PASAR!

Some electric motors have two sets of field windings wound in opposite directions so that the. Motor can be operated in neither direction. A shorted armature. High starting torque.

One purpose of a growler test is to determine the presence of. Low spring tension. A shorted armature. Depends on the load carried by the generator.

Electric wire terminals for most aircraft applications must be what type?. Screw. Round. Ring.

What is the principal advantage of the series-wound dc motor?. High starting torque. Low starting torque. Mid starting torque.

If a generator is equipped with a vibrator-type voltage regulator, the actual time the voltage regulator. Depends on the load carried by the generator. Frequency and voltage must be both equa. Heavy on the load carried by the generator.

What is a cause of generator brush arcing?. Low spring tension. High spring tension. Mid spring tension.

When ac generators are operated in parallel, the. Frequency and voltage must be both equal. Frequency and voltage must not be both equal. Frequency must be higher.

The starting current of a series-wound dc motor, in passing through both the field and armature windings, produces a. High starting torque. Low starting torque. Mid starting torque.

Which motor would be most likely to have an armature brake?. Landing light retraction motor. Interpoles. Frequency and voltage must be both equal.

The method most often used in overcoming the effect of armature reaction is through the use of. Interpoles. Field assembly. Landing light retraction motor.

The only practical method of maintaining a constant voltage output from an aircraft generator under varying conditions of speed and load is to vary the. Strength of the magnetic field. Length of the magnetic field. Weakness of the magnetic field.

The pole pieces or shoes used in a dc generator are a part of the. Field assembly. The brush pigtail. Series wound.

How many cycles of ac voltage are produced in a six-pole alternator of the revolving-field type for each revolution of the rotor?. Three. Two. One.

If the reverse current cutout relay contact points fail to open after the generator output has dropped below battery potential, current will flow through the generator armature. Opposite to the normal direction and through the shunt field in the normal direction. Not Opposite to the normal direction and through the shunt field in the normal direction. normal direction and through the shunt field in the shunt field.

How does the magnetic brake used to stop rotation of an electric motor armature operate?. A friction brake is applied by a spring and release by a magnet. A friction brake is not applied by a spring and release by a magnet. A friction brake is applied by a magnet and release by a spring.

In a generator, what eliminates any possible sparking to the brush guides caused by the movement of the brushes within the holder?. The brush pigtail. pigtail. brush.

A series-wound dc electric motor will normally require. More current at low rpm than at high rpm. More current at high rpm than at low rpm.

The type of electric wire terminals used for most aircraft applications, in addition to providing good current carrying capabilities, are designed primarily. To prevent circuit failure due to terminal disconnection. Individual strands will break easily after being nicked.

The commutator of a generator. Changes alternating current produced in the armature into direct current as it is taken from the armature. A place armature in a growler and connect a 110v test light on adjacent segments; light should light.

Aluminum wire must be stripped very carefully because. Individual strands will break easily after being nicked. Individual strands will not break easily after being nicked.

An ammeter in a battery charging system is for the purpose of indicating the. Rate of current used to charge the battery. Rate of current is not used to charge the battery.

Which of the following is not one of the purposes of interpoles in a generator?. Reduce field strength. Does not reduce field strength.

To test generator or motor armature windings for opens,. A place armature in a growler and connect a 110v test light on adjacent segments; light should light. A place armature in a growler and connect a 115v test light on adjacent segments; light should light.

What is the color and orientation of the position lights for navigation on civil airplanes?. Left side – red , right side – green, rear aft – white. Left side – white , right side – red, rear aft – green.

To what depth is the mica insulation between the commutator bars of a dc generator undercut?. Equal to the width of the mica. Not equal to the width of the mica.

A voltage regulator controls generator output by. Varying current flow to generator field coil. Not varying current flow to generator field coil.

Which type of dc generator is not used as an airplane generator. Series wound. An integral fan.

What does a rectifier do?. Changes alternating current to direct current. Changes direct current to alternating current.

What type of instrument is used for measuring very high values of resistance?. Megohmmeter. Compass. Gauge.

When a diode is checked for an open circuit or a short circuit, it should be. Disconnected from the circuit. connected from the circuit.

When handling a high voltage capacitor in an electrical circuit, be sure it. It is fully discharge before removing it from the circuit. It is fully charge before removing it from the circuit.

Which of the following is most likely to cause thermal runaway in a nickel-cadmium battery?. Excessive current draw from the battery. Not Excessive current draw from the battery.

How can it be determined if a transformer winding has some of its turns shorted together?. Transformer will get hot in normal operation. Transformer will get cold in normal operation.

Which of the following are the major parts of a dc motor? 1. Armature assembly. 2. Field assembly. 3. Brush assembly. 4. Commutator. 5. Pole piece. 6. Rheostat. 7. End frame. 1,2,3,7. 2,4,5,7. 1,3,4,5.

(1) There are three basic types of dc motors; series, shunt, and compound. (2) In the series motor, the field windings, consisting of relatively few turns of heavy wire, are connected in series with the armature winding. Regarding the above statements,. Both no. 1 and no. 2 are true. Both no. 1 and no. 2 are not true. no. 1 true. no. 2 true.

For general electrical use in aircraft, the acceptable method of attaching a terminal to a wire is by. Crimping. Rivet. Wielding.

Which of the following factors must be taken into consideration when determining the wire size to use for an aircraft installation? 1. Mechanical strength. 2. Allowable power loss. 3. Ease of installation. 4. Resistance of current return path through the aircraft structure. 5. Permissible voltage drop. 6. Current carrying capability of the conductor. 7. Type of load (continuous or intermittent). 2,5,6,7. 1,4,3,5. 1,6,74.

When selecting hardware for attaching bonding connections to an aircraft structure, which of the following should be considered? 1. Mechanical strength. 2. Allowable power loss. 3. Ease of installation. 4. Permissible voltage drop. 5. Amount of current to be carried. 6. Type of load (continuous or intermittent). 1,3,5. 1,2,4. 2,5,7. 3,4,7.

How should the splices be arranged if several are to be located in an electrical wire bundle?. Staggered along the length of the bundle. Not Staggered along the length of the bundle.

What is the minimum bend radius for an electrical wire bundle?. Ten times the outside diameter of the bundle. Five times the outside diameter of the bundle.

When approved, splices may be used to repair manufactured harnesses or installed wiring. The maximum number of splices permitted between any two connectors is. one. two. three.

AN/MS electrical connectors are specifically designed to meet. Military specification. Navy specification. Air Force specification.

The most common method of attaching a pin or socket to an individual wire in an MS electrical connector is by. Crimping. Rivet.

The pin section of an AN/MS connector is normally installed on. The ground side of a circuit. The left side of a circuit.

The voltage output of an alternator may be regulated by controlling the. Voltage output of the dc exciter. Voltage output of the dc opener.

If several long lengths of electrical cable are to be installed in rigid conduit, the possibility of damage to the cable as it is pulled through the conduit will be reduced by. Dusting the cable with powdered soapstone. Dusting the cable with powdered soap.

Grounding is electrically connecting a conductive object to the primary structure. One purpose of grounding is to. Prevent development of radio frequency potentials. Prevent development of signal frequency potentials.

What is normally used to bond non-continuous stainless steel aircraft components?. Copper jumpers. Zinc jumpers.

Aircraft fuse capacity is rated in. Amperes. Voltage.

When adding a rheostat to a light circuit to control the light intensity, it should be connected in. series with the light. series with the rays.

Circuits that must be operated only in an emergency or whose inadvertent activation could endanger a system frequently employ. Guarded switches. Not Guarded switches.

If one switch is used to control all navigation lights, the lights are most likely connected. Parallel to each other and in series with the switch. Not Parallel to each other and in series with the switch.

Oil canning of the sides of aluminum or steel electrical junction boxes is considered to be. A shorting hazard. A long hazard.

Electric wiring installed in aircraft without special enclosing means (open wiring) offers the advantages of ease of installation, simple maintenance, and reduced weight. When bundling open wiring, the bundles should. Be limited as to the number of cables to minimize damage from a single electrical fault. Not limited as to the number of cables to minimize damage from a single electrical fault.

During inspection of the terminal strips of an aircraft electrical system, it should be determined that. The terminal studs are anchored against rotation. The terminal studs are anchored not against rotation.

What protection to wires and cables does conduit provide when used in aircraft installations?. Mechanical. Not Mechanical.

Which of the following should be accomplished in the installation of aircraft wiring?. Locate the bundle above flammable fluid lines and securely clamp to structure. Locate the bundle below flammable fluid lines and securely clamp to structure.

If the (+) terminal of a voltmeter is connected to the (-) terminal of the source voltage and the (-) terminal of the meter is connected to the (+) terminal of the source voltage, the voltmeter will read. Backwards. Onwards.

When using the voltage drop method of checking circuit resistance, the. Input voltage must be maintained at a constant value. Input voltage must be not maintained at a constant value.

The nominal rating of electrical switches refers to continuous. Current rating with contacts closed. Current rating with contacts open.

Aircraft electrical junction boxes located in a fire zone are usually constructed of. Stainless steel. Aluminum.

To help minimize radio interference, a capacitor will largely eliminate and provide a steady direct current if the capacitor is connected to the generator in. Parallel. Perpendicular.

The primary considerations when selecting electric cable size are. Current carrying capacity and allowable voltage drop. Current carrying capacity and not allowable voltage drop.

The navigation lights of some aircraft consist of a single circuit controlled by a single switch which has an ON position and an OFF position, with no additional positions possible. This switch is referred to as a. Single pole single throw (SPST), two position switch. Single pole single throw (SPST), one position switch.

Electric circuits are protected from overheating by means of. Fuses. Not Fuses.

How does the routing of coaxial cables differ from the routing of electrical wiring?. Coaxial cable are routed as directly as possible. Coaxial cable are routed as not directly as possible.

Which of the following copper electrical cable sizes should be selected to replace a No. 6 aluminum electrical cable?. No. 6. No. 5.

