SASE 500-651

Which are two main features of Stateful Firewalling?. Clientless tagging. File retrospection. Full VX LAN support. File reputation.

Which license subscription terms are available for AMP licensing?. 1 month, 3 months, 6 months. 1 year, 5 years, 10 years. 5 years, 10 years, 30 years. 1 year, 3 years, 5 years.

Which Policy and Access solution technology combines posture checks and authentication across wired, wireless, and VPN networks?. Cisco AnyConnect. Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System. Cisco Stealthwatch. ASA 2100 series.

Which TrustSec feature allows customers to simplify firewall administration, avoiding the common rule explosions that happen when new servers are onboarded?. Push policies. Firewall administration. Traffic tagging. Regulate access.

Which Cisco Product is integrated with the AnyConnect Web Security Module?. Cisco Stealthwatch. Cisco Defense Orchestrator. Cisco Cloud Web Security. Cisco Email Security Appliance.

What are three benefits that Cisco Umbrella brings to DNS-Layer Security? (Choose three.). Blocks Domains/IPs associated with malware, phising, etc. Delivers cloud based recursive DNS. Provides profiling of devices. Logs all internet activity. Provides Sandboxing of malware. Helps provide breach mitigation.

Which feature of ISE combines user identification with robust context sharing platform to prevent inappropriate access?. Guest Access Management. Context-aware access. Patch management. Platform exchange grid.

Which is a key feature that Advanced Malware Protection provides?. Dynamic Content Analysis. Reputation Analytics. Retrospective Security. Dynamic URL Filtering.

Which two options are attack vectors of the threat-centric defense?. Voicemail. Backups. Mobile. Video surveillance. Cloud apps.

What are two key points of the Cisco Security and Threat Landscape module? (Choose two). The Cisco Security Solutions Portfolio drives customer business outcomes by providing threat-centric defense, visibility and control, and flexible solutions. The Cisco Security Solutions Portfolio drives customer business outcomes by providing threat-centric defense, visibility and control, and flexible solutions. The Cisco Security Solutions Portfolio stops all threat from entering a customer’s network. Customers need several solutions to protect their environment.

Which three features provided by NGFW and NGIPS support the "Internet Edge" use case? (Choose three.). Support for profiling devices. Support’s dynamic routing protocols such as OSPF or BGP. Support for Platform exchange grid. Support for High Bandwidth environments. Support for integrated posture assessment. Support for High Availability.

Which Cisco solution features recursive DNS capabilities?. Anyconnect. Identity Services Engine. Umbrella. Cognitive Threat Analytics.

Employee-sponsored network access, guest access, and activity tracking are contributors to which feature of ISE?. Device profiling. Context-aware access. Guest access management. Platform exchange grid.

What are two main features of enabling Cloudlock in a customer’s environment? (Choose two). Cloudlock connects via Oauth. Cloud App security works on plug-in. Easily creates network lags for different users. It takes less than five minutes to enable per platform. Protects against cloud-native malware.

Which three malware categories does real-time Malware Scanning protect you from? (Choose three). Antivirus Monitoring. Adware. Trojan Downloader. Outbreak Filters. Web Reputation. Phishing URL.

Which are three main features of the Meraki MX discussed in Cloud App Security module? (Choose three). Posture Assessment. Intrusion Prevention. Email Security. Profiling. Next Generation Firewall. Cloud-Brokered VPN.

Which feature of Cisco ISE uses Cisco TrustSec Security Group Tags to edit networks dynamically rather than with VLANs?. Device profiting and onboarding. Role and device segmentation. Guest Access. Secure remote access.

Which three options are attack vectors protected by Web Security? (Choose three). Endpoints. Mobile. Offline Devices. Backups. Voicemail. Web.

Which Cisco product included in the Endpoint threat-centric solution?. Umbrella. ASAv. Meraki MX. Cloudlock.

Which two Cisco products are a part of the "endpoints" threat-centric solution module? (Choose two). Cisco Umbrella. Cisco Defense Orchestrator. Cisco VPN 3000. Cisco Stealthwatch. Cisco AMP for Endpoints.

