PATIENT CARE PRINCIPLES TEST # 4

Allergic reactions in the MRI environment may range from mild symptoms, such as itching, to severe reactions, such as anaphylaxis. (True or False). False. True.

Contrast agents are not known to cause adverse reactions in patients. (True or False). False. True.

Identifying latex allergies during patient screening and using latex-free alternatives when necessary are generally important steps for ensuring patient safety in the MRI environment. (True or False). False. True.

_________is typically performed in an attempt to revive someone in cardiac arrest. All answers are correct. An epinephrine injection. The Heimlich maneuver. CPR.

The abbreviation "CPR" typically represents: • Cardiopulmonary resuscitation. • Cardiac pulsatile resuscitation. • Cardiac pulsatile rescue. • Cardiopulmonary rescue.

What is the commonly recognized order in which cardiopulmonary resuscitation is administered?. Circulation, Breathing, Airway. Breathing, Circulation, Airway. • Airway, Breathing, Circulation. • Compressions, Airway, Breathing.

The steps of CPR are commonly described by the acronym _. СвА. ABC. всА. CAB.

What is generally the first step when an unresponsive person in need of CPR is discovered?. Run for help. Call for help or activate emergency response services. check for a pulse and apply breaths. Apply breaths in a synchronized manner.

The "C" in the CPR acronym CAB typically represents: circulation. Cardio. Compressions. cardiology.

The first step of CPR typically aims to: Apply breaths to deliver oxygen to the lungs. Check the airway and clear it if necessary. All answers are correct. Restore blood circulation with chest compressions.

The "A" in the CPR acronym CAB typically represents: Arrest. Asynchronization. Axillary. Airway.

The second step of CPR typically aims to: Restore blood circulation with chest compressions. Check the airway and clear it if necessary. No answers are correct. Apply breaths to deliver oxygen to the lungs.

The "B" in the CPR acronym CAB typically represents: Beats. Bradycardia. Bronchioles. Breathing.

The third step of CPR typically aims to: All answers are correct. Restore blood circulation with chest compressions. Apply breaths to deliver oxygen to the lungs. Check the airway and clear it if necessary.

During adult CPR, at what rate are compressions generally applied?. 100-120 compressions per minute. 60-80 compressions per minute. 80 compressions per minute. 120-150 compressions per minute.

During adult CPR, how deep are compressions generally applied?. at least 3-4 inches. 5-1 inch. at least 2 inches. 5 inches.

What ratio of compressions to breaths are generally applied when two people are performing adult CPR?. 10 compressions / 2 breaths. 15 compressions / 2 breaths. 30 compressions / 2 breaths. 40 compressions / 2 breaths.

What ratio of compressions to breaths are generally applied when one person is performing adult CPR?. 40 compressions / 2 breaths. 15 compressions / 2 breaths. 10 compressions / 2 breaths. 30 compressions / 2 breaths.

During adult CPR, where are compressions generally applied?. Middle of the sternum. Upper abdomen. Lower half of the sternum. Upper half of the sternum.

Which of the following best describes the general function of an Automated External Defibrillator (AED)?. To measure blood pressure and alert users to abnormal readings. To monitor and record heart rate during an MRI scan. To provide continuous oxygen supply during a cardiac emergency. To deliver a controlled electric shock to the heart in an attempt to restore normal heart rhythm during cardiac arrest.

A common approach to treat bleeding is to: Apply pressure to the wound with clean materials. Pour water on the wound. Apply tape to a wound. To not touch or apply pressure anywhere near the wound.

Tourniquets are devices that may be used to help stop or control: Improper digestion. Severe bleeding. Muscle contractions. Atrial fibrillation (AFib).

Which of the following best describes an action that might be taken if a radiofrequency (RF) burn is suspected during an MRI exam?. Continue the exam to avoid imaging artifacts. Apply a hot towel to the affected area immediately. Halt the MRI examination to prevent further injury. Ignore the discomfort and continue scanning.

Which of the following best describes a first aid treatment that might be considered for a mild radiofrequency (RF) burn?. Tightly wrap the burn with a bandage. Apply a hot towel to the affected area immediately. Applying a cool, damp cloth. Rubbing the affected area with isopropyl alcohol.

Which of the following best describes the general purpose of incident charting and record-keeping in the MRI environment?. To document incidents and actions taken for patient history and legal/regulatory purposes. To track the amount of time spent on each MRI scan. To ensure that all patient appointments are recorded. To monitor the daily use of MRI equipment to ensure leanliness.

What term best describes the act of fainting?. Syncope. Epilepsy. Shock. Vertigo.

Which medical condition is generally characterized by a sudden surge of abnormal, excessive brain activity?. Shock. Myocardial infarction. Epileptic seizures. Stroke.

wo common types of epileptic seizures are ___and ___?. Anaphylactic / hypovolemic. Ischemic / hemorrhagic. Grand mal (tonic-clonic) / petit mal (absence). туре 1 / type 2.

Grand mal (tonic-clonic) seizures are generally characterized by: Uncontrolled jerking of the body and limbs. Cold/clammy skin and a weak pulse. The act of vomiting. Subtle movements accompanied by momentary loss of awareness.