In installations where the ammeter is in the generator or alternator lead, and the regulator system does not limit the maximum current that the generator or alternator can deliver, the ammeter can be redlined at what percent of the generator or alternator rating?. 100. 1000. 50.

Which statement relating to electric wiring is true?. When attaching a terminal to the end of an electric cable , it should be determined that the strength of the cable to terminal joint is at least equal to the tensile strength of the cable itself. When attaching a terminal to the end of an electric cable , it should be determined that the strength of the cable to terminal joint is at least NOT equal to the tensile strength of the cable itself.

Bonding connections should be tested for. Resistance value. In parallel with the load.

A circuit protection device called a current limiter is essentially a slow-blow fuse and is designed to be used in. Heavy power circuits. Light power circuits.

If it is necessary to use an electrical connector where it may be exposed to moisture, the mechanic should. Use a special moisture proof type. Use a normal moisture proof type.

The three kinds of circuit-protection devices used most commonly in aircraft circuits are. Circuit breakers, fuses, and current limiters. Parallel breakers, fuses, and current limiters.

If a wire is installed so that it comes in contact with some moving parts, what protection should be given the wire?. Pass through conduit. Do not pass through conduit.

In the American Wire Gauge (AWG) system of numbers used to designate electrical wire sizes, the number assigned to a size is related to its. Cross sectional area. Straight sectional area.

What is the voltage drop for a No. 18 copper wire 50 feet long to carry 12.5 amperes, continuous operation? Use the formula VD = RLA / VD = Voltage drop / R = Resistance per ft = .00644 / L = Length of wires A = Amperes. 4v. 5v. 7v.

What is the purpose of the selection of derated switches for known continuous load current applications?. To obtain reasonable switch efficiency and service life. To not obtain reasonable switch efficiency and service life.

What is the advantage of a circuit breaker when compared to a fuse?. Not Resettable and not reusable. Resettable and reusable.

What is the advantage of a current limiter?. it will take overload for a short period. it will take overload for a long period.

Where electric cables must pass through holes in bulkheads, formers, ribs, firewalls, etc., the wires should be protected from chafing by. Using a suitable grommet. Not Using a suitable grommet.

in aircraft electrical systems, automatic reset circuit breakers. Should not be used as protective devices. Should be used as protective devices.

A certain switch is described as a single-pole, double-throw switch (SPDT). The throw of a switch indicates the number of. Circuits each pole can complete through the switch. Circuits each pole can't complete through the switch.

When considering an alteration, the criteria upon which the selection of electric cable size should be based are. Current carrying and allowable voltage drop. Current carrying and not allowable voltage drop.

What is an important factor in selecting aircraft fuses?. Capacity matches the needs of the circuit. Capacity does not matches the needs of the circuit.

The circuit breaker in the instrument lighting system protects the. Wiring from too much current. Wiring from allowable current.

One advantage of using ac electrical power in aircraft is. Greater ease in stepping the voltage up or down. Greater ease in stepping the ampere up or down.

Why are the iron cores of most induction coils laminated?. To reduce the effects of eddy currents. To not reduce the effects of eddy currents.

Certain transport aircraft use ac electrical power for all normal operation and battery furnished dc electrical power for standby emergency use. In aircraft of this type that operate no dc generators, the batteries are kept charged by. Rectifiers which use the aircraft’s ac generator as a source of power. Rectifiers which use the aircraft’s engine as a source of power.

the voltage in an ac transformer secondary that contains twice as many loops as the primary will be. Greater and the amperage less than in the primary. Lesser and the amperage greater than in the primary.

If the positive field lead between a generator and a generator control panel breaks and is shorted while the engine is running, a voltmeter connected to generator output would indicate. Residual voltage. Residual ampere.

What is a method used for restoring generator field residual magnetism?. Flash the fields. Residual voltage.

The major advantages of alternating current (AC) over direct current (DC) is the fact that its current and voltage can easily be increased or decreased. By means of a transformer. By means of a engine.

Which of the following must be accomplished when installing an anticollision light?. Install a switch independent of the position light switch. Install a switch dependent of the position light switch.

The inductor-type inverter output voltage is controlled by the. Dc stator field current. Dc stator field voltage.

When using an ohmmeter to check the continuity of a generator field coil, the coil should. Show very low resistance if it is a series field coil. Show very high resistance if it is a series field coil.

The strength of the core of an electromagnet depends upon the material from which it is constructed and which of the following?. the number of turns of wire in the coil and the amount of current (ampere) passing through the coil. the number of turns of wire in the coil and the amount of current (voltage) passing through the coil.

A voltage regulator controls generator voltage by changing the. Resistance of the generator field circuit. Resistance of the generator field parallel.

The overvoltage control automatically protects the generator system when excessive voltage is present by. Opening the shunt field circuit. Closing the shunt field circuit.

When dc generators are operated in parallel to supply power for a single load, their controls include an equalizer circuit to assure that all generators share the load equally. The equalizer circuit operates by. Increasing the output of the low generator and decreasing the output of the high generator until they are equal. Decreasing the output of the low generator and decreasing the output of the high generator until they are equal.

What is the maximum amount of time a circuit can be in operation and still be an intermittent duty circuit?. Two minutes. Three minutes. Four minutes.

the most common method of regulating the voltage output of a compound dc generator is to vary the ans. Current flowing through the shunt field coils (Refer to Figure 18.) Which of the batteries are connected together incorrectly?. 3. 2. 1.

Refer to Figure 19.) Upon completion of the landing gear extension cycle, the green light illuminated and the red light remained lit. What is the probable cause?. Short in the up limit switch. Long in the up limit switch.

if any one generator in a 24-volt dc system shows low voltage, the most likely cause is. An out of adjustment voltage regulator. An in of adjustment voltage regulator.

How can the direction of rotation of a dc electric motor be changed?. Reverse the electrical connections to either the field or armature windings. Reverse the mechanical connections to either the field or armature windings.

Aircraft which operate only ac generators (alternators) as a primary source of electrical power normally provide current suitable for battery charging through the use of. A step down transformer and a rectifier. A step up transformer and a rectifier.

During inspection of an anti-collision light installation for condition and proper operation, it should be determined that. The anti-collision light can be operated independently of the position lights. The anti-collision light can be operated dependently of the position lights.

Major adjustments on equipment such as regulators, contactors, and inverters are best accomplished outside the airplane on test benches with necessary instruments and equipment. Adjustment procedure should be as outlined by. The equipment manufacturer. The manufacturer.

A battery-generator system provides direct current. On installations requiring alternating current from the battery-generator system, it is necessary to have. An inverter. Magnetically operated switch.

A relay is. Magnetically operated switch. Not Magnetically operated switch.

The purpose of a rectifier in an electrical system is to change. Alternating current to direct current. Direct current to alternating current.

What is the ratio of turns between the primary coil winding and the secondary coil winding of a transformer designed to triple its input voltage?. Primary will have one third as many turns as its secondary. Secondary will have one third as many turns as its primary.

In an ac circuit with no phase lead or lag, which is true?. Real power equals apparent power. Apparent powers equals real powers.

How are generators rated?. Amperes and rated voltage. Rated voltage and amperes.

How is a shunt-wound dc generator connected?. Both fields are shunted across the armature. Not both fields are shunted across the armature.

The poles of a generator are laminated to. Reduce by eddy current losses. does not reduce by eddy current losses.

What is the frequency of an alternator dependent upon?. Rpm. Guage.

The generator rating is usually found stamped on the. Generator. Engine.

Residual voltage is a result of magnetism in the. Field shoes. Oil spray.

In troubleshooting an electrical circuit, if an ohmmeter is properly connected across a circuit component and some value of resistance is read,. The component has continuity and is not open. The component has continuity and is open.

CSD driven generators are usually cooled by. Oil spray. Gasoline spray.

A CSD unit drives a generator through the use of. A variable hydraulic pump and hydraulic motor. A variable hydraulic pump and non hydraulic motor.

Integrated drive generators (IDG) employ a type of high output ac generator that utilizes. A brushless system to produce current. A brush system to produce current.

If the IDG scavenge oil filter is contaminated with chunks or pieces of metal. Remove and replace the IDG. Does not remove and replace the IDG.

When necessary during operation, CSD disconnect is usually accomplished by. A switch in the cockpit. A gauge in the cockpit.

A CSD unit that is disconnected in flight, due to a malfunction such as overtemperature, may be reconnected. Only on the ground by maintenance personnel. Only on the air by maintenance personnel.

If registration numbers are tso be applied to an aircraft with a letter height of 12 inches, what is the minimum space required for the registration mark N1683C? Note: 2/3 x height = character width. 1/6 x height = width for 1. 1/4 x 2/3 height = spacing. 1/6 x height = stroke or line width. 52 inches. 62 inches. 42 inches.

If masking tape is applied to an aircraft such as for trim spraying, and is left on for several days and/or exposed to heat, it is likely that the tape will. Cure to the finish and be very difficult to remove. Cure to the finish and be very easy to remove.

What is used to slow the drying time of some finishes and to prevent blush?. Retarder. Wash primer.

Which properly applied finish topcoat is the most durable and chemical resistant?. Polyurethane. Wash primer.

Aluminum-pigment in dope is used primarily to. Exclude sunlight from the fabric. Include sunlight from the fabric.

A correct use for acetone is to. Remove grease from the fabric. Does not remove grease from the fabric.

Which of the following is a hazard associated with sanding on fabric covered surfaces during the finishing process?. Static electricity buildup. Kinetic electricity buildup.

What is likely to occur if unhydrated wash primer is applied to unpainted aluminum and then about 30 to 40 minutes later a finish topcoat, when the humidity is low?. Corrosion. Stress.

Fungicidal dopes are used in aircraft finishing as the. First coat to prevent rotting and are applied thin enough to saturate the fabric. Second coat to prevent rotting and are applied thin enough to saturate the fabric.

Before applying a protective coating to any unpainted clean aluminum, you should. Avoid touching the surface with bare hands. touching the surface with bare hands.

What is likely to occur if hydrated wash primer is applied to unpainted aluminum and then about 30 to 40 minutes later a finish topcoat, when the humidity is low?. A glossy, blush free finish. A matte, blush free finish.

