System Review 787 q35-70

35. Which is the case that the second attempt is performed as a function of EEC engine autostart , when a problem occurs in ground engine start for the first time?. No EGT Rise. Both Starter's Loss. No N1 Rotation.

36. What is correct about the generator equipped on the engine and APU?. Each engine and APU is equipped with two constant frequency starter / generators each. One for each engine and one variable frequency starter / generator for the APU are equipped. Each engine and APU is equipped with two variable frequency starter / generators each.

37. When EEC is normal mode, what is the control parameter of thrust setting?. TPR. N1. EPR.

38. When EEC enters alternate mode, what is correct about the operation of autothrottle?. Autothrottle automatically disconnects from normal mode to soft alternate mode. Autosrottle automatically disconnects from soft alternate mode to hard alternate mode. Even if mode changes to soft alternate and hard alternate, autothrottle does not automatically disconnect.

39. What is correct about the condition that In-Flight Start Envelope is displayed in EICAS?. If the fire switch of the corresponding engine is in the IN position and engine N2 RPM is lower than Idle. When the engine becomes fire regardless of the position of the fire switch of the relevant engine. Whenever fuel control switch of the engine is in the CUTOFF position.

40. Which is correct about APU attended / unattended mode?. When the cockpit door is closed on ground, it is the attended mode. When engine is starting on ground, it is the unattended mode, but when engine becomes idling state it becomes the attended mode. When the aircraft is in Flight, it is the attended mode.

41. Which is correct about Electronic Engine Control (EEC)?. In the normal mode, EEC controls TPR based on thrust lever position. The normal mode has the soft mode, and the alternate mode has the hard mode. In the alternate mode, EEC controls N2 based on thrust lever position.

42. What is incorrect about Secondary Air System (SAS)?. The engines are equipped with this system to provide cooling and sealing airflow to the intermediate pressure turbine. Should the SASV fail in the open position, the temperature in the SAS rises rapidly and could result in overheated engine bearings. There is no EICAS message on SAS.

43. Which is correct about the engine fire and overheat detection system?. When the detection system detects fire, EICAS message DET FIRE ENG (L or R) is displayed. Each element of the detection system is composed of dual channel, and if a fault occurs on one channel, it is necessary to switch to single channel operation manually. The engine fire detection system also serves as the overheat detection system.

44. Which is correct about Thrust Asymmetry Protection (TAP)?. During takeoff or go-around, it works when large thrust asymmetry occurs at low speed. It operates when big thrust asymmetry occurs in all phases. When big thrust asymmetry occurs, automatically activate the rudder.

45. Which is correct about the engine fire extinguisher bottle?. Two engine fire extinguisher bottles are equipped, and the bottle 1 on the left is also the APU fire extinguisher bottle. When engine fire signal occurs, the extinguisher bottle will be automatically discharged to the relevant engine. The engine fire extinguisher bottle is equipped with two, so you can make discharge on both the left and right engine.

46. Which is correct about the cargo compartment fire extinguishing system?. In flight, fire warning from the cargo fire detection system immediately causes the compartment to be total discharged from all extinguisher bottles. In flight, fire warning from the cargo fire detection system immediately arm all extinguisher bottles for that compartment. In flight, the fire warning from the cargo fire detection system immediately causes the compartment to be total discharged from the two extinguisher bottles.

47. Which is correct mode in Flight Control System?. Primary, Secondary, Alternate. Normal, Alternate, Direct. Normal, Secondary, Direct.

48. Which is correct about the APU fire protection?. When APU fire signal is detected, the APU automatically shuts down and the extinguisher bottle is automatically discharged. APU has two fire extinguisher bottles, and rotating APU fire switch to the right or left can discharge the corresponding extinguisher bottle. When APU fire signal is detected, APU automatically shuts down in flight, but does not automatically shut down on ground.

49. What is incorrect about the fire protection system?. Main and nose wheel well have fire / overheat detection. The engine has fire / overheat detection. There is no overheat detection in APU.

50. Which is correct in the description of Roll Envelope Bank Angle Protection?. When Bank Angle goes beyond 35 ˚, Input is given to Roll Control Wheel and Control Wheel Force becomes large so that it returns to within 30 ゜ Bank. It is a function that works when AUTO is set in Bank Limit Selector of MCP, and adjusts Roll Control Wheel Force according to TAS. When Bank Angle exceeds the value set by Bank Limit Selector of MCP, make Roll the aircraft so that it returns within the set value.

51. Which is correct in the description of Flap / Slat Operation Mode?. Primary, Secondary, Alternate. Normal, Secondary, Direct. Normal, Soft Alternate, Hard Alternate.

52. Which is incorrect in the description of Flight Controls' Unique Failure Considerations?. In the case of All Hydraulic Power Loss, the Stabilizer operates Electrically, two pairs of Spoiler Pair, and Pilot Control of Roll are enabled. If there is a complete loss of flight control signaling, Pitch Control can be controlled using Alternate Pitch Trim Switch and Roll can be controlled using Control Wheel by Direct Wiring from Flight Deck to Stabilizer and a pair of Spoiler Pair. If there is a complete loss of flight control signaling, you can control Pitch and Roll using Control Wheel by Direct Cable from Flight Deck to Stabilizer and a pair of Spoiler Pair.

53. Which is incorrect in the description of Cruise Flaps?. Cruise flaps is an automated function that improves the airplane’s cruise performance by symmetrically moving the flaps, ailerons, flaperons, and spoilers based on airplane parameters such as weight, airspeed and altitude. Cruise flaps are available in the normal mode and the secondary mode. Cruise flaps optimizes performance in cruise by varying the camber of the wing and reducing drag.

