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SIKO MADALI

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Title of test:
SIKO MADALI

Description:
SIKO MADALI 2

Author:
AVATAR

Creation Date:
24/01/2023

Category:
Others

Number of questions: 116
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Content:
Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate? (Choose two) Defines the network functions that occur at each layer Ensures reliable data delivery through its layered approach Facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network Changes in one layer do not impact other layer.
What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received? 1 answer only The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to Its MAC address table.
What is the destination MAC address of a broadcast frame? 00:00:0c:07:ac:01 ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff 43:2e:08:00:00:0c 00:00:0c:43:2e:08 00:00:0crfHfrff.
Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override? When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port a syslog message is generated As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power it assumes the device has failed and disconnects.
In which way does a spine and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required? A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch.
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two) runts giants frame CRC input errors.
What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two) when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again when the cable length limits are exceeded when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted.
What is the function of a server? It transmits packets between hosts in the same broadcast domain It provides shared applications to end users It routes traffic between Layer 3 devices It creates security zones between trusted and untrusted networks.
What is a function of TFTP in network operations? transfers a configuration files from a server to a router on a congested link transfers IOS images from a server to a router for firmware upgrades transfers a backup configuration file from a server to a switch using a username and password transfers files between file systems on a router.
What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two) runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering housed solely in a data center that is dedicated to a single client runs the same operating system in order to communicate with other servers handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time.
What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device? to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet to transmit wireless traffic between hosts forward traffic within the same broadcast domain to pass traffic between different networks.
What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules? They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable.
Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture? applying security policies marking interesting traffic for data polices enforcing routing policies attaching users to the edge of the network.
Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two) Provide direct connectivity for end user devices Police traffic that is sent to the edge of the network Provide uninterrupted forwarding service Inspect packets for malicious activity Ensure timely data transfer between layers.
Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture? broadband cable access frame-relay packet switching dedicated point-to-point leased line Integrated Services Digital Network switching.
Which two WAN architecture options help a business improve scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two) dynamic routing static routing dual-homed branches single-homed branches asynchronous routing.
A company needs to interconnect several branch offices across a metropolitan area. The network engineer is seeking a solution that provides high-speed converged traffic, including voice, video, and data on the same network infrastructure. The company also wants easy integration to their existing LAN infrastructure in their office locations. Which technology should be recommended? VSAT ISDN Frame Relay Ethernet WAN.
What is the name of the layer in the Cisco borderless switched network design that is considered to be the backbone used for high-speed connectivity and fault isolation? data link network network access core access.
Which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture? communicates between the controller and the physical network hardware reports device errors to a controller generates statistics for network hardware and traffic facilitates communication between the controller and the applications.
What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking? moves from a two-tier to a three-tier network architecture to provide maximum redundancy provides an added layer of security to protect from DDoS attacks combines control and data plane functionality on a single device to minimize latency allows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized port.
What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two) The core and distribution layers perform the same functions The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail The core layer maintains wired connections for each host The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies.
What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture? Each device is separated by the same number of hops It provides variable latency It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth.
Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines? Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU, memory, and storage The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch.
An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine? platform-as-a-service infrastructure-as-a-service network-as-a-service software-as-a-service.
Anycompany has decided to reduce its environmental footprint by reducing energy costs, moving to a smaller facility, and promoting telecommuting. What service or technology would support this requirement? Cisco ACI cloud services APIC-EM data center.
What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (Choose two) The environment must be configured with one hypervisor that serves solely as a network manager to monitor SNMP traffic It allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server It requires that some servers, virtual machines and network gear reside on the Internet It allows a physical router to directly connect NICs from each virtual machine into the network It allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network.
What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization? control and distribution of physical resources software-as-a-service services as a hardware controller infrastructure-as-a-service.
A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software which is only used occasionally. Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend? infrastructure-as-a-service software-as-a-service platform-as-a-service business process as service to support different types of service.
In a CDP environment, what happens when the CDP interface on an adjacent device is configured without an IP address? CDP operates normally, but it cannot provide any information for that neighbor. CDP operates normally, but it cannot provide IP address information for that neighbor. CDP becomes inoperable on that neighbor. CDP uses the IP address of another interface for that neighbor.
How can the Cisco Discovery Protocol be used? to allow a switch to discover the devices that are connected to its ports all of the above to determine the IP addresses of connected Cisco devices to determine the hardware platform of the device.
Which command should you enter to configure an LLDP delay time of 5 seconds? lldp reinit 5 lldp timer 5000 lldp holdtime 5 lldp reinit 5000.
Which command is used to enable LLDP globally on a Cisco IOS ISR? lldp run lldp enable cdp run cdp enable lldp transmit.
Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface? lldp timer lldp tlv-select lldp reinit lldp holdtime.