What is the usual cause of runs and sags in aircraft finishes?. too much material applied in one coat. too much material applied in two coat.

Which defect in aircraft finishes may be caused by adverse humidity, drafts, or sudden changes in temperature?. Blushing. Brushing.

Which statement is true regarding paint system compatibility?. Old wash primer may be over coated directly with epoxy finishes. New wash primer may be over coated directly with epoxy finishe.

Frequently, an aircraft's auxiliary power unit (APU) generator. Is identical to engine driven generators. Is not identical to engine driven generators.

Fuel is normally supplied to an APU from. The airplanes main fuel supply. The airplanes second main fuel supply.

An APU is usually rotated during start by. Electric starter. Mechanical starter.

The function of an APU air inlet plenum is to. Stabilize the pressure of the air before it enters the compressor. Does not stabilize the pressure of the air before it enters the compressor.

When in operation, the speed of an APU. Remains at or near rated speed regardless of the load condition. Remains at or far rated speed regardless of the load condition.

Generally, when maximum APU shaft output power is being used in conjunction with pneumatic power. Pneumatic loading will be automatically modulated to maintain a safe EGT. Pneumatic loading will be automatically modulated to not maintain a safe EGT.

When necessary, APU engine cooling before shutdown may be accomplished by. Closing the bleed air valves. Opening the bleed air valves.

Fuel scheduling during APU start and under varying pneumatic bleed and electrical loads is maintained. Automatically by the APU fuel control system. Manually by the APU fuel control syst.

On APU's equipped with a free turbine and load compressor, the primary function of the load compressor is to. Provide bleed air for aircraft pneumatic systems. Does not provide bleed air for aircraft pneumatic systems.

An aircraft magnetic compass is swung to up-date the compass correction card when. Equipment is added that could effect compass deviation. Lubber line.

The operating mechanism of most hydraulic pressure gauges is. Bourdon tube. Lubber line.

1) Aircraft instruments are color-coded to direct attention to operational ranges and limitations. (2) Aircraft instruments range markings are not specified by Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations but are standardized by aircraft manufacturers. Only 1 is true. Only 2 is true.

When swinging a magnetic compass, the compensators are adjusted to correct for. Magnetic influence deviation. Pressure altitude.

What will be the result if the instrument static pressure line becomes disconnected inside a pressurized cabin during cruising flight?. The altimeter and airspeed indicator will both read low. The altimeter and airspeed indicator will both read high.

The maximum deviation (during level flight) permitted in a compensated magnetic direction indicator installed on an aircraft certificated under Federal Aviation Regulation Part 23 is. 10 degrees. 15 degrees.

Magnetic compass bowls are filled with a liquid to. Dampen the oscillation of the float. The altimeter and airspeed indicator will both read low.

Instrument static system leakage can be detected by observing the rate of change in indication of the. Altimeter after suction has been applied to the static system to cause a prescribe equivalent altitude to be indicated. The altimeter and airspeed indicator will both read low.

The maximum altitude loss permitted during an unpressurized aircraft instrument static pressure system integrity check is. 100 feet in 1 minute. 100 feet in 2 minutes.

Which statement regarding an aircraft instrument vacuum system is true?. Dry type vacuum pump with carbon vanes are very susceptible to damage from solid airborne particles and must take in only filtered air. Altimeter after suction has been applied to the static system to cause a prescribe equivalent altitude to be indicated.

Which of the following instrument discrepancies could be corrected by an aviation mechanic? 1. Red line missing. 2. Case leaking. 3. Glass cracked. 4. Mounting screws loose. 5. Case paint chipped. 6. Leaking at line B nut. 7. Will not adjust 8. Fogged. 1,4,5,6. 2,3,4,5.

Which of the following instrument discrepancies would require replacement of the instrument? 1. Red line missing. 2. Case leaking. 3. Glass cracked. 4. Mounting screws loose. 5. Case paint chipped. 6. Leaking at line B nut. 7. Will not zero out 8. Fogged. 2,3,7,8. 3,5,6,7.

Which of the following instrument conditions is acceptable and would not require correction? 1. Red line missing. 2. Case leaking. 3. Glass cracked. 4. Mounting screws loose. 5. Case paint chipped. 6. Leaking at line B nut. 7. Will not zero out. 8. Fogged. 5. 3.

A barometric altimeter indicates pressure altitude when the barometric scale is set at. 29.92” hg. 30 hg.

A Bourdon tube instrument may be used to indicate 1. pressure. 2. temperature. 3. position. 1 and 2. 2 and 3.

A turn coordinator instrument indicates. Both roll and yaw. roll. yaw.

Thermocouple leads. Are designed for specific installation and may not be altered. Electrically with wires.

A synchro transmitter is connected to a synchro receiver. Electrically with wires. Not parallel to the true angle of attack of the aircraft.

The operation of an angle-of-attack indicating system is based on detection of differential pressure at a point where the airstream flows in a direction. Not parallel to the true angle of attack of the aircraft. Chromel/alumel thermocouples.

Turbine engine exhaust gas temperatures are measured by using. Chromel/alumel thermocouples. Electrically.

Fuel flow transmitters are designed to transmit data. Electrically. Mechanical.

Which of the following causes of aircraft magnetic compass inaccuracies may be compensated for by mechanics?. Deviation. Abbreviation.

Who is authorized to repair an aircraft instrument? 1. A certified mechanic with an airframe rating. 2. A certificated repairman with an airframe rating. 3. A certificated repair station approved for that class instrument. 4. A certificated airframe repair station. 3. 2.

What does a reciprocating engine manifold pressure gauge indicate when the engine is not operating?. The existing atmospheric pressure. The existing atmospheric density.

The requirements for testing and inspection of instrument static systems required by Section 91.411 are contained in. PART 43, APPENDIX E. PART 45, APPENDIX E.

Which condition would be most likely to cause excessive vacuum in a vacuum system?. Vacuum relief valve improperly adjusted. Display alphanumeric data and representations of aircraft instruments.

Data transmitted between components in an EFIS are converted into. Digital signal. Transmitting.

The function of a CRT in an EFIS is to. Display alphanumeric data and representations of aircraft instruments. Transmitting a signal and receiving bask a reflected signal.

The function of a symbol generator (SG) in an EFIS is to. Receive the process input signals from aircraft and engine sensors and send the data to the appropriate display. Allow the pilot to select the appropriate system configuration for the current flight situation.

A radar altimeter determines altitude by. Transmitting a signal and receiving bask a reflected signal. Altitude above ground level.

Resistance-type temperature indicators using Wheatstone bridge or ratiometer circuits may be used to indicate the temperatures of which of the following? 1. Free air. 2. Exhaust gas temperature. 3. Carburetor air. 4. Coolant (engine). 5. Oil temperature. 6. Cylinder head temperature. 1,3,4 and 5. 2,4,6 and 5.

When flags such as NAV, HDG, or GS are displayed on an HSI, the indication is. That function is inoperative. That function is operative.

Instrument panel shock mounts absorb. Low frequency ,high amplitude shocks. high amplitude shocks, Low frequency.

Which procedure should you use if you find a vacuum-operated instrument glass loose?. Install another instrument. Do not Install another instrument.

Which instruments are connected to an aircraft's pitot-static system? 1. Vertical speed indicator. 2. Cabin altimeter. 3. Altimeter. 4. Cabin rate-of-change indicator. 5. Airspeed indicator. 1,3 and 5. 2,4 and 5.

How many of the following instruments will normally have range markings? 1. Airspeed indicator. 2. Altimeter. 3. Cylinder head temperature gauge. two. one.

How would an airspeed indicator be marked to show the best rate-of-climb speed (one engine inoperative)?. Blue radial line. Red radial line.

The green arc on an aircraft temperature gauge indicates. Desirable temperature range. Not Desirable temperature range.

What must be done to an instrument panel that is supported by shock mounts?. Bonding straps must be install across the instrument mounts as a current path. Bonding straps must not be install across the instrument mounts as a current path.

What marking color is used to indicate if a cover glass has slipped?. white. blue.

Aircraft instruments should be marked and graduated in accordance with. The specific aircraft maintenance or flight manual. The specific aircraft maintenance or manual.

Aircraft instrument panels are generally shock-mounted to absorb. Low frequency, high amplitude shocks. high amplitude shocks, Low frequency.

The method of mounting aircraft instruments in their respective panels depends on the. Design of the instrument case. Iron or steel cases.

How is a flangeless instrument case mounted in an instrument panel?. By an expanding type clamp secured to the back of the panel and tightened by a screw from the front of the panel. By an expanding type clamp secured to the back of the panel and tightened by a screw from the back of the panel.

Cases for electrically operated instruments are made of. Iron or steel cases. steel cases or iron.

When installing an instrument in an aircraft, who is responsible for making sure it is properly marked?. Instrument installer. Instrument not installer.

Where may a person look for the information necessary to determine the required markings on an engine instrument? 1. Engine manufacturer's specifications. 2. Aircraft flight manual. 3. Instrument manufacturer's specifications. 4. Aircraft maintenance manual. 2 or 4. 1 or 4.

A certificated mechanic with airframe and powerplant ratings may. Not perform repairs to aircraft instruments. perform repairs to aircraft instruments.

The red radial lines on the face of an engine oil pressure gauge indicates. Minimum or maximum safe operating limits. maximum or minimum safe operating limits.

A certificated mechanic may perform. 100 hour inspection of instruments. 50 hour inspection of instruments.

An aircraft instrument panel is electrically bonded to the aircraft structure to. Provide current return paths. Do not Provide current return paths.

ow many of the following are controlled by gyroscopes? 1. Attitude indicator. 2. Heading indicator. 3. Turn needle of the turn-and-slip indicator. Three. Two.

The lubber line on a directional gyro is used to. Represents the nose of the aircraft. Do not Represents the nose of the aircraft.

Which instruments are connected to an aircraft's static pressure system only? 1. Vertical speed indicator. 2. Cabin altimeter. 3. Altimeter. 4. Cabin rate-of-change indicator. 5. Airspeed indicator. 1 and 3. 2 and 5.