Petit mal (absence) seizures are generally characterized by: Cold/clammy skin and a weak pulse. The act of vomiting. Subtle movements accompanied by brief lapses in awareness. Uncontrolled jerking of the body and limbs.

Which potentially life-threatening medical condition is generally characterized by low blood pressure, cold/clammy skin, weak pulse, and rapid breathing?. Myocardial Infarction. Epileptic seizure. shock. Stroke.

Which type of shock is typically caused by a severe allergic reaction?. Anaphylactic. cardiogenic. septic. Neurogenic.

Which type of shock is typically caused by a severe infection?. Neurogenic. Septic. Cardiogenic. Anaphylactic.

Which type of shock is typically caused by damage to the heart and its inability to pump blood to the body's organs?. Septic. Cardiogenic. Neurogenic. Hypovolemic.

Which type of shock is typically caused by excessive blood or fluid loss?. Neurogenic. Septic. Hypovolemic. Cardiogenic.

Which type of shock is typically caused by damage to the nervous system, such as spinal cord trauma?. Hypovolemic. Neurogenic. cardiogenic. Septic.

Which medical condition is generally characterized as a metabolic disorder with consistently high blood sugar levels over an extended period?. syncope. Epilepsy. Emesis. Diabetes mellitus.

Type 1 diabetes is commonly described as "insulin resistant." (True or False). False. True.

Type 2 diabetes is commonly described as "insulin dependent." (True or False). False. True.

Which condition is generally characterized by low blood sugar levels?. Hyperglycemia. Hypotension. Hypoglycemia. Hyperthyroidism.

Which condition is generally characterized by high blood sugar levels?. Hypotension. Hypoglycemia. Hyperthyroidism. Hyperglycemia.

Why might patients with diabetes require a recent Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) reading before contrast administration?. • To ensure the patient's kidneys can adequately process the contrast material. • To determine the patients blood sugar levels. • To check for heart disease risk factors. • To confirm that the patient has no allergic reactions to contrast agents.

What medical condition is generally characterized by a disruption in blood supply to the brain, leading to a loss of brain function?. • Myocardial infarction. syncope. stroke. seizure.

What term is synonymous with "stroke"?. Seizure. Myocardial infarction. Syncope. Cerebrovascular accident.

The abbreviation "CVA" typically represents: cervical vertebrae accident. • cerebrovascular accident. • Cervical vertebrae artery. • Cerebrovascular artery.

Ischemic strokes often result from a thrombus or embolism blocking blood flow. (True or False). True. False.

Hemorrhagic strokes often occur when a blood vessel ruptures within the brain. (True or False). True. False.

Which of the following best represents the FAST acronym commonly used as a general guideline in recognizing stroke symptoms?. Face drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time to seek emergency medical attention. • Face swelling, Arm numbness, Slurred speech, Time to take aspirin. • Facial pain, Arm tingling, Slow speech, Temperature change. • Frequent headaches, Ankle swelling, Sudden fatigue, Tingling in fingers.

Which medical condition generally occurs when a blockage stops blood flow to a portion of the heart muscle, potentially leading to tissue injury and impaired heart function?. Seizure. Emesis. stroke. Myocardial infarction.

The abbreviation "MI" typically represents: • Mass infarction. • Medial Infection. • Myocardial infection. Myocardial infarction.

Which term describes the act of vomiting?. vertigo. Emesis. Ischemia. syncope.

Which medical device may be provided to aid a patient who is vomiting?. Nasal cannula. Epipen. Emesis basin. Sphygmomanometer.

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of communicating critical findings with the medical team during an MRI procedure?. • To ensure that the MRI technologist is informed. • To inform the patient of the results immediately after the scan. • To document findings for future reference and quality assurance. To promptly and accurately report significant or life-threatening conditions to initiate necessary interventions.

Effective communication of critical findings during an MRI procedure may involve which of the following structured communication tools?. • PDSA (Plan, Do, Study, Act). • sWOT (Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats). • SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation). • SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan).

The SBAR method is commonly used in healthcare to ensure concise and effective communication, particularly during critical situations. (True or False). True. False.

What does the "Situation" component of the SBAR communication tool typically include?. • The healthcare provider's interpretation of the problem. A concise statement of the problem or current situation. • A detailed history of the patient's condition. • A recommendation for how to proceed.

What does the "Background" component of the SBAR communication tool typically include?. • The healthcare provider's interpretation of the problem. Relevant information about the patient's history, diagnosis, and events leading up to the current situation. • A recommendation for how to proceed. • A concise statement of the current problem or situation.

What does the "Assessment" component of the SBAR communication tool typically include?. A detailed history of the patient's condition. • The healthcare provider's analysis or interpretation of the current situation. • A concise statement of the problem or situation. • A recommendation for a specific action to take.

What does the "Recommendation" component of the SBAR communication tool typically include?. • A concise statement of the current problem or situation. • The healthcare provider's analysis of the situation. • A proposal for a specific action or advice on how to proceed. • A summary of the patient's background information.