An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented? switch#lldp port-description switch(config)#lldp port-description switch(config-line)#lldp port-description switch(config-if)#lldp port-description.
Which three statements about MAC addresses are correct? (Choose three) To communicate with other devices on a network, a network device must have a unique MAC address A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the network on which the host resides and the second of which uniquely identifies the host on the network An example of a MAC address is 0A:26:B8:D6:65:90 A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the manufacturer of the hardware and the second of which uniquely identifies the hardware The MAC address of a device must be configured in the Cisco IOS CLI by a user with administrative privileges The MAC address is also referred to as the IP address.
The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions? (Choose two) There is a duplex mismatch The interface is error-disabled There is a protocol mismatch The interface is shut down There is a speed mismatch.
How does the dynamically-learned MAC address feature function? It requires a minimum number of secure MAC addresses to be filled dynamically Switches dynamically learn MAC addresses of each connecting CAM table The ports are restricted and learn up to a maximum of 10 dynamically-learned addresses The CAM table is empty until ingress traffic arrives at each port.
Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol. SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable. What is the result of this configuration? The link is in a downstate. The link is in an error disables stale The link is becomes an access port The link becomes a trunkport.
Question 7 VLAN & Trunking Questions PART 1 YES WRONG?.
Question10 VLAN & Trunking Questions PART 1 YES WRONG.
An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches. The neighboring switch is set to trunk or desirable mode. What action should be taken? configure switchport nonegotiate configure switchport mode dynamic desirable configure switchport mode dynamic auto configure switchport trunk dynamic desirable.
An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured? switchport mode trunk switchport mode dynamic desirable switchport mode dynamic auto switchport nonegotiate.
An engineer must configure interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch. Which action should be taken? configure IEEE 802.1p configure IEEE 802.1q configure ISL configure DSCP.
What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command? It enables BPDU messages It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded It immediately enables the port in the listening state.
Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch? Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically. Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down After spanning tree converges PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs.
Refer to exhibit. How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain? SW2 vtp domain cisco vtp mode transparent vtp password test interface fastethernet0/1 description connection to SW1 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q It processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its access ports It receives updates from all VTP servers and forwards all locally configured VLANs out all trunk ports It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports It transmits and processes VTP updates from any VTP Clients on the network on its trunk ports .
Which state does the switch port move to when PortFast is enabled? learning forwarding blocking listening.
What criteria is used first during the root port selection process? lowest neighbor’s port ID lowest path cost to the root bridge local port ID lowest neighbor’s bridge ID.
Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol? on auto active desirable.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured? passive auto active mode on.
Which two command sequences must you configure on a switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two) interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode active interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode auto interface port-channel 10 switchport interface port-channel 10 no switchport ip address 172.16.0.1 255.255.255.0 interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode on.
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery? TCP uses checksum, acknowledgement, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only. TCP uses two-dimensional parity checks, checksums, and cyclic redundancy checks and UDP uses retransmissions only. TCP uses retransmissions, acknowledgement and parity checks and UDP uses cyclic redundancy checks only. TCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses acknowledgements only.
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet? 172.9.0.0/16 209.165.201.0/24 192.0.0.0/8 172.28.0.0/16.
Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform? allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network enables secure communications to the internet for all external hosts ensures that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing.
Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network? provides a reduction in size of the forwarding table on network routers provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure allows communication across the Internet to other private networks allows servers and workstations to communicate across public network boundaries.
An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor. What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently? ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0 ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0 ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.224 ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.128.
Which of the following dynamic routing protocols are Distance Vector routing protocols? (Choose two) EIGRP OSPF BGP RIP IS-IS.
Question 6 ip-routing-questions a b c d.
Refer to the exhibit. If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command, how does the router respond? Gateway of last resort is 10.12.0.1 to network 0.0.0.0 O* E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 10.12.0.1, 00:00:01, GigabitEthernet0/0 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks C 10.0.0.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/0 L 10.0.0.2/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/0 C 10.13.0.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1 L 10.13.0.2/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1 It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed It starts sending traffic without a specific matching entry in the routing table to GigabitEthernet0/1 It starts load-balancing traffic between the two default routes It immediately replaces the existing OSPF route in the routing table with the newly configured static route.
Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table? 20 90 110 115.
What is the purpose of the show ip ospf interface command? displaying OSPF-related interface information displaying general information about OSPF routing processes displaying OSPF neighbor information on a per-interface-type basis displaying OSPF neighbor information on a per-interface basis.
A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF. By default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to? point-to-multipoint nonbroadcast broadcast point-to-point.
You have configured a router with an OSPF router ID, but its IP address still reflects the physical interface. Which action can you take to correct the problem in the least disruptive way? Reload the OSPF process Save the router configuration Reload the router Specify a loopback address.
An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode? Exchange 2-way Full Init.