When an unpressurized aircraft's static pressure system is leak checked to comply with the requirements of Section 91.411, what aircraft instrument may be used in lieu of a pitot-static system tester? 1. Vertical speed indicator. 2. Cabin altimeter. 3. Altimeter. 4. Cabin rate-of-change indicator. 5. Airspeed indicator. 3. 2.

if a static pressure system check reveals excessive leakage, the leak(s) may be located by ans. Isolating portions of the line and testing each portion systematically starting at the instrument connections When performing the static system leakage check required by Section 91.411, the technician utilizes. Negative pressure. Positive pressure.

What device is used to convert alternating current, which has been induced into the loops of the rotating armature of a dc generator, to direct current?. A commutator. Hertz output.

What device is used to convert alternating current, which has been induced into the loops of the rotating armature of a dc generator, to direct current?. The condition is normal for this type of motor. The condition is not normal for this type of motor.

The stationary field strength in a direct current generator is varied. Direct current , series wound motor. Not Direct current , series wound motor.

Upon what does the output frequency of an ac generator (alternator) depend?. The speed of rotation and the number of field poles. Not the speed of rotation and the number of field poles.

A high surge of current is required when a dc electric motor is first started. As the speed of the motor increases,. The current EMF builds up and opposes the applied EMF, thus reducing the current flow through the armature. The current EMF builds up and does not oppose the applied EMF, thus reducing the current flow through the armature.

Alternators (ac generators) that are driven by a constant-speed drive (CSD) mechanism are used to regulate the alternator to a constant. Hertz output. Hertz input.

What is used to polish commutators or slip rings?. A very fine sand paper. A not very fine sand paper.

If a generator is malfunctioning, its voltage can be reduced to residual by actuating the. Generator master switch. Generator switch.

If the points in a vibrator-type voltage regulator stick in the closed position while the generator is operating, what will be the probable result?. Generator output voltage will increase. Generator output voltage will decrease.

Why is a constant-speed drive used to control the speed of some aircraft engine-driven generators?. So that the frequency of the alternating current output will remain constant. So that the frequency of the alternating current output will not remain constant.

According to the electron theory of the flow of electricity, when a properly functioning dc alternator and voltage regulating system is charging an aircraft's battery, the direction of current flow through the battery. As in to negative terminal and out the positive terminal. As in to positive terminal and out the positive terminal.

Aircraft that operate more than one generator connected to a common electrical system must be provided with. Individual generator switches that can be operated from the cockpit during flight. All generator switches that can be operated from the cockpit during flight.

The most effective method of regulating aircraft direct current generator output is to vary, according to the load requirements, the. Strength of the stationary field. Weakness of the stationary field.

Electric motors are often classified according to the method of connecting the field coils and armature. Aircraft engine starter motors are generally of which type?. Series. voltage.

As the generator load is increased (within its rated capacity), the voltage will. Remain constant and the amperage of the output will increase. It will not remain constant and the amperage of the output will increase.

As the flux density in the field of a dc generator increases and the current flow to the system increases, the. The force require to turn the generator increase. The mass require to turn the generator increase.

What is the purpose of a reverse-current cutout relay. It opens the main generator circuit whenever the generator voltage drops below the battery voltage. It closes the main generator circuit whenever the generator voltage drops below the battery voltage.

Generator voltage will not build up when the field is flashed and solder is found on the brush cover plate. These are most likely indications of. Open armature. Close armature.

Why is it unnecessary to flash the field of the exciter on a brushless alternator?. Permanent magnets are installed in the main field poles. Not Permanent magnets are installed in the main field poles.

One way that the automatic ignition relight systems are activated on gas turbine engines is by a. Drop in compressor discharge pressure. Do not drop in compressor discharge pressure.

How are the rotor windings of an aircraft alternator usually excited?. By a variable direct current. By a variable not direct current.

What precaution is usually taken to prevent electrolyte from freezing in a lead acid battery?. Keep battery fully charged. Not keep battery fully charged.

What is the ampere-hour rating of a storage battery that is designed to deliver 45 amperes for 2.5 hours?. 112 amperes per hour. 121 amperes per hour.

How many hours will a 140 ampere-hour battery deliver 15 amperes?. 9.33 hours. 10 hours.

What is a basic advantage of using ac for electrical power for a large aircraft. AC system operates at a HIGHER voltage than dc systems and therefore use less current and can use smaller and lighter weight wiring. AC system operates at a LOWER voltage than dc systems and therefore use less current and can use smaller and lighter weight wiring.

What are two types of ac motors that are used to produce a relatively high torque?. Three phase induction and capacitor start. Six phase induction and capacitor start.

(1) Alternators are rated in volt-amps, which is a measure of the apparent power being produced by the generator. (2) Alternating current has the advantage over direct current in that its voltage and current can easily be stepped up or down. no.1 and 2 are true. no.1 and 2 are not true.

What is the frequency of most aircraft alternating current?. 400 hertz. 500 hertz.

The reason for flashing the field in a generator is to. Restore the polarity and/or residual magnetism to the field poles. Not restore the polarity and/or residual magnetism to the field poles.

The part of a dc alternator power system that prevents reverse flow of current from the battery to the alternator is the. Rectifier. Alternator.

The generating system of an aircraft charges the battery by using. Constant voltage and varying current. varying current and Constant voltage.

The constant current method of charging a ni-cad battery. Is the method maintaining cell balance. Is the method not maintaining cell balance.

Refer to Figure 4.) The following data concerning the installation of an electrical unit is known: current requirements for continuous operation -- 11 amperes; measured cable length -- 45 feet; system voltage -- 28 volts (do not exceed 1 volt drop); cable in conduit and bundles. What is the minimum size copper electrical cable that may be selected?. no.12. no.14.

Which of the following aircraft circuits does NOT contain a fuse/circuit breaker?. Starter circuit. End circuit.

The maximum number of terminals that may be connected to any one terminal stud in an aircraft electrical system is. 4. 2.

What is the maximum number of bonding jumper wires that may be attached to one terminal grounded to a flat surface?. four. three.

As a general rule, starter brushes are replaced when they are approximatel. One half their original length. One forth their original length.

When installing an electrical switch, under which of the following conditions should the switch be derated from its nominal current rating?. Direct current motor circuit. Not Direct current motor circuit.

The resistance of the current return path through the aircraft is always considered negligible, provided the. Structure is adequately bonded. Structure is adequately not bonded.

In order to reduce the possibility of ground shorting the circuits when the connectors are separated for maintenance, the AN and MS electrical connectors should be installed with the. Pin section on the ground side of the electrical circuit. Pin section on the ground side of the mechanical circuit.

When does current flow through the coil of a solenoid-operated electrical switch?. Continually as long as the control circuit is complete. Do not continually as long as the control circuit is complete.

When a 28 volt, 75 ampere generator is installed on an aircraft, an electrical load analysis ground check is performed and it is determined that the battery is furnishing 57 amperes to the system, with all electrical equipment operating. This indicates. The load will be within generator load limit. The load will be not within generator load limit.

What type of lubricant may be used to aid in pulling electrical wires or cables through conduits?. Soapstone talc. Soap talc.

Which of the following is regulated in a generator to control its voltage output?. The strength of the field. The weakness of the field.

Bonding jumpers should be designed and installed in such a manner that they. Provide a low resistance in the ground circuit. Do not provide a low resistance in the ground circuit.

When the starter switch to the aircraft gas turbine engine starter-generator is energized and the engine fails to rotate, one of the probable causes would be the. Starter solenoid is defective. Starter solenoid is not defective.

Arcing at the brushes and burning of the commutator of a motor may be caused by. Weak brush spring. brush spring.

The maximum allowable voltage drop between the generator and the bus bar is. 2 percent of regulated voltage. 6 percent of regulated voltage.

ON-OFF two position engine electrical switches should be installed. So the on position is reached by a forward or upward motion. So the off position is reached by a forward or upward motion.

When selecting an electrical switch for installation in an aircraft circuit utilizing a direct current motor,. a derating factor should be applied. a derating factor should not be applied.

When installing electrical wiring parallel to a fuel line, the wiring should be. Above the fuel line. below the fuel line.

What speed must an eight-pole ac generator turn to produce 400-Hertz ac?. 6000 rpm. 7000 rpm.

How many basic types of circuit breakers are used in powerplant installation electrical systems?. Three. Five.

Which Federal Aviation Regulation specifies that each resettable circuit protective device requires a manual operation to restore service after the device has interrupted the circuit?. 14 CFR part 23. 14 CFR part 25.

Which Federal Aviation Regulation requirement prevents the use of automatic reset circuit breakers?. 14 CFR part 23. 14 CFR part 25.

The time/current capacities of a circuit breaker or fuse must be. Below those of the associated conductor. not below those of the associated conductor.

(1) Most modern aircraft use circuit breakers rather than fuses to protect their electrical circuits. (2) Federal Aviation Regulations Part 23 requires that all electrical circuits incorporate some form of circuit protective device. Regarding the above statements,. Only 1 is true. Only 2 is true.

Electrical switches are rated according to the. Voltage and current they can control. Voltage and current they can not control.

Electrical circuit protection devices are installed primarily to protect the. Wiring. rivet.

(1) Electrical circuit protection devices are rated based on the amount of current that can be carried without overheating the wiring insulation. (2) A 'trip-free' circuit breaker makes it impossible to manually hold the circuit closed when excessive current is flowing. Regarding the above statements,. Both no. 1 and no. 2 is true. Both no. 1 and no. 2 is not true.

Which of the following Federal Aviation Regulations require that all aircraft using fuses as the circuit protective devices carry 'one spare set of fuses, or three spare fuses of each kind required'?. 14 CFR part 91. 14 CFR part 95.

What is the smallest terminal stud allowed for aircraft electrical power systems?. No. 10. No. 15.

A typical barrier type aircraft terminal strip is made of. Paper base phenolic compound. not Paper base phenolic compound.

A term commonly used when two or more electrical terminals are installed on a single lug of a terminal strip is. stacking. magnet.