Which is a Cisco solution features retrospective security?. AMP for Endpoint. Cisco Defense Orchestrator. Umbrella. Investigate.

Which is a key feature of Cisco Defense Orchestra?. Orchestrates security policy management form one place. Consolidates configuration management. Protects customers network against zero-day attacks. Profiles devices connected to customer's network.

Which AMP feature is provided by fuzzy fingerprinting?. Identifies specific instances of malware with a signature-based approach. Automatically detects polymorphic variants of known malware. Provides recursive DNS lookup services. Identifies new malware using statistical modeling and analytics engines.

Which feature of Cisco AnyConnect allows pre-login authentication using windows machines, or single sign-on user authentication using Windows logon credentials?. Secure Layer 2 Network Access. Flexible AAA Options. Differentiated Mobile Access. Trusted Network Detection.

Which are two main features of Advanced Malware Protection? (Choose two). Leverages Global Threat Intelligence to provide zero-day protection. Threat protection across the entire attack continuum. User and Entity Behavior Analytics. Rapid App Containment.

What is a main benefit of Cisco's Cloudlock Data Loss Prevention feature?. Reduces cost with easy implementation and installation. Provides in depth cloud app analytics and tracking. Allow organizations to retroactively identify malware within their environment. Includes 70+ out of the box policies for enforcement, such as PCI, HIPAA, etc.

How does AMP's device trajectory capabilities help address customer s issues?. It determines the scope and cause of an outbreak and tracks suspicious files. It searches for potential threats based on identified activities and behaviors. It isolates suspicious files and runs them in a sandbox environment to determine their authenticity. It analyses the data from suspicious files to provide a new level of threat intelligence.

How many web requests does Talos process per month?. 1.5 million. 100,000. 130 billion. 130 million.

Which three options are attack vectors protected by Email Security? (Choose three). Endpoints. Offline Devices. Mobile. E-mail. Voicemail. Backups.

Which is a security product that was covered in the Policy and access security module?. Cisco NFGW. Cisco Identity Services Engine. Cisco NGIPS. Cisco Defense Orchestrator.

Which Stealthwatch component is a physical or virtual appliance that aggregates and normalizes NetFlow data?. Stealthwatch Management Center. Flow Collector. UOP Director. Flow Sensor.

How does the Cisco AnyConnect AMP Module help to protect customer's networks?. AMP is a unified agent that combines posture check and authentication across wired wireless, and VPN networks. AMP Module can profile devices before allowing them to connect. AMP provides highly secure access for select enterprise mobile applications. AnyConnect can deploy AMP for Endpoints for Windows or OSX.

Which two Cisco solution are part of the Mobile threat centric solution? (Choose two.). Cisco AnyConnect. Cisco Umbrella. Cisco NGFW. Cisco NGIPS. Cisco Defense Orchestrator.

Which are two main features of Intrusion Prevention?(Choose two.). Threat analysis through network behavior analysis. Protecting against Zero-Day attacks. Layer-4 traffic monitoring across platforms. Vulnerability-based threat management.

Which three options does Cisco provides customers in terms of “Visibility and Control” against today's threats? (Choose three). Granular device visibility and management. Unparalleled network and endpoint visibility. 18-month device release cycle. Bandwidth Utilization Monitoring. Comprehensive policy enforcement. Fast device policy updates.

Which Cisco solution falls under Advanced Threat?. Identity Services Engine. Stealthwatch. Threat Grid. Umbrella.

Which three NGFW and NGIPS features support the 'Complex Remote Access' use case? (Choose three.). Support for device onboarding. Users protected regardless of physical location. Fuzzy Fingerprinting. Detection of anomalous traffic. Controls and protections extended beyond VPN controls. Secure access extended to all users.

Which two products are part of Cisco's Data Center threat-centric solution? (Choose two). Rapid threat detection through NGFW and NGFWv. Enforced device security with Meraki. URL filtering. Relationship segmentation. Automated policy enforcement with ASAv.

Which option helps customers gain insight into security threats?. Limit volume of users to applications. Share sensitive data across Afferent platforms. Providing remote access VPN to allow mobile users to connect securely to customers network. Providing visibility into everything to allow granular security policies to be created and, Enforced.