A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers. A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP. By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2? point-to-multipoint broadcast point-to-point non-broadcast.
Question 11 https://www.9tut.com/ospf-questions-1 a b c d.
Question 12 https://www.9tut.com/ospf-questions 1 a b c d.
Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two) OSPF area OSPF MD5 authentication key OSPF stub flag OSPF process ID IPv6 address.
Which step in the link-state routing process is described by a router sending Hello packets out all of the OSPF-enabled interfaces? electing the designated router establishing neighbor adjacencies injecting the default route exchanging link-state advertisements.
Question 5 https://www.9tut.com/ospf-questions-2-2 a b c d.
Question 6 https://www.9tut.com/ospf-questions-2-2 a b c d.
An engineer must configure an OSPF neighbor relationship between router R1 and R3. The authentication configuration has been configured and the connecting interfaces are in the same 192.168.1.0/30 subnet. What are the next two steps to complete the configuration? (Choose two) configure the hello and dead timers to match on both sides configure both interfaces with the same area ID configure the interfaces as OSPF active on both sides configure the same router ID on both routing processes configure the same process ID for the router OSPF process.
Which statement about the nature of NAT overload is true? applies a one-to-many relationship to internal IP addresses can be configured only on Gigabit interface applies a many-to-many relationship to internal IP addresses applies a one-to-one relationship to internal IP addresses.
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct. Which IP address is the source IP? R1#show ip nat translations Pro Inside global Inside local Outside local Outside global tcp 172.23.104.3:43268 10.4.4.4:43268 172.23.103.10:23 172.23.103.10:23 tcp 172.23.104.4:45507 10.4.4.5:45507 172.23.103.10:80 172.23.103.10:80 10.4.4.4 10.4.4.5 172.23.103.10 172.23.104.4.
Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device? 1 answer only outside global outside local inside global inside local outside public inside public.
Which two pieces of information can you determine from the output of the show ntp status command? (Choose two) whether the NTP peer is statically configured the IP address of the peer to which the clock is synchronized the configured NTP servers whether the clock is synchronized the NTP version number of the peer.
Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two) Enable NTP authentication Verify the time zone Disable NTP broadcasts Specify the IP address of the NTP server Set the NTP server private key.
What will happen if you configure the logging trap debug command on a router? It causes the router to stop sending all messages to the syslog server It causes the router to send messages with lower severity levels to the syslog server It causes the router to send all messages with the severity levels Warning, Error, Critical, and Emergency to the syslog server It causes the router to send all messages to the syslog server.
What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server? A TCP connection has been torn down A certificate has expired An ICMP connection has been built An interface line has changed status.
Which command must you enter to guarantee that an HSRP router with higher priority becomes the HSRP primary router after it is reloaded? standby 10 preempt standby 10 version 1 standby 10 priority 150 standby 10 version 2.
Which command should you enter to verify the priority of a router in an HSRP group? show standby show hsrp show interfaces show sessions.
While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface. Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two) The packets fail to match any permit statement A matching permit statement is too high in the access list The ACL is empty A matching permit statement is too broadly defined A matching deny statement is too high in the access list.
What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+? RADIUS is most appropriate for dial authentication, but TACACS+ can be used for multiple types of authentication TACACS+ encrypts only password information and RADIUS encrypts the entire payload TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them RADIUS logs all commands that are entered by the administrator, but TACACS+ logs only start, stop, and interim commands.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements? SW1(config-line)#line vty 0 15 SW1(config-line)#no login local SW1(config-line)#password cisco SW2(config)#username admin1 password abcd1234 SW2(config)#username admin2 password abcd1234 SW2(config-line)#line vty 0 15 SW2(config-line)#login local SW3(config)#username admin1 secret abcd1234 SW3(config)#username admin2 secret abcd1234 SW3(config-line)#line vty 0 15 SW3(config-line)#login local SW4(config)#username admin1 password abcd1234 SW4(config)#username admin2 password abcd1234 SW4(config-line)#line console 0 SW4(config-line)#login local 2 3 1 4.
Which two conditions must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two) The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image The ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch A console password must be configured on the switch Telnet must be disabled on the switch IP routing must be enabled on the switch.
Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching? ASA WSA Firepower FireSIGHT.
