. M fortuitum. Escherichia coli. None of these.

533.Choose the correct answer regarding to pulmonary cryptococcosis: The most common entry is respiratory tract. Patient develops asymptomatic or mildly pneumonitis. It can form an encapsulated lung nodule: Cryptococcoma. symptoms: chronic cough, low grade fever, chest pain, scant mucoid or blood-tinged sputum, malaise, weight loss. All of these.

534.Choose the false statement about Rickettsia: Intracellular gram segalive bacilli of eukaryotic cells. They cannot live in artificial colture media. Parasite of arthropods - less lice, ticks and mites. They enter via the skin and spread through the bloodstream. Incubation period - 3 days.

537.Choose the correct answer regarding to pulmonary cryptococcosis: The most common entry is respiratory tract. Patient develops asymptomatic or mildly pneumonitis. It can form an encapsulated lung nodule: Cryptococcoma. symptoms: chronic cough, low grade fever, chest pain, scant mucoid or blood- finged sputum, malaise, weight loss. All of these.

538.Which of the following biochemical reaction is characteristic of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?. Production of pyocyanin. Oxidative utilization of glucose. Oxidase production. All of these. None of these.

539.Choose the false answer about Borrelia. Borrelia spp are large, motile spirochetes. Have irregular wide open coils. Measuring about 0.2 to 0.5 um by 4 to 18 pm, 3-10 loose coils. Have 7-20 periplasmic flagella. Are Gram positive bacteria that stain well with Giemsa stain.

540. What is the Phenol Red Fermentation Test looking for?. Fermentation of sugars. Presence of urease. Citrate utilization. Ability to hydrolyze gelatin.

541.The following culture media are used to diagnose streptococcal infections: Blood agar. Loffler medium. Bordet-Gengou medium.

536. What is the Citrate test looking for?. The ability to ferment citrate in the present of oxygen. The ability to utilize citrate as a sole source of carbon. The ability to break down proteins into amino acids. The ability to produce lactic acid from lactose.

537. What does a positive citrate test look like?. The media becomes blue, due to basic byproducts interacting with the bromothymol blue indicator. The media turns yellow due to acid production from fermentation. The media turns green when no fermentation occurs. The media remains unchanged regardless of the bacterial growth.

538. Which of the following method is used for the detection of Hepatitis A virus infection?. Western blotting. EIA. Serology. Histology.

539. TSi agar is commonly used to identify: Gram negative pathogens. Bacillus cereus. Streptococcus and Staphylococcus. None of these. All of these.

540. If a bacterial isolates are studied, identify the one that is catalase positive. S. aureus. S. pyogenes. E coli. S. mutants. S. aureus and E coli.

541. Diphtheria is caused by. Corynebacterium. Staphylococcus. Streptococcus. None of these.

542. Corynebacterium is. Gram positive. Resistant to Penicillin. Gram negative. Resistant to Chloramphenicol.

543. Corynebacterium diphtheriae is: Rod-shaped with straight ends. Rod-shaped with rounded ends. Pleomorphic, club-shaped rods. Grouped in clusters.

544. The sporulated bacilli of the Clostridium tetani has: "coffee bean" appearance. drumstick appearance. comma shape.

545. Of the following this is a capsulated organism: Bacillus anthracis. Escherichia-coli. Corynebacterium.

546. Which of the following method is used for the detection of Hepatitis B virus infection, except?. Liver chemistry tests. Serology. PCR. Complement-fixation tests (CFT).

547. What kind of laboratory diagnosis is used to detect HCV infection?. Serologic Diagnosis. Molecular diagnosis. Both methods. none of the above.

548. Which of the following is not a category of the method of virus detection?. Nucleic acid detection. Serology. Hematology. Multiplication.

549. What does a positive result of the Catalase test look like?. 02 bubbles form in the sample. The sample emits a foul odor when catalase is absent. The sample becomes cloudy due to bacterial growth. The sample changes color to green when catalase is present.

550. Cocci can be grouped into: clusters - streptobacilli. diplo- vibrios. chain - staphylococci. spirals - coccobacilli. clusters - staphylococci.