1) Electrical wires larger than 10 gauge use uninsulated terminals. (2) Electrical wires smaller than 10 gauge use uninsulated terminals. Regarding the above statements,. Only 1 is true. Only 2 is true.

Aircraft electrical wire size is measured according to the. American wire gauge system. African wire gauge system.

Aircraft copper electrical wire is coated with tin, silver, or nickel in order to. Prevent oxidation. do not Prevent oxidation.

Which coupling nut should be selected for use with 1/2-inch aluminum oil lines which are to be assembled using flared tube ends and standard AN nuts, sleeves, and fittings?. AN-818-8. round type.

Metal tubing fluid lines are sized by wall thickness and. Outside diameter in 1/16 inch incriments. Outside diameter in 1/12 inch incriments.

From the following sequences of steps, indicate the proper order you would use to make a single flare on a piece of tubing: 1. Place the tube in the proper size hole in the flaring block. 2. Project the end of the tube slightly from the top of the flaring tool, about the thickness of a dime. 3. Slip the fitting nut and sleeve on the tube. 4. Strike the plunger several light blows with a lightweight hammer or mallet and turn the plunger one- half turn after each blow. 5. Tighten the clamp bar securely to prevent slippage. 6. Center the plunger or flaring pin over the tube. 3,1,6,2,5,4. 1,4,3,5,2,6.

Hydraulic tubing, which is damaged in a localized area to such an extent that repair is necessary, may be repaired. By cutting out the damaged area and utilizing a swaged tube fitting to join the tube ends. By not cutting out the damaged area and utilizing a swaged tube fitting to join the tube ends.

What is an advantage of a double flare on aluminum tubing?. More resistant to damage when the joint is tightened. less resistant to damage when the joint is tightened.

A certain amount of slack must be left in a flexible hose during installation because, when under pressure, i. Contracts in length and expands in diameter. Contracts in length and expands in radius.

The term 'cold flow' is generally associated with. Impression left in natural or synthetic rubber hose material. Impress left in natural or synthetic rubber hose material.

What is the color of an AN steel flared-tube fitting?. Black. White.

Which of the following statements is/are correct in reference to flare fittings? 1. AN fittings have an identifying shoulder between the end of the threads and the flare cone. 2. AC and AN fittings are considered identical except for material composition and identifying colors. 3. AN fittings are generally interchangeable with AC fittings of compatible material composition. 1. 2.

Flexible lines must be installed with. A slack of 5 to 8 percent of the lengt. A slack of 5 to 9 percent of the length.

The maximum distance between end fittings to which a straight hose assembly is to be connected is 50 inches. The minimum hose length to make such a connection should be. 52 ½ inches. 55 ½ inches.

Excessive stress on fluid or pneumatic metal tubing caused by expansion and contraction due to temperature changes can best be avoided by. Providing bends in the tubing. not Providing bends in the tubing.

The material specifications for a certain aircraft require that a replacement oil line be fabricated from 3/4-inch 0.072 5052-0 aluminum alloy tubing. What is the inside dimension of this tubing?. 0.606 inch. 0.610 inch.

in most aircraft hydraulic systems, two-piece tube connectors consisting of a sleeve and a nut are used when a tubing flare is required. The use of this type connector eliminates. no possibility of reducing the flare thickness by wiping or ironing during the tightening process. The possibility of reducing the flare thickness by wiping or ironing during the tightening process.

Which statement(s) about Military Standard (MS) flareless fittings is/are correct? 1. During installation, MS flareless fittings are normally tightened by turning the nut a specified amount, rather than being torqued. 2. New MS flareless tubing/fittings should be assembled clean and dry without lubrication. 3. During installation, MS flareless fittings are normally tightened by applying a specified torque to the nut. 1. 2.

When flaring aluminum tubing for use with AN fittings, the flare angle must be. 37 degrees. 30 degrees.

Scratches or nicks on the straight portion of aluminum alloy tubing may be repaired if they are no deeper than. 10 percent of the wall thickness. 15 percent of the wall thickness.

Flexible hose used in aircraft systems is classified in size according to the. Inside diameter. outside diameter.

A scratch or nick in aluminum tubing can be repaired provided it does not. Appear in the heal of the bend. do not Appear in the heal of the bend.

Which of the following hose materials are compatible with phosphate-ester base hydraulic fluids? 1. Butyl. 2. Teflon. 3. Buna-N. 4. Neoprene. 1 and 2. 3 and 4.

Which tubings have the characteristics (high strength, abrasion resistance) necessary for use in a high- pressure (3,000 PSI) hydraulic system for operation of landing gear and flaps?. Corrosion resistant steel annealed or 1/4H. Corrosion resistant steel annealed or 1/7H.

When installing bonded clamps to support metal tubing,. Remove paint or anodizing fromm tube clamp location. does not Remove paint or anodizing fromm tube clamp location.

In a metal tubing installation,. Tension is undesirable because pressurization will cause it to expand and shift. Tension is desirable because pressurization will cause it to expand and shift.

The best tool to use when cutting aluminum tubing, or any tubing of moderately soft metal is a. Hand operated wheel type tubing cutter. arms operated wheel type tubing cutter.

The primary purpose of providing suitable bends in fluid and pneumatic metal tubing runs is to. Prevent excessive stress on the tubing. do not Prevent excessive stress on the tubing.

Which of the following statements is true regarding minimum allowable bend radii for 1.5 inches OD or less aluminum alloy and steel tubing of the same size?. The minimum radius for steel is greater than for aluminum. The maximum radius for steel is greater than for aluminum.

A gas or fluid line marked with the letters PHDAN is. Used to carry a hazardous substance. not Used to carry a hazardous substance.

Which statement is true regarding the variety of symbols utilized on the identifying color-code bands that are currently used on aircraft plumbing lines?. Symbols are always black against white background regardless of the line content. Symbols are always white against white background regardless of the line content.

If a flared tube coupling nut is overtightened, where is the tube most likely to be weakened/damaged?. At the sleeve and flare junction. At the arms and flare junction.

Which statement concerning Bernoulli's principle is true?. The pressure of the fluid decreases at point where the velocity of the fluid increases. The pressure of the fluid increase at point where the velocity of the fluid increases.

1) Bonded clamps are used for support when installing metal tubing. (2) Unbonded clamps are used for support when installing wiring. Regarding the above statements,. Both 1 and 2 are true. Both 1 and 2 are not true.

Which statement is true regarding flattening of tubing in bends?. Flattening may not be more than 25 percent of the original diameter is permissible. Flattening may not be more than 30 percent of the original diameter is permissible.

A 3/8 inch aircraft high pressure flexible hose as compared to 3/8 inch metal tubing used in the same system will. Have equivalent flow characteristics. will not Have equivalent flow characteristics.

Magnetic particle inspection is used primarily to detect. Flaws on or near the surface. Flaws on or far the surface.

Liquid penetrant inspection methods may be used on which of the following? 1. porous plastics. 2. ferrous metals. 3. nonferrous metals. 4. smooth primeer-sealed wood. 5. nonporous plastics. 2,3,5. 3,4,5.

Which of these nondestructive testing methods is suitable for the inspection of most metals, plastics, and ceramics for surface and subsurface defects?. Ultrasonic inspection. sonic inspection.

Which of the following defects are not acceptable for metal lines? 1. Cracked flare 2. Seams 3. Dents in the heel of a bend less than 20% of the diameter 4. Scratches/nicks on the inside of a bend less than 10% of wall thickness 5. Dents in straight section that are 20% of tube diameter. 1,2,3, and 5. 1,4,3, and 5.

What nondestructive testing method requires little or no part preparation, is used to detect surface or near-surface defects in most metals, and may also be used to separate metals or alloys and their heat- treat conditions?. Eddy current inspection. Eddy voltage inspection.

What method of magnetic particle inspection is used most often to inspect aircraft parts for invisible cracks and other defects?. Continuous. Not Continuous.

How many of these factors are considered essential knowledge for x-ray exposure? 1. Processing of the film. 2. Material thickness and density. 3. Exposure distance and angle. 4. Film characteristics. 3. 2.

The testing medium that is generally used in magnetic particle inspection utilizes a ferromagnetic material that has. High permeability low retentivity. Low permeability High retentivity.

Which statement relating to the residual magnetizing inspection method is true?. It maybe used with steels which have been heat treated for stressed application. It maybe not be used with steels which have been heat treated for stressed application.

A mechanic has completed a bonded honeycomb repair using the potted compound repair technique. What nondestructive testing method is used to determine the soundness of the repair after the repair has cured?. Metallic ring test. Metallic ring scanner.

What two types of indicating mediums are available for magnetic particle inspection?. Wet and dry process materials. Wet and dry not process materials.

Which of the following materials may be inspected using the magnetic particle inspection method? 1. Magnesium alloys. 2. Aluminum alloys. 3. Iron alloys. 4. Copper alloys. 3. 2.

One way a part may be demagnetized after magnetic particle inspection is by. Slowly moving out of an ac magnetic field of sufficient strength. Fast moving out of an ac magnetic field of sufficient strength.

Which type crack can be detected by magnetic particle inspection using either circular or longitudinal magnetization?. 45 degrees. 50 degrees.

Which of the following methods may be suitable to use to detect cracks open to the surface in aluminum forgings and castings?1. Dye penetrant inspection. 2. Magnetic particle inspection. 3. Metallic ring (coin tap) inspection. 4. Eddy current inspection. 5. Ultrasonic inspection. 6. Visual inspection. 1,4,5,6. 3,4,5,6.

To detect a minute crack using dye penetrant inspection usually requires. A longer than normal penetrating time. A smaller than normal penetrating time.

Which of the following is a main determinant of the dwell time to use when conducting a dye or fluorescent penetrant inspection?. The size and shape of the discontinuities being look for. The size and shape of the continuities being look for.

When checking an item with the magnetic particle inspection method, circular and longitudinal magnetization should be used to. Reveal all possible defects. Not reveal all possible defects.