Which feature of CTA can separate statistically normal traffic form anomalous traffic?. URL filtering. Trust modeling. Anomaly detection. Event classification.

What are three major features of Cisco Defense Orchestrator? (Choose three.). Providing retrospective security to protect against malware. Receive notifications about any unplanned changes to security policies and objects. Plan and model security changes before deploying them across the cloud. Identifying anomalous traffic in customer's network. Ability to deploy changes across virtual environments in real time or offline. Tracking suspicious files through the network.

Which feature of AMP tracks the movement of a file within the environment and monitors its disposition over time?. Fuzzy Fingerprinting. Machine Learning. ThreatGrid. Trajectory.

What are three deployment options for E-mail Security? (Choose three.). ESA. SaaS (CES). WSAv. AMP. ESAv. WebRoot.

Which two options are attack vectors protected by Identity and Access Control? (Choose two). Backups. Mobile. Endpoints. Cloud apps. Voicemail.

Which are two key Cisco products that are part of the web threat-centric solution? (Choose two). Cisco Umbrella. Cisco Identity Services Engine. Cisco Web Security Appliance. Cisco Email Security Appliance. Cisco Defense Orchestrator.

Which three options are attack vectors protected by DNS-Layer security? (Choose three.). Voicemail. Backups. Web. E-mail. Cloud apps. Video Surveillance.

Which is a main element of FirePOWER Device Manager?. On-box, Web-based management. Streamlined user experience. Simplified interface. Cloud-based policy orchestration.

What are three main challenges addressed by Cisco's cloud delivered security solutions? (Choose three). Threats are becoming too advanced tor traditional hardware. Solutions often require frequent hardware updates. Employees are unable to work remotely. Businesses are using email too frequently. Frequently installing new servers, appliances, and devices adds to the maintenance workload. IT staff must continuously grow with additional specializations to address the solutions.

Which are two key Cisco benefits of the web threat-centric solution? (Choose two). Data Loss Prevention with NGFW. Endpoint device profiling with ISE. E-mail encryption with CRES. Malware blocking with AMP. Rogue web application protection through CTA.

Which is a Cisco recommended driver for network security?. Offer a threat-foe used security solution. Provide automated impact assessment. Focus on point products. Assign central, role-based management.

Which are two main features of FirePOWER Threat Defense? (Choose two). Unify Images for more intuitive interface management. Provide malware detection score foe additional analytics. Deliver Data Loss Prevention through the virtual lock. Offer intuitive interface including new management options and control.

Which three features provided by NGFW and NGIPS support the “Internet Edge" use case? (Choose three). Supports High Availability. Support for profiling devices. Supports dynamic routing protocols such as OSPF or BGP. Support for Platform exchange grid. Support for High Bandwidth environments. Support for integrated posture assessment.

Which product was covered in the Cisco Cloud App Security module?. Cisco NGFW. Cisco Defense Orchestrator. Cisco AMP. Cisco Cloudlock.

Which feature of E-mail Security protects users from virus outbreaks using the Tabs database to quarantine suspicious messages?. Antivirus defense. Outbreak filters. Data Loss Prevention. Advanced Malware Protection.

Which feature of Cisco Web Security leverages the Outbreak Intelligence Engine to scan individual pieces of websites before allowing access?. Dynamic Content Analysis. Real-time Sandboxing Analysis. Visibility control. Antivirus Monitoring.

Which feature discovers and controls malicious cloud apps connected to the corporate environment?. Cognitive Threat Analytics. Cloudlock. Investigate. Umbrella.

Which Cisco product is a part of the Data Center threat centric solution?. Cloudblock. Cisco Defense Orchestrator. NGFWv. Meraki MX.

Which is a feature mentioned in the DNS security module?. Layer-4 monitoring. Umbrella. Real-time sandboxing. Data Loss Prevention.

Which is a key feature of Cisco Defense Orchestrator?. Simplifies security policy management. Identifies sensitive data in cloud environments. Detects anomalous traffic on customer's network. Provides retrospective security.

Which are two main features of ASAv and NGFWv? (Choose two). File trajectory. API-based management. File reputation. Agile provisioning.