54. What is correct when APU ｆire was detected in flight?. APU performs auto shutdown, and the extinguisher bottle is automatically discharged after 15 second delay. APU will auto shutdown and the extinguisher bottle will be automatically discharged immediately. APU does not perform auto shutdown.

55. Which is correct in the description of Stabilizer System?. Stabilizer position commands are processed through 3 independent channels within the flight control system. Placing both switches in the CUTOUT position disables stabilizer operation and the EICAS advisory message STABILIZER is displayed. The commands move the stabilizer using an electric control unit powered by the L2 and R2 AC buses.

56. Which is correct in the description of Automatic Speedbrake?. In Reject Takeoff, if Thrust Lever is set to Idle Range and Speed Brake Lever is pulled to the front of Armed Position in Manual, Speedbrake Lever will automatically move to Up Position and Spoiler will automatically Extend. When VNAV is engaged and goes inside the White (Drag) Circle of Offpath Descent, Speedbrake Lever will automatically move to Up Position and Spoiler will automatically Extend. n Armed Position, Main Gear Truck will Untilt in Landing, Spoiler automatically Extend and Speedbrake Lever will automatically move to Up Position unless both Thrust Lever are Takeoff Range.

57. Which is correct in the description of Slat Pregap function ?. Only when Flap / Slat is in Secondary Mode. Only when Flap / Slat is Primary or Secondary Mode. Only when Flap / Slat is Primary Mode.

58. Which is correct in the description of Slat Autogap function ?. Slat Autogap function is only available in Secondary Mode. Slat Autogap function is only available in Primary Mode. Slat Autogap function is only available in Primary or Secondary Mode.

59. Which is incorrect about Closed Loop Line Item of the electronic checklist (ECL)?. It is a Checklist Step that includes a continuously and automatically monitoring Switch, Lever and Selector Position. Although a rare case, some monitor actual System conditions such as the Flap and the Landing Gear Position. When the Control is set to its Required Position, the Line Item font changes from Amber to Green, in addition, a Complete Indicator icon appears on the left side of the Line Item.

60. Which is incorrect about the head-up display (HUD)?. The colors displayed on the HUD Combiner are Green and Amber. Symbology of the HUD is almost the same as PFD Symbology. If it is not properly aligned with the projector, ALIGN HUD message is shown on the HUD.

61. Which is incorrect about Installed Electronic Flight Bag (EFB)?. The display units operate independently of each other, but cannot also display information from the off-side unit. It is an operating system with applications designed to assist the flight crew with routine tasks, enhance security, and reduce the reliance on paper documents. It can exchange data with the FMC.

62. Which is correct about Checklist Alerting of Hidden Non-Normal Checklist?. When there is a Non-Normal Checklist in the Queue and no related EICAS message is displayed, nor is ECL displayed, an EICAS advisory message CHKL INCOMPLETE NON-NORMAL appears. Hidden Checklist situations occurs when an Unannunciated Checklist is partially completed and disappears from the display. The CHKL NON-NORMAL message disappears when ECL is completed.

63. Which is incorrect in the description of Global Positioning System (GPS)?. Left and right GPS receivers are independent and supply very accurate position data to the IRS. The ND annunciates GPS when the FMC uses GPS position updates. If the IRS becomes inoperative during flight, GPS Position Data can not be used either.

64. Which is correct about the condition that EICAS message "CHKL INCOMPLETE NORM" isdisplayed?. When a LANDING checklist is not complete, and the aircraft has descended from the FMC landing runway to an altitude less than 500 ft. When BEFORE START checklist is not complete, engine start selector becomes START position. When BEFORE TAKEOFF checklist not complete, thrust lever is advanced to takeoff range.

65. Which is correct about CHKL OVRD key in electronic checklist (ECL)?. CHKL OVRD key is for override of unexecuted checklist, so if CHKL OVRD key is implemented with even one checklist item, CHKL OVRD key cannot be used. If CHKL OVRD key is selected, the operational note of the displayed checklist enters the NOTES page as reference information, but the color is displayed in cyan. When CHKL OVRD key is selected, operational note of checklist displayed does not enter NOTES page.

66. Which is incorrect about the vertical situation display (VSD)?. VSD presents a profile view of the airplane and its environment. The selected altitude shown on the VSD is the same as the selected altitude shown on the on-side PFD. VSD is always displayed under PFD.

67. Which is correct about the checklist alerting of normal checklist?. In case of an alert condition occurrence, the EICAS caution message CHKLNORM is displayed, and this message is displayed until a corresponding checklist is completed or overridden. Alert Logic is set up according to 4 Normal Checklists of Before Taxi、Before Takeoff ,Approach and Landing. To indicate that one or more normal checklists are incomplete, the color of the normal checklist key located in the bottom left corner of the display changes to cyan:.

68. Which is incorrect in the description of Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD)?. GPS Altitude (GPS ALT) and ISFD Airspeed (ISFD SPD) are displayed on the PFD when both the selected Air Data and Back Up Air Data can not be used. ISFD, Altitude, Attitude, Airspeed are independent from IRU and AHRU. ISFD acquires Data from Center Pitot Static System.

69. Which is correct in the description of Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)?. DME is equipped with 2 System. VOR / DME Update is usually more accurate than DME / DME Update. FMC uses three nearest DMEs for Position Update.

70. Which is correct in the description of FMS?. Four independent FMCs are equipped. At Power Up one FMC is designed to run the Flight Management Task and the other FMC to monitor. Three independent FMCs are equipped. At Power Up one FMC is designed to run the Flight Management Task and the other FMC to monitor. Two independent FMCs are equipped. At Power Up one FMC is designed to run the Flight Management Task and the other FMC to monitor.