In magnetic particle inspection, a flaw that is perpendicular to the magnetic field flux lines generally causes. A large disruption in the magnetic field. A small disruption in the magnetic field.

If dye penetrant inspection indications are not sharp and clear, the most probable cause is that the part. Was not thoroughly washed before the developer was applied. Was thoroughly washed before the developer was applied.

(1) An aircraft part may be demagnetized by subjecting it to a magnetizing force from alternating current that is gradually reduced in strength. (2) An aircraft part may be demagnetized by subjecting it to a magnetizing force from direct current that is alternately reversed in direction and gradually reduced in strength. Both no. 1 and 2 are true. Both no. 1 and 2 are not true.

The pattern for an inclusion is a magnetic particle building forming. Parallel lines. Straight lines.

A part which is being prepared for dye penetrant inspection should be cleaned with. Water base solvents only. Oil base solvents on.

Under magnetic particle inspection, a part will be identified as having a fatigue crack under which condition?. The discontinuity is found in a nonstressed area of the part. The discontinuity is found in a stressed area of the part.

In performing a dye penetrant inspection, the developer. Acts as a blotter to produce a visible indication. Acts as a blotter to produce a unvisible indication.

What defects will be detected by magnetizing a part using continuous longitudinal magnetization with a cable?. Defects perpendicular to the long axis of the part. Not Defects perpendicular to the long axis of the part.

Defects perpendicular to the long axis of the part. Both no. 1 and 2 are true. Both no. 1 and 2 are not true.

What type of corrosion may attack the grain boundaries of aluminum alloys when the heat treatment process has been improperly accomplished?. Intergranular. granular.

Which of the following describe the effects of annealing steel and aluminum alloys? 1. decrease in internal stress. 2. softening of the metal. 3. improved corrosion resistance. 1 , 2. 1 ,3.

Normalizing is a process of heat treating. Iron base metals only. not Iron base metals.

Which of the following occurs when a mechanical force is repeatedly applied to most metals at room temperature, such as rolling, hammering, or bending? 1. The metals become artifically aged. 2. The metals become stress corrosion cracked. 3. The metals become cold worked, strain or work hardened. 3. 2.

The reheating of a heat treated metal, such as with a welding torch. Can significally alter a metals properties in the reheated area. Can not alter a metals properties in the reheated area.

Why is steel tempered after being hardened?. To relieve its internal stresses and reduce its brittlenes. To not relieve its internal stresses and reduce its brittlenes.

What aluminum alloy designations indicate that the metal has received no hardening or tempering treatment?. 3003-F. Weilding.

Which material cannot be heat treated repeatedly without harmful effects?. Clad aluminum alloys. aluminum alloys.

What is descriptive of the annealing process of steel during and after it has been annealed?. Slow cooling; low strength. fast cooling; low strength.

Unless otherwise specified, torque values for tightening aircraft nuts and bolts relate to. Clean dry threads. Dirty dry threads.

What is generally used in the construction of aircraft engine firewalls?. Stainless steel. steel.

Unless otherwise specified or required, aircraft bolts should be installed so that the bolthead is. Upward or in forward direction. Downward or in forward direction.

Alclad is a metal consisting of. Pure aluminum surface layers on an aluminum alloy core. Not Pure aluminum surface layers on an aluminum alloy core.

A fiber-type, self-locking nut must never be used on an aircraft if the bolt is. Subject to rotation. Subject to rotate.

The Society of Automotive Engineers (SAE) and the American Iron and Steel Institute use a numerical index system to identify the composition of various steels. In the number '4130' designating chromium molybdenum steel, the first digit indicates the. Basic alloying element. Rare alloying element.

Aircraft bolts with a cross or asterisk marked on the bolthead are. Standard steel bolts. not Standard steel bolts.

Which statement regarding aircraft bolts is correct?. In general, bolt grip lengths should equal the material thickness. Not in general, bolt grip lengths should equal the material thickness.

Generally speaking, bolt grip lengths should be. Equal to the thickness of the material which is fastened together. Not Equal to the thickness of the material which is fastened together.

When the specific torque value for nuts is not given, where can the recommended torque value be found?. AC 43.13-1B. Far part 23.

A particular component is attached to the aircraft structure by the use of an aircraft bolt and a castle tension nut combination. If the cotter pin hole does not align within the recommended torque range, the acceptable practice is to. Change washers and try again. Not Change washers and try again.

A bolt with a single raised dash on the head is classified as an. AN corrosion resistant bold. AN corrosion resistant bolder.

How is a clevis bolt used with a fork-end cable terminal secured?. With a shear nut tightened to a snug fit, but with no strain imposed on the fork and saftied with a cotter pin. With a nut tightened to a snug fit, but with no strain imposed on the fork and saftied with a cotter pin.

Where is an AN clevis bolt used in an airplane?. Only for shear load application. Not Only for shear load application.

A bolt with an X inside a triangle on the head is classified as an. NAS close tolerance bolt. NAS open tolerance bol.

The core material of Alclad 2024-T4 is. Heat treated aluminum alloy, and the surface material is commercially pure. Cold treated aluminum alloy, and the surface material is commercially pure.

The aluminum code number 1100 identifies what type of aluminum?. 99% commercially pure aluminum. 90% commercially pure aluminum.

Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with a. Class 3 fit for the threads. Class 1 fit for the threads.

In the four-digit aluminum index system number 2024, the first digit indicates. The major alloying element. The minor alloying element.

How is the locking feature of the fiber-type locknut obtained?. By the use of unthreaded fiber locking insert. By the use of threaded fiber locking insert.

Why should an aircraft maintenance technician be familiar with weld nomenclature?. In order to gain familiarity with the welding technique, filler material, and temperature range used. Not order to gain familiarity with the welding technique, filler material, and temperature range used.

Why is it considered good practice to normalize a part after welding?. To relieve internal stresses developed within the base metal. To relieve external stresses developed within the base metal.

Holes and a few projecting globules are found in a weld. What action should be taken?. Remove old weld and reweld the joint. Do not Remove old weld and reweld the joint.

Which condition indicates a part has cooled too quickly after being welded?. Cracking adjacent to the weld. Not Cracking adjacent to the weld.

Select a characteristic of a good gas weld. The weld should taper off smoothly into the base metal. The weld should not taper off smoothly into the base metal.

One characteristic of a good weld is that no oxide should be formed on the base metal at a distance from the weld of more than. ½ inch. 2 inch.

In examining and evaluating a welded joint, a mechanic should be familiar with. Likely ambient exposure condition and intended use of the part, along with type of weld and original part material composition. Likely exposure condition and intended use of the part, along with type of weld and original part material composition.

On a fillet weld, the penetration requirement includes what percentage(s) of the base metal thickness?. 25 to 50 percent. 30 to 50 percent.

Which tool can be used to measure the alignment of a rotor shaft or the plane of rotation of a disk?. Dial indicator. Dial indicate.

READ. 345. 345.

READ. 12. 32.

read. 123. 12.

1.436 inches. 2 inches.

Which tool is used to measure the clearance between a surface plate and a relatively narrow surface being checked for flatness?. Thickness gauge. Thinness gauge.

Which number represents the vernier scale graduation of a micrometer?. .0001. .002.

Which tool is used to find the center of a shaft or other cylindrical work?. Combination set. Uncombination set.

READ. 43. 544.

If it is necessary to accurately measure the diameter of a hole approximately 1/4 inch in diameter, the mechanic should use a. Small hole gauge and determine the size of the hole by taking a micrometer reading of the ball end of the gauge. Large hole gauge and determine the size of the hole by taking a micrometer reading of the ball end of the gauge.

READ. 4589. 7897.

What tool is generally used to set a divider to an exact dimension?. Machinist scale. Gauge block.

What tool is generally used to calibrate a micrometer or check its accuracy?. Gauge block. Micrometer caliper.

What precision measuring tool is used for measuring crankpin and main bearing journals for out-of- round wear?. Micrometer caliper. Thickness gauge.

How can the dimensional inspection of a bearing in a rocker arm be accomplished?. Telescopic gauge and micrometer. Telescopic gauge.

The twist of a connecting rod is checked by installing push-fit arbors in both ends, supported by parallel steel bars on a surface plate. Measurements are taken between the arbor and the parallel bar with a. Thickness gauge. Gauge block.

The clearance between the piston rings and the ring lands is measured with a. Thickness gauge. Micrometer.

What may be used to check the stem on a poppet-type valve for stretch?. Micrometer. Micrometer caliper.

Which tool can be used to determine piston pin out-of-round wear?. Micrometer caliper. Thickness gauge.

In Gas Tungsten Arc (GTA) welding, a stream of inert gas is used to. Prevent the formation of oxide in the puddle. Do not prevent the formation of oxide in the puddle.

Which statement best describes magnesium welding?. Filler rod should be the same composition as base metal. Filler rod should be the not the same composition as base metal.

Which statement is true in regard to welding heat-treated magnesium?. The weld section does not have the strength of the original metal. The weld section does not have the weakness of the original metal.

The oxyacetylene flame for silver soldering should be. Neutral. Not Neutral.

Why is it necessary to use flux in all silver soldering operations?. To chemically clean the base of oxide film. To chemically not clean the base of oxide film.

Engine mount members should preferably be repaired by using a. Larger diameter tube with fishmouth and rosette welds. smaller diameter tube with fishmouth and rosette welds.

What method of repair is recommended for a steel tube longeron dented at a cluster?. Welded patch plate. not welded patch plate.

Welding over brazed or soldered joints is. Not permitted. permitted.

Which statement concerning soldering is correct?. Joints in electric wire to be soldered should be mechanically secure prior to soldering. joints in electric wire to be soldered should be techanically secure prior to soldering.

A resurfaced soldering iron cannot be used effectively until after the working face has been. Tinned. Not tinned.

Which of the following can normally be welded without adversely affecting strength? 1. Aircraft bolts. 2. SAE 4130 chrome/molybdenum tubing. 3. Spring steel struts. 4. Most heat-treated steel/nickel alloy components. 2. 4.

In selecting a torch tip size to use in welding, the size of the tip opening determines the. Amount of heat applied to the work. Not Amount of heat applied to the work.