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer booted a new switch and applied this configuration via the console port. Which additional configuration must be applied to allow administrators to authenticate directly to enable privilege mode via Telnet using local username and password? Switch(config)#hostname R1 R1(config)#interface FastEthernet0/1 R1(config-if)#no switchport R1(config-if)#ip address 10.100.20.42 255.255.255.0 R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4 R1(config-line)#login R1(config)#username admin secret p@ss1234 R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4 R1(config-line)#login local R1(config)#enable secret p@ss1234 R1(config)#username admin R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4 R1(config-line)#password p@ss1234 R1(config-line)#transport input telnet R1(config)#username admin R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4 R1(config-line)#password p@ss1234 R1(config)#username admin privilege 15 secret p@ss1234 R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4 R1(config-line)#login local.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration? ip arp inspection vlan 2 interface fastethernet 0/1 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 2 The switch discard all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bindings All ingress and egress traffic is dropped because the interface is untrusted Egress traffic is passed only if the destination is a DHCP server. All ARP packets are dropped by the switch.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration? ip arp inspection vlan 2 interface fastethernet 0/1 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 2 The switch port remains administratively down until the interface is connected to another switch The switch port interface trust state becomes untrusted The switch port remains down until it is configured to trust or untrust incoming packets Dynamic ARP inspection is disabled because the ARP ACL is missing.
Which command verifies whether any IPv6 ACLs are configured on a router? show ipv6 interface show access-list show ipv6 access-list show ipv6 route.
Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet? unique local multicast link-local global unicast.
Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks? RADIUS TACACS CPU ACL Flex ACL.
When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two) ASCII base64 hexadecimal binary decimal.
Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in pre-shared key mode? RC4 AES-128 TKIP with RC4 AES-256.
Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true? When enabled the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic The EtherChannel must be configured in “mode active” To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured.
Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two) SSID ip address of one or more access points Profile name management interface settings QoS settings.
What software defined architecture plane assists network devices with making packet forwarding decisions by providing Layer 2 reachability and Layer 3 routing information? data plane control plane policy plane management plane.
Which statement about the Cisco ACI fabric is most accurate? The spine switch rewrites the EPG from ingress to egress when it performs the forwarding proxy function An APIC is a cluster of at least three APIC controllers, providing a single point of management without a single point of failure The APIC is able to enforce security by inserting itself into the data path. The fabric header carries the EPG from the egress to the ingress leaf switch.
What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management? It supports high availability for management functions when operating in cluster mode It supports numerous extensibility options including cross-domain adapters and third-party SDK It is designed primarily to provide network assurance It enables easy autodiscovery of network elements m a brownfield deployment.
What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks? It modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode It only supports auto-discovery of network elements in a green field deployment.
What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management? It supports high availability for management functions when operating in cluster mode It supports numerous extensibility options including cross-domain adapters and third-party SDKs It is designed primarily to provide network assurance It enables easy autodiscovery of network elements m a brownfield deployment.
Which of the following is the JSON encoding of a dictionary or hash? [“key”, “value”] (“key”: “value”) {“key”, “value”} {“key”: “value”}.
Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes? Chef Python Ansible Puppet.
Which CRUD operation modifies an existing table or view? create update read replace.
Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two) EBCDIC YAML JSON XML SGML.
A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone? It drops the traffic It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged It tags the traffic with the default VLAN It tags the traffic with the native VLAN.
Drag and Drop the benefits of a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller from the left onto the correct examples on the right Dynamic RF Feature: Easy Deployment Process: Optimized user performance: Easy upgrade process: .
Drag the OSPF parameters to the correct places on the right. IP address router ID area ID timers netmask OSPF Process ID.
Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right. device that manages access points: device that provides Wi-Fi devices with a connection to a wired network: used for out of band management of a WLC: used to support mobility management of the WLC: applied to the WLAN for wireless client communication: .
Drag and drop the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the correct IP traffic types on the right. Sends Transmission in Sequence Uses a lower transmission rate to ensure reliability Transmits packet as stream Transmits packets individually Uses higher transmission rate to support latency-sensitive apps Transmissions include an 8-byte header.
Drag drop the descriptions from the left on to the correct configuration-management technologies on the right. uses SSH for remote device communication uses YAML for fundamental configuration elements fundamental configuration elements are stored in a manifest uses TCP 8140 for communication uses Ruby for fundamental configuration elements uses TCP port 10002 for configuration push jobs.
Match the functions to the corresponding layers. (Not all options are used) provides network access to the user represents the network edge implements network access policy establishes Layer 3 routing boundaries provides high-speed backbone connectivity functions as an aggregator for all the campus blocks.
Drag and drop the attack-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of attack that they mitigate on the right. 802.1q double-tagging VLAN-hopping attack man-in-the-middle spoofing attack: MAC flooding attack: switch-spoofing VLAN-hopping attack: .
characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right. focused on network user input is a policy uses allow list security model focused on devices user input is a configuration uses block list security model.
Drag the IPv6 DNS record types from the left onto the description on the right. correlates a domain with its authoritative name servers: associates the domain serial number with its owner aliases one name to another: supports reverse name lookups: correlates a host name with an IP address: .
Which two command sequences must you configure on a switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two) interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode active interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode auto interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode on interface port-channel 10 no switchport ip address 172.16.0.1 255.255.255.0 interface port-channel 10 switchport switchport mode trunk.
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