Which is a component of Cisco's Web and E-mail Security Solution?. Device Profiling. Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System. Next Generation Firewall. DNS-Layer security.

What is key feature of Cognitive Threat Analytics?. It enables safe email usage with event Analytics. It improves threat detection over time with machine learning. It enhances anonymity with URL filtering. It enables greater endpoint device profiling intelligence with entity modeling.

Which two features are part of the ISE Plus license? (Choose two.). Profiling and feed services. Guest management. Cisco pxGrid. Basic network Access AAA. 802 1X. Trustsec.

Which feature of AnyConnect provides you the ability to identify data breaches as they happen?. Flexible AAA Options. Network Visibility Module. Differentiated Mobile Access. Trusted Network Detection.

Which Cisco solution falls under cloud security?. Identity Services Engine. Firepower Threat Defense. Cisco Defense Orchestrator. Umbrella.

How is Cisco Security able to dynamically add IP addresses of known malware domains to its list of ports to detect and block?. Layer-4 Monitoring. Data Loss Prevention. URL Filtering. Sandboxing.

Which options describes how Cisco solutions enable customer's businesses?. Enhancing remediation operations. Having the fastest threat identification. Automating the security intelligence updates. Their ability to keep customers networks more secure and make IT more productive.

Which three Cisco solutions are covered in the Advanced Threat module? (Choose three). Cognitive Threat Analytics. Intrusion Analytics. AMP. Cisco Defense Orchestrator. NGIPS. Cisco ThreatGrid.

What two challenges do customers face in their Campus and Branch deployments? (Choose two). Stopping data breaches across campuses and branches. Protect data across multiple cloud applications. Monitoring file behavior across a large set of endpoints. Understanding what our users are doing online. Securing the entire infrastructure.

Which feature of ISE is Terminal Access Control System (TACACS) a part of?. Device Administration. Device Profiling. Centralized Policy Management. Guest Access Management.

Which three values are provided by NGFW and NGIPS in the “Campus NGFW”? (Choose three.). Dynamic routing port to meet all network needs. Differentiated Mobile Access. Additional firewalls across all platforms. High throughput maintained while still protecting domain against threats. Identity Services Engine. Flexible AAA Options.

Which feature discovers and controls malicious cloud apps connected to the corporate environment?. Cognitive Threat Analytics. Cloudlock. Investigate. Umbrella.

Which are two main features of DDoS Attack Prevention? (Choose two.). Stop attacks within seconds of detection. Block or allow traffic automatically. Redirects DDoS traffic back to attacker. Leveraging AMP ThreatGrid technology.

How does AMP’s file reputation feature help customers?. It automatically detects polymorphic variants of known malware. It increases time to detection with exact data analytics. It increases the protection to systems with exact fingerprinting. It enables secure web browsing with cognitive threat analytics.

Which of AMP’s File capabilities deals with the problem of files passing through perimeter defenses that are later discovered to be a threat?. Dynamic Analytics. Trajectory. Malware Security. File Retrospection.

Which is a feature of E-mail Security?. Outbreak Filters. Umbrella. Layer-4 Monitoring. Investigate.

Which is a Cisco solution features retrospective security?. Investigate. Cisco Defense Orchestrator. Umbrella. AMP for Endpoint.

Which are two features of Cisco FirePOWER NGFW? (Choose two.). Next generation IPS to detect intrusions and prevent threats. URL filtering to restrict access to specific sites and sub-sites. Data Loss Prevention. Increased IT management needs.

Which are three main elements of the Cloud App Security? (Choose three.). Cloud Data Loss Prevention. User and Entity Behavior Analytics. Apps Firewall. Rapid Breach Remediation. DNS 2-Layer Protection.

Which two features are provided by ISE? (Choose two.). Device Firewalling. Centralized policy management. Retrospective Security. Network visibility. DDOS attack prevention.

Which are three key features of DNS-layer security? (Choose three.). Data Loss Prevention. Retrospective Analysis. Real-time sandboxing. Provides visibility into all Internet activity. Acts as first level of protection by providing security at DNS layer. Resolves all DNS request through a single recursive DNS service.