Why should a carburizing flame be avoided when welding steel?. It hardens the surface. It does not hardens the surface.

The most important consideration(s) when selecting welding rod is. Material compatibility. Material not compatible.

The oxyacetylene flame used for aluminum welding should. Be neutral and soft. Be neutral and hard.

A very thin and pointed tip on a soldering copper is undesirable because it will. Cool too rapidly. Warm too rapidly.

Filing or grinding a weld bead. Reduces the strength of the joint. Reduces the weak of the joint.

Acetylene at a line pressure above 15 PSI is. Dangerously unstable. Dangerously stable.

Cylinders used to transport and store acetylene. Contain acetone. Do not contain acetone.

A welding torch backfire may be caused by. A loose tip. A more loose tip.

Which statement concerning a welding process is true?. The inert arc welding process uses an inert gas to protect the weld zone from the atmosphere. The inert arc welding process uses an inert gas to not protect the weld zone from the atmosphere.

Where should the flux be applied when oxyacetylene welding aluminum?. Painted on the surface to be welded and applied to the welding rod. Not painted on the surface to be welded and applied to the welding rod.

What purpose does flux serve in welding aluminum?. Minimize or prevent oxidation. Maximize or prevent oxidation.

Why are aluminum plates 1/4 inch or more thick usually preheated before welding?. Reduces internal stresses and assures more complete penetration. Not reduces internal stresses and assures more complete penetration.

How should a welding torch flame be adjusted to weld stainless steel?. Slightly carburizing. Not slightly carburizing.

Oxides form very rapidly when alloys or metals are hot. It is important, therefore, when welding aluminum to use a. Flux. Reflux.

In gas welding, the amount of heat applied to the material being welded is controlled by the. Size of the tip opening. Not size of the tip opening.

Oxygen and acetylene cylinders are made of. Steel. Iron.

When a butt welded joint is visually inspected for penetration,. The penetration should be 100 percent of the thickness of the base metal. The penetration should be 10 percent of the thickness of the base metal.

Annealing of aluminum. Remove stresses caused by forming. Does not remove stresses caused by forming.

Edge notching is generally recommended in butt welding above a certain thickness of aluminum because it. Aids in full penetration of the metal and prevents local distortion. Does not aids in full penetration of the metal and prevents local distortion.

If too much acetylene is used in the welding of stainless steel,. The metal will absorb carbon and lose its resistance to corrosion. The metal will not absorb carbon and lose its resistance to corrosion.

The shielding gases generally used in the Gas Tungsten Arc (GTA) welding of aluminum consist of. Helium or argon or a mixture of helium and argon. Helium or tungsten or a mixture of helium and tungsten.

A well-designed rivet joint will subject the rivets to. Shear loads. Shear.

A main difference between Lockbolt/Huckbolt tension and shear fasteners (other than their application) is in the. Number of locking collar grooves. Number of locking collar.

The markings on the head of a Dzus fastener identify the. Body diameter ,type of head, and length of the fastener. Body ,type of head, and length of the fastener.

The markings on the head of a Dzus fastener identify the. Hundredths of an inch. Hundredths of an 2 inches.

he Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud, grommet, and receptacle. The stud diameter is measured in. Sixteenths of an inch. Sixteenths of an 2 inches.

Threaded rivets (Rivnuts) are commonly used to. Attach parts or components with screws to sheet metal. do not Attach parts or components with screws to sheet metal.

The installation of Cherrymax and Olympic-Lok rivets is accomplished by utilizing. a pulling tool. a tool.

Hole filling fasteners (for example, MS20470 rivets) should not be used in composite structures primarily because of the. Possibility of causing delamination. not Possibility of causing delamination.

Metal fasteners used with carbon/graphite composite structures. Must constructed of material such as titanium or corrosion resistant steel. Must not be constructed of material such as titanium or corrosion resistant steel.

Sandwich panels made of metal honeycomb construction are used on modern aircraft because this type of construction. Has a high strength to weight ratio. Has a high weak to weight ratio.

(1) When performing a ring (coin tap) test on composite structures, a change in sound may be due to damage or to transition to a different internal structure. (2) The extent of separation damage in composite structures is most accurately measured by a ring (coin tap) test. Regarding the above statements,. Only no. 1 is true. Only no. 2 is true.

Which of these methods may be used to inspect fiberglass/honeycomb structures for entrapped water? 1. Acoustic emission monitoring. 2. X-ray. 3. Backlighting. 2 and 3. 1 and 3.

When balsa wood is used to replace a damaged honeycomb core, the plug should be cut so that. Grain is perpendicular to the skin. Grain is not perpendicular to the skin.

One of the best ways to assure that a properly prepared batch of matrix resin has been achieved is to. Have mixed enough for a test sample. Have not mixed enough for a test sample.

Composite inspections conducted by means of acoustic emission monitoring. By Picking up the ‘noise’ of any deterioration that may be present. By not Picking up the ‘noise’ of any deterioration that may be present.

What precaution, if any, should be taken to prevent corrosion inside a repaired metal honeycomb structure?. Prime the repair with corrosion inhibitor and seal from the atmosphere. Prime and not repair with corrosion inhibitor and seal from the atmosphere.

One method of inspecting a laminated fiberglass structure that has been subjected to damage is to. Strip the damage area of all paint and shine a strong light through the structure. do not Strip the damage area of all paint and shine a strong light through the structure.

When inspecting a composite panel using the ring test/tapping method, a dull thud may indicate. Separation of the laminate. Separate of the laminate.

How many of the following are benefits of using microballoons when making repairs to laminated honeycomb panels? 1. Greater concentrations of resin in edges and corners. 2. Improved strength to weight ratio. 3. Less density 4. Lower stress concentrations. 2,3 and 4. 1,2 and 3.

Which is an identifying characteristic of acrylic plastics?. Zinc chloride with no effect. Zinc chloride is with no effect.

Superficial scars, scratches, surface abrasion, or rain erosion on fiberglass laminates can generally be repaired by applying. One or more coats of suitable resin ( room temperature catalyzed ) to the surface. 2 or more coats of suitable resin ( room temperature catalyzed ) to the surface.

The classification for fiberglass reinforcement material that has high resistivity and is the most common is. E - glass. F - glass.

A potted compound repair on honeycomb can usually be made on damages less than. 1 inch in diameter. 2 inch in diameter.

Composite fabric material is considered to be the strongest in what direction?. Warp. Warped.

that reference tool is used to determine how the fiber is to be oriented for a particular ply of fabric?. Warp clock (compass). Warp (compass).

The strength and stiffness of a properly constructed composite buildup depends primarily on. The orientation of the plies to the load direction. The orientation of the plies to the load.

Which fiber to resin (percent) ratio for advanced composite wet lay-ups is generally considered the best for strength?. 60:40. 70:30.

What is the material layer used within the vacuum bag pressure system to absorb excess resin during curing called?. Bleeder. Bleed.

Proper pre-preg composite lay-up curing is generally accomplished by 1. applying external heat. 2. room temperature exposure. 3. adding a catalyst or curing 4. applying pressure. 1 and 4. 2 and 3.

When repairing large, flat surfaces with polyester resins, warping of the surface is likely to occur. One method of reducing the amount of warpage is to. Use short strip fiberglass in the bonded repair. Use long strip fiberglass in the bonded repair.

When making repairs to fiberglass, cleaning of the area to be repaired is essential for a good bond. The final cleaning should be made using. MEK (methyl ethyl ketone). FEK.

When necessary, what type of cutting fluid is usually acceptable for machining composite laminates?. Water only. oil.

When necessary, what type of cutting fluid is usually acceptable for machining composite laminates?. Filling with a putty consisting of a compatible resin and clean , short glass fibers. Not Filling with a putty consisting of a compatible resin and clean , short glass fibers.

Fiberglass damage that extends completely through a laminated sandwich structure. Maybe repaired. Not repaired.

Fiberglass laminate damage that extends completely through one facing and into the core. Requires the replacement of the damaged core and facing. Does not require the replacement of the damaged core and facing.

Repairing advanced composites using materials and techniques traditionally used for fiberglass repairs is likely to result in. An unairworthy repair. airworthy repair.

The preferred way to make permanent repairs on composites is by. Laminating a new repair plies. Laminating an old repair plies.

Which of the following, when added to wet resins, provide strength for the repair of damaged fastener holes in composite panels? 1. Microballoons. 2. Flox. 3. Chopped fibers. 2 and 3. 1 and 3.

The part of a replacement honeycomb core that must line up with the adjacent original is the. Ribbon direction. Not a Ribbon direction.

Which of the following are generally characteristic of aramid fiber (Kevlar) composites? 1. High tensile strength. 2. Flexibility. 3. Stiffness. 4. Corrosive effect in contact with aluminum. 5. Ability to conduct electricity. 1 and 2. 4 and 5.

Which of the following are generally characteristic of carbon/graphite fiber composites? 1. Flexibility. 2. Stiffness. 3. High compressive strength. 4. Corrosive effect in contact with aluminum. 5. Ability to conduct electricity. 2,3 and 4. 1,2 and 4.

If an aircraft's transparent plastic enclosures exhibit fine cracks which may extend in a network over or under the surface or through the plastic, the plastic is said to be. Crazing. frazing.

When installing transparent plastic enclosures which are retained by bolts extending through the plastic material and self-locking nuts, the nuts should be. Tightened to a firm fit, then backed off one full turn. Tightened to a firm fit, then backed off two full turn.

If a new safety belt is to be installed in an aircraft, the belt must conform to the strength requirements in which document?. TSO C22. TSO.

Which is considered good practice concerning the installation of acrylic plastics? ans. When rivets are used, adequate spacer or other satisfactory means to prevent excessive tightening of the frame to the plastic should be provided The coefficient of expansion of most plastic enclosure materials is. Greater than both steel and aluminum. lesser than both steel and aluminum.

If no scratches are visible after transparent plastic enclosure materials have been cleaned, their surfaces should be. Covered with a thin coat of wax. do not Covered with a thin coat of wax.

Cabin upholstery materials installed in current standard category airplanes must. be at least flame resistant. be at least not flame resistant.

What is the most common method of cementing transparent plastics?. Soaked method. Not soaked method.

When holes are drilled completely through Plexiglas, a. Specially modified twist drill should be used. Specially modified twist drill should not be used.

What is the purpose of a gusset or gusset plate used in the construction and repair of aircraft structures?. To join and reinforce intersecting structural members. To not join and reinforce intersecting structural members.

Select the alternative which best describes the function of the flute section of a twist drill. Form the cutting edges of the drill point. Form the not cutting edges of the drill point.

How many MS20470 AD-4-6 rivets will be required to attach a 10 x 5 inch plate, using a single row of rivets, minimum edge distance, and 4D spacing?. 56. 36.

Longitudinal (fore and aft) structural members of a semi-monocoque fuselage are called. Longerons and stringers. Longerons.

Shallow scratches in sheet metal may be repaired by. Burnishing. Burnish.

What should be the included angle of a twist drill for soft metals?. 90. 50.

When comparing the machining techniques for stainless steel sheet material to those for aluminum alloy sheet, it is normally considered good practice to drill the stainless steel at a. Lower speed with more pressure applied to the drill. Higher speed with more pressure applied to the drill.

A single-lap sheet splice is to be used to repair a section of damaged aluminum skin. If a double row of 1/8-inch rivets is used, the minimum allowable overlap will be. 13/16 inch. 14/16 inch.

Which statement is true regarding the inspection of a stressed skin metal wing assembly known to have been critically loaded?. If genuine rivet tipping has occurred, groups of consecutive rivet heads will be tipped in same direction. If not genuine rivet tipping has occurred, groups of consecutive rivet heads will be tipped in same direction.

When drilling stainless steel, the drill used should have an included angle of. 140 degrees and turn at low speed. 40 degrees and turn at low speed.

What is the minimum edge distance for aircraft rivets?. Two times the diameter of the rivet shank. 4 times the diameter of the rivet shank.

What is the minimum spacing for a single row of aircraft rivets?. Three times the diameter of the rivet shank. 2 times the diameter of the rivet shank.

Which is correct concerning the use of a file?. Apply the pressure on the forward stroke only, except when filing very soft metals such as aluminum. Do not Apply the pressure on the forward stroke only, except when filing very soft metals such as aluminum.

What is one of the determining factors which permits machine countersinking when flush riveting?. Thickness of the material is greater than the thickness of the rivet head. Slim of the material is greater than the thickness of the rivet head.

When repairing a small hole on a metal stressed skin, the major consideration in the design of the patch should be. The shear strength of the riveted joint. The shear weak of the riveted joint.

Which procedure is correct when using a reamer to finish a drilled hole to the correct size?. Turn the reamer only in the cutting direction. Turn the reamer not only in the cutting direction.

Repairs or splices involving stringers on the lower surface of stressed skin metal wings are usually. Permitted but are normally more critical in reference to strength in tension than similar repairs to the upper surface. Not permitted but are normally more critical in reference to strength in tension than similar repairs to the upper surface.

When straightening members made of 2024-T4, you should. Straighten cold and reinforce. Straighten hot and reinforce.

Clad aluminum alloys are used in aircraft because the. Are less subjected to corrosion than uncoated aluminum alloys. Are not less subjected to corrosion than uncoated aluminum alloys.

Which statement is true regarding a cantilever wing?. No external bracing is needed. No external bracing.

Aircraft structural units, such as spars, engine supports, etc., which have been built up from sheet metal, are normally. Repairable using approve method. Repairable using not approve method.

A factor which determines the minimum space between rivets is the. Diameter of rivets being used. Diameter of rivets not being used.

What should be the included angle of a twist drill for hard metal?. 118 degrees. 120 degrees.

When fabricating parts from Alclad 2024-T3 aluminum sheet stock,. All scratches, kinks tool marks,nick, etc., must be held to a minimum. Not all scratches, kinks tool marks,nick, etc., must be held to a minimum.

Rivet gauge, or transverse pitch is the distance between the. Centers of rivets in adjacent rows. Not Centers of rivets in adjacent rows.

Rivet pitch is the distance between the. Centers of adjacent rivets in the same row. Not Centers of adjacent rivets in the same row.

What is indicated by a black 'smoky' residue streaming back from some of the rivets on an aircraft?. Fretting corrosion occurring between the rivets and the skin. Fretting corrosion not occurring between the rivets and the skin.

The identifying marks on the heads of aluminum alloy rivets indicate the. Specific alloy used in the manufacture of rivets. Not Specific alloy used in the manufacture of rivets.

When an MS20470D rivet is installed, its full shear strength is obtained. Only after a period of age hardening. Not Only after a period of age hardening.

Which of the following need not be considered when determining minimum rivet spacing?. Revit length. Not Revit length.

What is the purpose of refrigerating 2017 and 2024 aluminum alloy rivets after heat treatment?. To retard age hardening. To not retard age hardening.

Under certain conditions, type A rivets are not used because of their. Low strength characteristics. Low weak characteristics.

A rivet set used to drive MS20470 rivets should. Have a slightly greater Radius than the rivet head. Have greater Radius than the rivet head.

Heat-treated rivets in the D and DD series that are not driven within the prescribed time after heat treatment or removal from refrigeration. Must be reheat treated before use. Must not be reheat treated before use.

The primary alloying agent of 2024-T36 is indicated by the number. 2. 3.

Which part of the 2017-T36 aluminum alloy designation indicates the primary alloying agent used in its manufacture?. 2. 3.

Most rivets used in aircraft construction have. Dimples. Cracks.

MS20426AD-6-5 indicates a countersunk rivet which has. An overall length of 5/16 inch. An overall length of 6/16 inch.

Which rivet may be used as received without further treatment?. 2117-T3. Rode.

Which rivets should be selected to join two sheets of .032-inch aluminum?. MS2047AD-4-4. 44.

A sheet metal repair is to be made using two pieces of 0.0625-inch aluminum riveted together. All rivet holes are drilled for 1/8-inch rivets. The length of the rivets to be used will be. 5/16 inch. 4/16 inch.

Mild steel rivets are used for riveting. Steel parts. Steel.

A DD rivet is heat treated before use to. Soften to facilitate riveting. Harden to facilitate riveting.

When riveting dissimilar metals together, what precautions must be taken to prevent an electrolytic action?. Place protective separator between the areas of potential electrical difference. Does not place protective separator between the areas of potential electrical difference.

The length of a rivet to be used to join a sheet of .032-inch and .064-inch aluminum alloy should be equal to. One and one half times the rivet diameter plus .096 inch. two and one half times the rivet diameter plus .096 inch.

What is generally the best procedure to use when removing a solid shank rivet?. Drill to the base of the manufactured rivet head with a drill one size smaller than the rivet shank and remove the rivet with a punch. Do not Drill to the base of the manufactured rivet head with a drill one size smaller than the rivet shank and remove the rivet with a punch.

Joggles in removed rivet shanks would indicate partial. Shear failure. Shear.

Which rivet is used for riveting magnesium alloy structures?. 5056 aluminum. aluminum.

Which rivet is used for riveting nickel-steel alloys?. Monel. Nel.

he length of rivet to be chosen when making a structural repair that involves the joining of 0.032-inch and 0.064-inch aluminum sheet, drilled with a No. 30 drill, is. 5/16. 3/16.

(Refer to Figure 4.) The length of flat A is. 3.750 inches. 3.7 inches.

REEAD. 123. 412.

If a streamline cover plate is to be hand formed using a form block, a piece of dead soft aluminum should first be placed over the hollow portion of the mold and securely fastened in place. The bumping operation should be. Started by tapping aluminum lightly around the edges and gradually working down into the center. Ended by tapping aluminum lightly around the edges and gradually working down into the center.

A piece of flat stock that is to be bent to a closed angle of 15° must be bent through an angle of. 165 degrees. 170 degrees.

When a piece of aluminum alloy is to be bent using a minimum radius for the type and thickness of material,. The layout should be made so that the bend will be 90 degrees to the grain of the shee. The layout should be made so that the bend will be 190 degrees to the grain of the shee.

The flat layout or blank length of a piece of metal from which a simple L-shaped bracket 3 inches by 1 inch is to be bent depends upon the radius of the desired bend. The bracket which will require the greatest amount of material is one which has a bend radius of. 1/8 inch. 1/10 inch.

If it is necessary to compute a bend allowance problem and bend allowance tables are not available, the neutral axis of the bend can be. Found by adding approximately one half of the stock thickness to the bend. Found by not adding approximately one half of the stock thickness to the bend.

Unless otherwise specified, the radius of a bend is the. Inside radius of the metal being formed. Outside radius of the metal being formed.

The sharpest bend that can be placed in a piece of metal without critically weakening the part is called the. Minimum radius of bend. Maximum radius of bend.

The most important factors needed to make a flat pattern layout are. Radius thickness and degree of bend. Radius thinness and degree of bend.

A piece of sheet metal is bent to a certain radius. The curvature of the bend is referred to as the. Bend radius. Not Bend radius.

You can distinguish between aluminum and aluminum alloy by. Testing with a 10 percent solution of caustic soda. testing with a 20 percent solution of caustic soda.

The purpose of a joggle is to. Allow clearance for a sheet or an extrusion. Not Allow clearance for a sheet or an extrusion.

When bending metal, the material on the outside of the curve stretches while the material on the inside of the curve compresses. That part of the material which is not affected by either stress is the. Neutral line. Not Neutral line.

read. 123. 123.

The sight line on a sheet metal flat layout to be bent in a cornice or box brake is measured and marked. One radius from the bend tangent line that is placed under the brakee. Two radius from the bend tangent line that is placed under the brak.

5.936. 5.9.

On a sheet metal fitting layout with a single bend, allow for stretching by. Subtracting the setback from both legs. Not Subtracting the setback from both legs.

The aluminum alloys used in aircraft construction are usually hardened by which method?. Heat treatment. Not heat treatment.